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Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps, 400-201 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

The latest Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 exam dumps and exercises test questions and answers,These free exercises will help you improve 400-201 CCIE Service Provider test skills, We share 400-201 pdf for free to download and learn, and you can also watch 400-201 YouTube videos online! We share 40 real effective exam questions and answers for free if you want to get the full 400-201 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-201.html (Total questions:711 Q&A)->> updated throughout the year!Make sure you pass the exam easily!

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Latest effective Cisco 400-201 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which protocol provides fast link failure detection for all type of encapsulation?
A. Prefix Independent Convergence
B. Carrier delay
C. Non stop forwarding
D. Bidirectional forwarding detection
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which three counters from a show interface output indicate that data packets were dropped on that interface? (Choose
three.)
A. pause input
B. collisions
C. lost carrier
D. frame
E. runts
F. input error
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 3lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q3Refer to the exhibit Which PW type is negotiated?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5
F. Type 6
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 4
A network engineer observes increasing output drops on the serial interface. Which two solutions can be implemented
to minimize these drops? (Choose two.)
A. Increase the MTU size on the link.
B. Replace the serial cable between the connecting devices.
C. Turn on fast switching.
D. Increase the output hold queue size.
E. Implement priority queuing on slower serial links by configuring priority lists.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 5
Which two statements best describe the functionality of the BGP graceful restart capability? (Choose two.)
A. The peer router sends an end-of RIB message to the restarting router.
B. The peer router immediately removes the BGP routes that it learned from the restarting router from its BGP routing
table.
C. The restarting router does not remove any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires.
D. The router establishes BGP sessions with other routers and relearns the BGP routes from other routers that are also
capable of graceful restart. The restarting router waits to receive updates from the neighboring routers. When the
neighboring routers send end-of- RIB messages to indicate that they are done sending updates, the restarting router
starts sending its own updates.
E. The restarting router removes any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 6
The SP core supports PIM-SM for multicast traffic, but one of these routers is not able to see one of its PIM neighbors.
What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The router is an RP with high priority.
B. IGMP snooping is not enabled.
C. PIM sparse mode is not enabled on a participating multicast interface.
D. PIM protocols are not enabled in global configuration mode.
E. Auto-RP is not enabled on this network.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Which two statements about spanning tree path cost are true? (Choose two.)
A. The path cost can be changed for an interface using the spanning-tree cost command.
B. The path cost can be changed for an interface using the stp path-cost command.
C. The STP default path cost depends on the interface speed.
D. The STP default path cost is similar for all interface.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 8
Which BGP feature protects the external BGP peering session from CPU utilization-based attacks that use forged IP
packets?
A. BGP multihop
B. TTL security check
C. BGP FlowSpec
D. Secure BGP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
On Cisco IOS devices, which IS-IS feature reduces the convergence time for prefixes designated as high priority?
A. iSPF
B. advertise passive only
C. prefix prioritization
D. Fast-Forwarding
E. Route tagging
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 10lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q10Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has a requirement to enable MPLS TE tunnels on the network to be L3VPN
customers. Which MPLS TE feature allow the network engineer to configure MPLS TE LSPs by using a few CLI
commands?
A. AutoTunnel Mesh Groups on all P and PE routers
B. AutoTunnel Primary and Backup on all PE routers
C. AutoTunnel Primary and Backup on all P and PE routers
D. AutoTunnel Mesh Groups on all PE routers
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which type of IPv6 address does OSPFv3 use to communicate with OSPFv3 neighbors?
A. link-local
B. site-local
C. global
D. unique local
E. anycast
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q12Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct?
A. If the labeled packet arrives with the bottom label of 27, the label is replaced with label 38 and the packet is sent out
on the Gigabitethernet 0/0
B. If the labeled packet arrives with the bottom label of 27, all of the labels are replaced with label 38 and the packet is
sent out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface
C. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 27,the label is replaced with the label 38 and the packet is sent
out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface
D. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 27, all of the labels are replaced with label 38 and the packet is
sent out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface.
E. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 38,the label is replaced with label 27 and the packet is sent out
on the GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface
F. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 38, all labels are replaced with the label 27 and the packet is
sent out on the GogabitEthernet 0/0/ interface.
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 13
Which three are optional extensions of the Frame Relay Local Management Interface specification? (Choose three) A.
Switched virtual circuit
B. Virtual circuit status
C. Simple flow control
D. Multicasting
E. Permanent virtual circuit
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation: Optional LMI Extensions:
The LMI specification also defines several optional extensions:
*
Global addressing convention
*
Multicast capability
*
A simple flow control mechanism
*
Ability for the network to communicate a PVC\\’s CIR to the subscriber in a Status message
*
A new message type that allows the network to announce PVC status changes without prompting from the subscriber
Implementors may build any, all, or none of these features into their networks.


QUESTION 14
During the modem boot process, how does the modem acquire the downstream channel?
A. The modem is commanded by the CMTS to set to the specific channel.
B. The modem uses the default value in the broadcom chipset.
C. The modem tuner sets a level as defined by the DOCSIS specification.
D. The modem tuner scans the downstream spectrum until digital QAM modulated signal is encountered
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 15
Which two features prevent routing loops between the OSPF sites of a customer when the sites are multihomed or a
backdoor link is used between the sites? (Choose two.)
A. sham link
B. down bit
C. virtual link
D. Site of Origin
E. domain tag
Correct Answer: BE
If a route sent from a PE router to a CE router could then be received by another PE router from one of its own CE
router, there are chances of routing loops. This situation is possible when a “backdoor link” connects two CE routers
connected to two different PE routers. To prevent this, the PE sets the DN bit in any LSA that it sends to the CE router.
If the PE router receives any LSA with DN bit set, it ignores the LSA.
1) DN bit:
When a PE router sends a Type-3 LSA to a CE router, the DN bit in LSA Options field must be set. Now if the CE router
sends the Type-3 LSA to other PE router(s), the PE router will not redistribute it further.
When a PE router needs to distribute a route to a CE router which comes from the outside of CE router\\’s OSPF
domain, the PE router presents itself as an ASBR and distributes the route in Type-5 LSA. The DN bit must be set in the
LSA.
The Options field is present in all LSAs. The Options field is 1-byte long as follows- DN O DC EA N/P MC E MT
2) Route Tags (Domain Tags):
In some implementations (where DN bit is not set), Domain Tags (named by Cisco) are used to ensure Type-5
LSAs generated by a PE router will be ignored by other PE routers that may receive it. The value of Domain tag is
configurable and arbitrary if not set. Hence must be distinct from other OSPF tags


QUESTION 16
In the context of GMPLS, LMP stands for:
A. Load Management Protocol
B. Label Management Protocol
C. Loop Management Protocol
D. Link Management Protocol
Correct Answer: D
The Generalized Multi-Protocol Label Switching (GMPLS)[1] is a protocol suite extending MPLS to manage further
classes of interfaces and switching technologies other than packet interfaces and switching, such as time division
multiplex,
layer-2 switch, wavelength switch and fiber-switch.
GMPLS is composed of three main protocols:
Resource Reservation Protocol with Traffic Engineering extensions (RSVP-TE) signaling protocol.[5][6]Open Shortest
Path First with Traffic Engineering extensions (OSPF-TE) routing protocol.[7][8] Link Management Protocol (LMP).[9]


QUESTION 17
IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS
domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6
multicast traffic only to those ports that want to receive it?
A. IGMP snooping
B. MLD snooping
C. MLD querier
D. IGMP version 3 E. MLD version 2
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
Which SONET protocol layer is in charge of clock synchronization and timing issues?
A. Photonic
B. Section
C. Path
D. Line
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Which option propagates SRLG membership information to the network?
A. BGP attribute
B. IGP extension
C. RSVP extension
D. LDP extension
E. PIM extension
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 20
A service provider is using point-to-multipoint TE to forward MPLS traffic from one source to multiple destinations, what
is a restriction of using this method?
A. Destinations must be manually added and removed on the TE tail-end router
B. Multicast traffic must be implemented using PIM sparse mode
C. Point-to-multipoint TE does not support policy-based routing
D. Only node protection is supported on point-to-multipoint TE LSPs
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q21Inbound Infrastructure ACLs are configured to protect the SP network. Which three types of traffic should be filtered in
the infrastructure ACLs? (Choose three.)
A. traffic from a source with an IP address that is within 239.255.0.0/16
B. FTP traffic destined for internal routers
C. IPsec traffic that at an internal router
D. traffic from a source with an IP address that is within 162.238.0.0/16
E. EBGP traffic that peers with edge routers
Correct Answer: ABD
With the use of the protocols and addresses identified, the infrastructure ACL can be built to permit the protocols and
protect the addresses. In addition to direct protection, the ACL also provides a first line of defense against certain types
of invalid traffic on the Internet:
-RFC 1918 space must be denied. (RFC1918 describes a set of network ranges set aside for so-called “private” use.)
-Packets with a source address that fall under special-use address space, as defined in RFC 3330, must be denied.
-Anti-spoof filters must be applied. (Your address space must never be the source of packets from outside your AS.)


QUESTION 22
The layer 2 protocol used by POS technology offers a standardized way for mapping IP packets into SONET/ SDH
payloads. Select the correct sequence of POS operation:
1) Data is scrambled and synchronous mapping takes place by octet into the SONET/SDH frame.
2) Encapsulated via Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) takes place framing information is added with High-level
Data Link Control (HDLC).
3) Gaps between frames are filled with flags, set to value 7E.
4) Octet stuffing occurs if any flags or resultant escape characters (of value 7D) are found in the data.
5) Data is segmented into an IP datagram with its 20-byte IP header.
A. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
C. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
D. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Correct Answer: D
The proper order of operation of PoS is:
When transmitting:
IP -> PPP -> FCS generation -> Byte stuffing -> Scrambling -> SONET/SDH framing When receiving:
SONET/SDH framing -> Descrambling -> Byte destuffing -> FCS detection -> PPP -> IP Remote


QUESTION 23
Which descriptions of Netflow is correct? (Choose three.)
A. By default,Netflow records bidirectional IP traffic flow.
B. Netflow answers questions regarding IP traffiC. who, what, where, when, and how
C. Netflow accounts for both transit traffic and traffic destined for the router.
D. Netflow returns the subinterface information in the flow records.
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 24
Which option describes a benefits of IPv6 VPN Provider Edge?
A. Provider support for intra-AS and CSC scenarios
B. Uses separate signaling plane, which provides more security than IPv4
C. BGP is the preferred routing protocol for connecting two SPs.
D. No requirement for a separate signaling plane
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 25
Which of the following descriptions about IP spoofing is correct?
A. IP destination address is forged
B. IP source address is forged
C. IP TCP destination port is forged
D. None of above
E. IP TCP source port is forged
Correct Answer: B
1.13. Security in core


QUESTION 26
Which option is the SONET frame format of the STM-4 SDH circuit?
A. STS-1
B. STS-192
C. STS-12
D. STS-3
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q27Inbound infrastructure ACLs are configured to protect the SP network. Which two types of traffic should be permitted in
the infrastructure ACL? (Choose two.)
A. traffic destined for network of 172.30.0.0/16
B. traffic source from network of 172.30.0.0/16
C. traffic destined for network of 162.238.0.0/16
D. traffic source from network of 162.238.0.0/16
E. traffic destined for network of 232.16.0.0/16
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 28
In an infrastructure As a service cloud deployment model, which two components are managed by the customer?
(Choose two)
A. hardware (server)
B. Network storage
C. Virtualization
D. Operating System
E. Runtime application
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 29lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q29Refer to the exhibit Customer ABC is peering with two service providers for internet access. In order to prevent the AS
100 from becoming a transit AS between ISP_1 and ISP_2. Which BGP configuration must be applied to achieve this
goal?
A. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY
permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor
1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
B. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
C. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
D. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit
400-201 PDF Dumps | 400-201 Study Guide | 400-201 Braindumps 15 / 21https://www.lead4pass.com/400-201.html
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10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor
1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
E. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 30
In the Inter-AS VPN deployment shown in the diagram, what is the Next Hop address of MP-IBGP Update for CE4
network received at PE-R2?lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q30A. ASBR-2 50.0.0.3
B. PE-R2 50.0.0.2
C. PE-R4 50.0.0.4
D. ASBR-1 50.0.0.1
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 31
In which way does the DS-Lite IPv6 transitioning mechanism differ from IPv6 Dual-Stack?
A. DS-Lite is a combination of tunnel and translation technologies.
B. DS-Lite is a transition technology that gives full IPv6 connectivity for IPv6 capable hosts that are on the IPv4 Internet
but have no native connection to an IPv6 network.
C. DS-Lite is an automatic tunnel where the tunnel destination is determined by the IPv4 address extracted from the
IPv6 address that starts with the prefix 2002::/16.
D. DS-Lite is a stateless tunneling mechanism with a lightweight and secure manner without requiring upgrades to
existing IPv4 access network infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 32
A service provider is offering VoIP services level agreement to customers. Which configuration provides validation that
the service level agreement has been honored?
A. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
B. ipsla 999 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forerver start-time now
C. ipsla 99 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
D. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever start-time now
E. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
F. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever stat-time now
Correct Answer: F


QUESTION 33
Which two Any Transport over MPLS (AToM) traffic encapsulations require the use of a control word? (Choose two)
A. HDLC
B. ATM AAL5
C. PPP
D. Ethernet VLAN
E. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: BE
AToM Header
The AToM header is 4 bytes (control word). The control word is optional for Ethernet, PPP, HDLC, and cell relay
transport types. However, the control word is required for Frame Relay, and ATM AAL5 transport types.


QUESTION 34
Which statement about IPv6 security is true?
A. Reconnaissance attacks are easier to do in IPv6 compared to IPv4.
B. IPv6 amplification attacks can happen using IPv6 broadcast address.
C. RA-guard feature is used to block rogue RAs.
D. ICMP policies on firewalls do not need to be changed for IPv6 because ICMP is Layer 3 agnostic.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 35
Which command will display the MPLS label binding for IP prefix 1.1.1.0 on the router?
A. All of the above.
B. show tag-switching tdp binding 1.1.1.0/24
C. show tag-switching tdp bindings neighbor 1.1.1.0
D. A and B both will show the binding.
E. show tag-switching interface e0/0
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 36
What Cisco IOS feature examines packets received to make sure that the source address and interface are in the
routing table and match the interface that the packet was received on?
A. MPLS Traffic Engineering
B. Receive ACL
C. Unicast RPF
D. Authentication
E. Dynamic access-lists
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q37An MPLS VPN service has been provisioned for an ABC customer. Based on the output from the VRF BGP
configuration of PE1 and PE2, which statement describes the route exchange between ABC site 1 and site 2?
A. Only CE1 will be able to install CE2 BGP updates in its BGP table.
B. Only CE2 will be able to install CE1 BGP updates in its BGP table.
C. CE1 can install the CE2 subnets in its BGP table and CE2 can install the CE1 subnets its BGP table.
D. CE1 cannot install the CE2 subnets in its BGP table and CE2 cannot install the CE1 subnets its BGP table.
E. “as-override” feature cannot be used in this scenario.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 38
A network engineer is responsible for provisioning LDP and IGP over the IP core network to maintain the MPLS
functionality as a day-to-day task. The IP engineer is looking for automation opportunities. Which feature allows the LDP
protocol to be automatically enabled on interfaces that run IGP on the routers?
A. MPLS LDP autoconfiguration
B. MPLS LDP discovery
C. MPLS LDP-IGP synchronization
D. MPLS LDP session protection
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. Why is router 1 unable to ping 10.10.100.2 from vrf cust1?
A. Because Multi-VRF support is not enabled
B. Because address-family ipv4 is missing from the VRF statement
C. Because of an incorrect interface configuration
D. Because of a missing BGP configuration
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
What is a limitation of implementing uRPF?
A. Domain name must be defined.
B. MPLS LDP must be enabled.
C. BGP routing protocol must be running.
D. Symmetrical routing is required.
E. Named access-lists must be configured.
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco CCIE 400-151 dumps, 400-151 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

The latest Cisco CCIE 400-151 exam dumps and exercises test questions and answers, These free exercises will help you improve 400-151 CCIE Data Center test skills,We share 400-151 pdf for free to download and learn, and you can also watch 400-151 YouTube videos online! We share 40 real effective exam questions and answers for free if you want to get the full 400-151 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-151.html (Total questions:491 Q&A)->> updated throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam easily!

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Latest effective Cisco 400-151 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which two parameters must be identical per interface while configuring virtual port channels? (Choose two)
A. network access control
B. Bridge Assurance setting
C. maximum transmission unit
D. Protocol Independent Multicast
E. IP Source Guard
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the management interface monitoring policy?
A. to monitor the management interface counts for errors and drops
B. to prevent VM traffic form being black-holed during a cluster switchover
C. to sync MAC address tables between peer fabric interconnects
D. to ensure that management interface of the managing fabric interconnect can reach the gateway
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q3A. The service profile in organization IS-SecureESX10 is trying to be associated to chassis 1 blade 7
B. The error is triggered when the service profile pn is being associated.
C. The only way to fix the problem is to delete the service profile and start again with the proper MAC and WWPN pool
association.
D. If you ignore the warning and press Yes, the association fails because no MAC address is assigned
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Which transceiver allows 40 GB Ethernet Connectivity by leveraging a single pair of multimode fibers?
A. OSFP-40G-SR4
B. OSFP-H40G-CU
C. FET-40G
D. QSFP-40G0SR0BD
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Which three CLI configuration commands are for port profile as a private VLAN on Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch?
(Choose 3)
A. Switch (config-port-prof) # switch port private-vlan trunk allowed vlan vlan-range
B. Switch (Config) # port-profile type vethernet name
C. Switch (config-port-porf) # switch port mode private-vlan host promiscuous
D. Switch (config-port-porf) # switch port Private-vlan mapping primary_vlan add scondary_vlan
E. Switch (config-port-porf) # switch port Private-vlan host-association primary_vlan secondary_vlan
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 6
Which two statements about import and export route control in an ACI fabric are true? (Choose two)
A. Prefixes learned from OSPF/EIGRP L3Outs are never permitted inbound by default
B. Prefixes learned from BGP L3outs cannot be filtered inbound
C. Prefixes permitted inbound are redistributed into MP-BGP at the ingress leaf
D. Export route control controls if the prefixes are redistributed from MP-BGP to the egress leaf
E. By default import route control is always enabled while export route control is always disabled
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 7
Refer to the Exhibit. Many tools are available to troubleshoot an ACI fabric. Which tool is this sample output from?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q7A. Traffic map
B. iPing
C. traceroute
D. atomic counters
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which three statements about ip source guard are true? (Choose 3) A. IP source guard is dependent upon DHCP
snooping to build and maintain the IP-MAC-Address binding table or upon manual maintenance of static IP-source
entries.
B. IP source guard requires that DHCP snooping is disabled.
C. By default, IP source guard is enabled on all interfaces.
D. IP source guard limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC-Address binding table
entry or static IP source entry
E. When you first enable IP source guard on an interface, you may experience disruption in IP traffic until the hosts on
the interface receive a new IP address from a DHCP server
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 9
Which three options are SDN Southbound protocols? (Choose three)
A. API
B. OVSDB
C. OpenFlow
D. Puppet
E. PCEP
F. VXLAN
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 10
Which statement about updating the service profile is true?
A. Updating service profile templates can have vNIC and vHBA templates that are lnitial templates.
B. Updating service profile templates cannot have vNIC and vHBA templates that are lnitial templates
C. Changes made to a vNIC templat that is an Updating template are not propagated to the service profile if the service
profile templat is lnitial.
D. Updating service profile templates can only be applied to an existing service profile.
E. Changes made to a vNIC template that is an lnitial template are propagated to the service profole if the service profile
template is Updating
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output, what is the most likely reason for the failure of the iSCSI boot?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q11A. There is no gateway configured on the iSCSI vNIC.
B. The LUN is not masked correctly on the storage array.
C. CHAP authentication is not configured correctly.
D. The latency between the imitator and target is too high.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps must be taken to add NFS storage to the Cisco UCS domain ? (Choose 3) n ACI
environment from the left onto the correct d
A. Configure fabric interconnect A and B to Ethernet switching mode.
B. Configure Eth1/17 as a unified storage port.
C. Configure Eth1/17 as an appliance port.
D. Configure a QoS policy for NFS storage.
E. Create a LAN cloud VLAN on fabric A and fabric B.
F. Create an appliance VLAN on fabric A and fabric B.
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 13
Which two statements about multicast routing are true? (Choose 2)
A. You can define RPF routes for multicast when you want multicast data to diverge from the unicast traffic path
B. Multicast routes are used to directly forward traffic without making RPF checks
C. You can define RPF routes for multicast on border routers to enable reverse path forwarding to an external network
D. RPF routes for multicast can be distributed
E. Ipv6 static multicast routes are supported
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Your application has reduced health score. Upon inspection, you find fault that impacts the health
score. The fault currently is the soaking lifecycle state. Which 2 options are possible next steps while in this state?
(Choose 2)lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q14A. The condition ceased by it self and goes into the soaking-cleaning state.
B. The soaking timer expires and moves to the Raised severity level
C. Acknowledge the fault, which immediately clears it from the system
D. The condition ceases by itself an automatically clears the fault
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 15lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q15Refer to the exhibit. When adding an ASAv to the APIC , the user notices a fault raised on the device. Which cause of
this fault is the most likely?
A. The device package was never uploaded
B. The incorrect username and password was used
C. The configuration specified HTTP and not HTTPS
D. The configuration did not specify “apic” as the username
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 16
On which two features does ITD depend? (Choose two)
A. interface-vlan
B. IP SLA
C. BFD
D. WCCP
E. PBR
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 17
Which option is an commonly used network layer protocol in an loT environment?
A. RPL
B. AQMP
C. MQTT
D. XMPP
E. CoAP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about these commands is true? lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q18A. The outputs of the debug are redirected on file test on the “log” directory.
B. The outputs of the debug are redirected to the logging buffer.
C. The command does not have an effect unless you configure “debug enable”.
D. If you are on a console connection, the outputs are shown after the event occurs.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. When the engineer tried to check CoPP on the switch, the engineer observed the error that is
shown in the exhibit. Which option describes the reason for the displayed output?

lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q19

A. The Cisco NX-OS version that is running does not support CoPP.
B. The CoPP feature is not enabled on this switch
C. The CoPP CLI is available from the default VDC
D. CoPP is enabled by default but not configured.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 20
Which statement about soft pinning is incorrect?
A. If no uplink Ethernet port channel is configured with all VLANs on the VNIC. Cisco UCS Manager drops the traffic for
all of the VLANs on the VNIC.
B. When the VLAN validation fails, a VLAN mismatch fault with a severity of warning appears.
C. It is the default behavior Cisco UCS.
D. Cisco UCS Manager pins the VNIC to an uplink Ethernet port or port channel according to VLAN membership
criteria.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 21
Which mode must the Cisco MDS VSAN be configured for so that it interoperates correctly with a Brocade Fibre
Channel switch that is configured for interop mode?
A. interop mode 2
B. interop mode 4
C. interop mode 3
D. native mode
E. interop mode 1
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 22
After VTEP devices are established BGP neighbor adjacencies with other VTEPs or with internal BGP route reflector,
which three pieces of information are exchanged through BGP? (Choose 3)
A. Layer 3 VNI
B. VPNv4 prefixes
C. Router MAC address
D. VTEP peer list
E. VTEP address.
F. MD5 Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES) key
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 23
Which feature in ACI permits the user to specify that HTTP and HTTPS traffic between an L3out EPG and an internal
EPG is sent to a firewall , and SSH and Telnet traffic between the L3Out and the internal EPG bypasses the firewall?
A. policy-based redirect
B. Layer 4 -Layer 7 function profile
C. vzAny contract
D. contracts and filters
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about VPC member ports on this switch is true?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q24A. VPC ports are error disabled.
B. VPC ports are suspended.
C. Only Orphan ports stay operational.
D. VPC port status remains unchanged.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. Based on this portion of an MDS ISCSI configuration, which two statements are true? (Choose 2)lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q25A. The fc-lun 0x0000 mapping to iscsi-lun 0x0000 is not permitted.
B. The ISCSI initiator that connects to target name iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 will see two LUNs numbered as 2 and 4.
C. The ISCSI initiator and the ISCSI target iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 must be in the same zone before LUNs are
available to the host.
D. The ISCSI initiator at nme iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t2 has access to only one LUN.
E. The ISCSI initiator that connects to targets name iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 will see two LUNs as number 0 and 1.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit Server 1 and Server 2 are on the same VLAN but cannot reach each other. Which option describes
the reason?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q26A. Interface VLAN (SVI) must be configured for this VLAN
B. VLAN is not allowed on the peer link.
C. VLAN is not on Fabric Path mode.
D. Type2 inconsistency prevents the communication.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Which two options can be used for server pool qualifications? (Choose two)
A. chassis model
B. RAID controller
C. firmware version
D. CPU stepping
E. memory speed
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 28
Which option is the advantage of Cisco ACE SSL Offload?
A. Export cipher suite
B. Decentralized certificate management
C. SSL encryption only
D. Front-end SSL
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 29
STP provides a loop-free network at the Layer 2 level. Layer 2 LAN ports send and receive STP frames at regular
intervals. Network devices do not forward these frames but use the frames to construct a loop-free path. Which option is
the name of these frames?
A. bridge protocol data units
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol frames
C. Link Layer Discovery Protocol frames
D. runt frames
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. Corporate ABC want to implement control by allowing authorized virtual machine MAC addresses to
send traffic to the Internet. The administrator wants to add this MAC ACL on Nexus7k-1 to achieve the task: (Choose 2)
[Configuration Output] Nexus7k-1: Mac access-list mac-ad Permit 0050.561f.73d3 0000. 00ff.ffff any ! Interface e1/1
Mac access-group mac-ad

lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q30

A. The MAC address and mask do not match.
B. The MAC ACL cannot be applied to egress traffic.
C. This command is wrong to apply this ACL under interface.
D. The sequence number is missing from the ACL.
E. The MAC ACL is not supported on Cisco nexus 7000 Series.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 31
Which two server models support single-wire management for Cisco UCS C-Series integration with Cisco UCS
Manager? (Choose 2)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2 server
B. Cisco UCS C250 M2 server
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2 server
D. Cisco UCS C240 M3 server
E. Cisco UCS C240 M2 server
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 32
Which option is required by atomic counters to be leveraged in troubleshooting endpoint connecticity?
A. Endpoints must be in different endpoint groups
B. Endpoints must connect to different leaf switches
C. Endpoints must connect to the same leaf switch
D. Endpoints must be in different VRFs
E. Endpoints muts be in different bridge domains
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 33
Which two options are advantages of deploying Ethernet-based FCoE switches such as the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
Switches beyond the access layer? (Choose 2)
A. lower overall throughout compared to native Fibre Channel switches
B. flexibility to support file (NAS) and block (ISCSI and FCoE) storage traffic
C. High-performance Ethernet-based FCoE switches cannot be used in a dedicated SAN core
D. requirement for traffic isolation with dedicated links and storage VDCs is no longer required
E. plans that include 40 and 100 Gigabit Ethernet speeds
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 34
Which two statements about the Fibre Channel over Ethernet Virtual Link Establishment are true? (Choose 2)
A. FLOGI/FDISC ACCEPT is part of the FCoE protocol.
B. Fibre Channel commands are part of the FIP protocol.
C. VLAN discovery is part of FIP protocol.
D. FCF discovery is part FCoE protocol.
E. FLOGI/FDISC is part of the FIP protocol.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 35
Which two connectivity modes does Cisco RISE support? (Choose two)
A. Directly connected. No virtual port channel is supported.
B. Indirectly connected. Only Layer 3 adjacent.
C. Indirectly connected. Only Layer 2 adjacent
D. Indirectly connected. Layer 2 and Layer 3 adjacent.
E. Directly connected. Virtual port channel is supported.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 36
Which three options are valid local disk configuration policies? (Choose 3)
A. RAID 40
B. RAID 60
C. RAID 7
D. RAID 30
E. RAID 50
F. RAID 6
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 37
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2 connectivity between separate Layer 2
domains, while keeping these domains independent and preserving the fault isolation, resiliency, and load-balancing
benefits of an IP-based interconnection. Which statements are true about OTV Adjacency Server? (Choose 2)
A. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with unicast-only transport.
B. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with multicast-enabled transport.
C. Each OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to first register with the Adjacency Server.
D. Each OTV device trying to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to be configured as an Adjacency Server.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibits. After you upgrade Cisco UCS firmware, some of your blades have these error messages. Which
description of the problem is true?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q38A. Storage provisioning is not configured
B. VNIC template must be converted to updating.
C. Some components are deprecated.
D. Service profile requires as connectivity policy
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 39
Which option is a data modeling language used to model configuration and state data of network elements.
A. SNMPv4
B. YANG
C. RESTCONF
D. NETCONF
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. Your application has a reduced health score.Upon inspection,you find a fault that impacts the health
score. The fault currently is in the soaking lifecycle stare. Which two options are possible next steps while in this state?
(Choose two)lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q40A. Acknowledge the fault. which immediately clears it from the system
B. Once the soaking timer expires the fault ceases and no change is expected in sevenity level.
C. The condition ceases by itself and goes into the soaking-clearing state
D. The condition ceases by itself and automatically clears the fault
E. The soaking timer expires and moves to the Raised sevenity
Correct Answer: CE

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