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  • Cisco 300-435 ENAUTO Exam Plan: Using Cisco 300-435 Dumps

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Tips: The answer will be announced at the end of the article

Question 1:

What are two characteristics of RPC API calls? (Choose two.)

A. They can be used only on network devices.

B. They use only UDP for communications.

C. Parameters can be passed to the calls.

D. They must use SSL/TLS.

E. They call a single function or service.

Question 2:

Which two actions do Python virtual environments allow users to perform? (Choose two.)

A. Simplify the CI/CD pipeline when checking a project into a version control system, such as Git.

B. Efficiently port code between different languages, such as JavaScript and Python.

C. Run and simulate other operating systems within a development environment.

D. Quickly create any Python environment for testing and debugging purposes.

E. Quickly create an isolated Python environment with module dependencies.

Question 3:

What are two benefits of leveraging Ansible for automation of Cisco IOS XE Software? (Choose two.)

A. Ansible playbooks are packaged and installed on IOS XE devices for automatic execution when an IOS device reboots.

B. All IOS XE operating systems include Ansible playbooks for basic system administration tasks.

C. It is a device-independent method for automation and can be used with any type of device or operating system.

D. Ansible playbooks can be written from the IOS XE EXEC command line to configure the device itself.

E. It does not require any modules of the software except SSH to be loaded on the network device.

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. The task is to create a Python script to display an alert message when a Meraki MX Security Appliance goes down. The exhibit shows sample data that is received. Which Python snippet displays the device name and the time at which the switch went down?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. The goal is to write a Python script to automatically send a message to an external messaging application when a rogue AP is detected on the network.

The message should include the broadcast SSID that is in the alert.

A function called “send_to_application” is created, and this is the declaration:

send_to_application(message)

The exhibit also shows the data that is received by the application and stored in the variable return_val.

Which Python code completes the task?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 6:

Which two features are foundations of a software-defined network instead of a traditional network? (Choose two.)

A. control plane and data plane are tightly coupled

B. build upon a robust software stack

C. requires device-by-device-level configurations

D. automated through expressed intent to a software controller

E. requires significant physical hardware resources

Question 7:

A new project called “device_status” must be stored in a central Git repository called “device_status” with the first file named “device_status.py”.

The Git repository is created using the account python_programmer. Which set of commands inserts the project into Git?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 8:

What are two characteristics of synchronous calls to APIs? (Choose two.)

A. They can be used only with certain programming languages.

B. They make your application less portable, so asynchronous calls are preferred.

C. They can add perceived latency to your application if data is not received.

D. They block until a response is returned from the servers.

E. They do not block while waiting for the API to be processed.

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result when running the Python scripts?

A. s1

B. s2

C. s1, s2, s3

D. s3

Question 10:

An engineer stores source code in a Git repository and is ready to develop a new feature. The production release is stored in the “master” branch.

Which commands create the new feature in a separate branch called “feature” and check out the new version?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of YANG container is described by the JSON instance provided?

A. interface-configurations

B. active

C. interface-name

D. description

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. Which NETCONF protocol operation is used to interact with the YANG model?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. How many YANG models does the NETCONF operation interact with?

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four

Question 14:

Which statement describe the difference between OpenConfig and native YANG data models?

A. Native models are designed to be independent of the underlying platform and are developed by vendors and standards bodies, such as the IETF.

B. Native models are developed by individual developers and designed to apply configurations on platforms.

C. OpenConfig models are developed by vendors and designed to integrate to features or configurations that are relevant only to that platform.

D. Native models are developed by vendors and designed to integrate to features or configurations that are relevant only to that platform.

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer creates a Python script using RESTCONF to display hostname information. The code must be completed so that it can be tested. Which string completes the highlighted areas in the exhibit?

A. yang-data+json

B. yang +json

C. yang.data+json

D. JSON

Verify the answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:ACDEACBABDACEBCAAAAA

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You can try the following VMware 2V0-71.21 exam questions online first:

Tips: The answer will be announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

Which command is used to upgrade a Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Cluster (TKG) to a different kubernetes version?

A. tkg cluster upgrade –k8s-version
B. tkg upgrade cluster –kubernetes-version
C. tkg cluster upgrade –kubernetes-version
D. tkg upgrade cluster –version

QUESTION 2:

What is the command to find out the available node base operating system images?

A. kubectl get nodes
B. kubectl cluster-info
C. kubectl get virtualmachineclasses
D. kubectl get virtualmachineimages

QUESTION 3:

An architect is designing the infrastructure for multiple applications and needs to ensure isolation and control over resources and permissions assigned to each application team.

Which is the easiest and least expensive way to satisfy these requirements?

A. Use a dedicated Supervisor Cluster per application
B. Use dedicated vSphere Namespace per application
C. Use dedicated vSphere Pod per application
D. Use dedicated Kubernetes Deployments per each application

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

A developer deployed Nginx with 2 replicas on a new Tanzu Kubernetes Grid cluster, but the deployment did not move to a ready state.

What is the next step to troubleshoot?

A. kubectl describe pods
B. kubectl describe replicasets
C. kubectl get pods
D. kubectl get errors

QUESTION 5:

What are the pre-requisites for installing the Harbor registry in Tanzu Kubernetes Grid (TKG)?

A. Install Harbor helm from vCenter.
B. Deploy a management cluster, download and install the TKG extensions and Carvel tools.
C. Deploy a management cluster, launch the Harbor installation wizard.
D. Deploy a management cluster and install Tanzu Kubernetes Grid extensions.

QUESTION 6:

What is the MINIMUM required version of vSphere to install Tanzu Kubernetes Grid?

A. 6.0 Update 1
B. 6.5 Update 2
C. 6.7 Update 1
D. 6.7 Update 3

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two options can be modified in order to expose Nginx app using Ingress Controller? (Choose two.)

A. Change type to IngressController
B. Change type to LoadBalancer
C. Change type to NodePort
D. Change type to HostPort
E. Change type to AntreaCni

QUESTION 8:

On VMware vSphere with Tanzu, which attribute identifies the etcd Leader node using the vSphere Client?

A. amount of memory resources
B. number of Networks
C. number of IP addresses
D. amount of compute resources

QUESTION 9:

What is the period of time to consider DISCONNECTED state for a cluster in Tanzu Mission Control?

A. 3 minutes
B. 1 minute
C. 2 minutes
D. 5 minutes

QUESTION 10:

Which upgrade method can be used for an ‘in-place’ Kubernetes update?

A. Run “kubectl patch” command against a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster
B. Change the VirtualMachineClass on a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster
C. Change the number of control plane nodes
D. Change the StorageClass on a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster

QUESTION 11:

How are Tanzu Kubernetes clusters upgraded?

A. Deploy a new cluster with upgraded Kubernetes release
B. Rolling upgrades
C. Clusters are only upgraded offline
D. In-place upgrade for each node

QUESTION 12:

Which two roles are required to attach clusters in Tanzu Mission Control? (Choose two.)

A. cluster.attach.admin
B. clustergroup.attach.admin
C. clustergroup.edit
D. clusters.admin
E. cluster.admin

QUESTION 13:

Which is the correct statement describing the characteristic of a pod?

A. Pod is the smallest entity managed by Docker.
B. Pod can contain only one container.
C. Containers in a pod start and stop together.
D. Pod is deployed directly on the virtual machine.

……

Verify the answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
Answers:BABABDADCAABCEC

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Exam 2V0-51.21: Professional VMware Horizon 8.x

Vendor: VMware
Exam Code: 2V0-51.21
Exam Name: Professional VMware Horizon 8. X
Certification: VCP-DTM 2022
Language: English
Number of Questions: 60
Duration: 125 Minutes
Passing Score: 300
Format: Multiple Choice, Multiple Choice Multiple Selection, Drag and Drop, Matching, Hot Area
Pricing: $250 USD

Not only that, candidates can enjoy the VMware 2v0-51.21 online practice:

Tips: The answer will be announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

End-users are complaining that they are frequently being asked for credentials when opening additional apps.

Which step should the administrator take to resolve the issue?

A. Configure SSO Timeout by modifying the Global Settings in Horizon Administrator.
B. Configure Session Timeout by modifying the Client Settings in Horizon Client.
C. Configure a time limit by modifying the Horizon GPO.
D. Configure Desktop Timeout by modifying the Pool Settings in Horizon Administrator.

QUESTION 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the high-level configuration steps for smart card authentication on the left into the correct sequential order on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 3:

An administrator is tasked with allowing managers to request desktops and changes to desktops for their employees.

What VMware solution can be used to meet this requirement?

A. vRealize Operations
B. Horizon Automated Pools
C. vRealize Automation
D. Horizon Help Desk

QUESTION 4:

Which two steps must be completed in order to expand a writable volume? (Choose two.)

A. Select Volumes > Writables > Select Volume > Expand.
B. Modify the snapvol.cfg to reflect the new size.
C. Select Volumes > Writables > Select Volume > Update Writable.
D. Specify a size that is at least 1MB larger than the current size of the volume.
E. Specify a size that is at least 1GB larger than the current size of the volume.

QUESTION 5:

An administrator wants to ensure users can access an application that uses .NET 3.0 for desktops available on Horizon On-premises and on Horizon Cloud Service on Microsoft Azure.

Which two options would achieve this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Create a ThinApp package and provision it with App Volumes.
B. Install the application on the primary image.
C. Copy the vmdk and .json file to the Azure storage.
D. Capture the application in App Volumes.
E. Copy the vhd and .json file to the Azure storage.

QUESTION 6:

After creating a new desktop pool that contains customization specifications, a Horizon administrator sees the following message in the VMware Horizon event database:

Provisioning error occurred for Machine Machine_Name: Customization failed for Machine

Which two could be the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. The customization specification has been renamed or deleted.
B. Desktops can only be customized after the end user logs into the virtual machine.
C. The compute account of the template has been removed from the Active Directory.
D. The administrator does not have sufficient permissions to access the customization specification.
E. Desktop pool provisioning is disabled.

QUESTION 7:

Which can be used to make sure only certain Connection Servers are used for a Global Entitlement?

A. Category Folders
B. Home sites
C. Tags
D. Access Groups

QUESTION 8:

An administrator sees a lot of instant-clone template VM\’s that are not in use anymore in vCenter.

What tool needs to be used to clean up old templates?

A. iccleanup.cmd
B. icunprotect.cmd
C. vdmadmin.exe
D. icmaint.cmd

QUESTION 9:

Which of the following statements are true about Application Profiler?

A. VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Agent and the Application Profiler cannot be installed on the same machine.

B. Application Profiler is installed using VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Enterprise Setup Wizard and explicitly selecting local drive installation.

C. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing VMware Dynamic Environment Manager FlexEngine.

D. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing the Dynamic Environment Manager Management Console.

QUESTION 10:

An administrator configured a virtual machine to use an NVIDIA card but the virtual machine is not starting up.

What could be the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. No suitable host could be found.
B. Not all memory has been reserved on the VM.
C. Not all CPUs have been reserved on the VM.
D. The Desktop Pool doesn\’t support 3D cards.
E. 3D graphics cannot be used with local storage.

QUESTION 11:

A new Horizon environment has gone into production. External sessions are disconnected after a
random period of time.

The following information has been documented by the administrator:

Internal and external users are able to connect to their desktops.

External sessions connect via a Unified Access Gateway.

Users are immediately able to reconnect but will be disconnected again in a few minutes.

Internal sessions, connected directly to the desktops, are not impacted.

While the session remains connected, all expected functionality works properly.

What could be the cause of this issue?

A. A misconfigured network load balancer is in front of the Unified Access Gateway appliances.
B. A misconfigured network load balancer is in front of the Connection Servers.
C. Required firewall ports are not open in front of the Connection Servers.
D. Required firewall ports are not open in front of the Unified Access Gateway appliances.

QUESTION 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is creating an automated desktop pool of full clones. When prompted to select a template, the administrator sees the detail shown in the exhibit.

Which two combined actions should the administrator perform to be able to continue with the creation of a desktop pool? (Choose two.)

A. Open vSphere Client, select the golden image virtual machine and convert to template.

B. Open vSphere Client, select the golden image virtual machine and take a snapshot.

C. Enter the golden image virtual machine name in the Template Filter and select the template virtual machine.

D. Open vSphere Client, select the golden image virtual machine and remove all snapshots.

E. Refresh the Select template view and select the template virtual machine.

QUESTION 13:

Which two required distributions should be installed on a Linux machine that will be used as a multi-session host? (Choose two.)

A. Peppermint OS
B. RHEL Workstation
C. Solaris Linux
D. SUSE Enterprise Server
E. Ubuntu

Verify the answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
Answers:CIMAGEBAEDEADDDBABCDEBE

Download Free VMware 2v0-51.21 Online Practice Questions: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1B0aQS4XNjPPbZkDk0IJvt_MUpKdsN5qu/

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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-910
Exam Name: Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms (DEVOPS)
Certification: Cisco Certified DevNet Professional
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD
Number of Questions: 55-65
300-910 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-910.html

Cisco 300-910 exam questions online practice test:

Tips: Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

Which two practices help make the security of an application a more integral part of the software development lifecycle? (Choose two.)

A. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline that runs a dynamic code analysis tool during the pipeline execution.

B. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline that runs a static code analysis tool during the pipeline execution.

C. Use only software modules that are written by the internal team.

D. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline to modify the release plan so that updated versions of the software are made available more often.

E. Ensure that the code repository server has enabled drive encryption and stores the keys on a Trusted Platform Module or Hardware Security Module.

Question 2:

A CI/CD pipeline that builds infrastructure components using Terraform must be designed. A step in the pipeline is needed that checks for errors in any of the .tf files in the working directory. It also checks the existing state of the defined infrastructure.

Which command does the pipeline run to accomplish this goal?

A. terraform plan

B. terraform check

C. terraform fmt

D. terraform validate

Question 3:

Configuration changes to the production network devices are performed by a CI/CD pipeline. The code repository and the CI tool are running on separate servers. Some configuration changes are pushed to the code repository, but the pipeline did not start.

Why did the pipeline fail to start?

A. The CI server was not configured as a Git remote for the repository.

B. The webhook call from the code repository did not reach the CI server.

C. Configuration changes must be sent to the pipeline, which then updates the repository.

D. The pipeline must be started manually after the code repository is updated.

Question 4:

A new version of an application is being released by creating a separate instance of the application that is running the new code. Only a small portion of the user base will be directed to the new instance until that version has been proven stable.

Which deployment strategy is this example of?

A. recreate

B. blue/green

C. rolling

D. canary

Question 5:

Which description of a canary deployment is true?

A. deployment by accident

B. deployment that is rolled back automatically after a configurable amount of minutes

C. deployment relating to data mining development

D. deployment to a limited set of servers or users

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. What is causing the request code to fail?

A. Rython3 is not compatible with requests.

B. The requests library is not imported.

C. The requests library is not installed.

D. The requests coming into stdin fail because device_ip cannot be parsed.

Question 7:

A DevOps engineer wants to build an application implementation based on the CI/CD pipeline model. Which service should be used to provide hosted continuous service for open and private projects?

A. Ansible

B. pyATS

C. Genie CLI

D. Travis CI

Question 8:

Which two actions help limit the attack surface of your Docker container? (Choose two.)

A. Run only a single service in each container.

B. Run all services in a single image.

C. Use version tags for base images and dependencies.

D. Use Kali Linux as a base image.

E. Download images over HTTPS supporting sites.

Question 9:

A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web server and it must run as an executable. Which command must be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?

A. ENTRYPOINT

B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]

C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]

D. ENTRYPOINT {usr/sbin/apache2ctl}

Question 10:

A Microservices architecture pattern has been applied and the system has been architected as a set of services. Each service is deployed as a set of instances for throughput and availability.

In which two ways are these services packaged and deployed? (Choose two.)

A. Service instances must be isolated from one another.

B. Service must be independently deployable and scalable.

C. Service is written using the same languages, frameworks, and framework versions.

D. Service must be dependent, deployable, and scalable.

E. Service instances do not need to be isolated from one another.

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason for this error message?

A. The required dependencies for the urllib3 module are not installed.

B. The requests module is not installed.

C. The required dependencies for the requests module are not installed.

D. The site-packages directory has been corrupted.

Question 12:

ConfigMap keys have been mapped to different file names using the volumes.configMap.items field. What is the result if a wrong ConfigMap key is specified?

A. The default path is not used.

B. The volume is not created.

C. The volume is created.

D. The volume is created with errors.

Question 13:

What are the two benefits of Infrastructure as Code? (Choose two.)

A. It enables continuous integration.

B. It allows for management control.

C. It ensures consistency.

D. It improves application monitoring.

E. It reduces risk.

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the user doing with Drone in this automated test?

A. testing Alpine Linux versus Ubuntu Linux

B. testing a PostgreSQL DB against multiple architectures

C. testing only the amd64 architecture

D. testing PostgreSQL deployment in an Alpine Linux VM

Question 15:

An interface on a router as a Layer 3 link has been configured to another device by updating an Ansible playbook that is executed via a CI/CD pipeline. The Ansible playbook was written to push the configuration change using the ios_config module.

Which automated test validates that the interface is functioning as it should?

A. Add a pipeline step that runs the playbook a second type. If it does not modify the device on the second run, then the interface is correctly configured.

B. Automated testing is already built in because the playbook execution is successful only after Ansible validates that it applied the change.

C. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the packet flow for the interface.

D. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the show IP interface output so that the operational state can be referenced.

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:AEDCDDBDCEAABBACEDB

DevNet Professional certification includes: Core exam and Concentration exams, Cisco DEVOPS certification exam is one of the Concentration exams certification exam,
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VMware 1V0-81.20 Dumps Update [2022] Associate VMware Security Best Exam Materials

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Vendor: VMware
Exam Code: 1V0-81.20
Exam Name: Associate VMware Security
Certification: VCTA-SEC 2021 / VCTA-SEC 2022
Language: English
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 55
Passing score: 300 (VMware exams are scaled on a range from 100-500, with the determined raw cut score scaled to a value of 300.)
Format: Multiple Choice, Multiple Choice Multiple Selection, Drag and Drop, Matching, Proctored
Pricing: $125 USD

You can also try the 1V0-81.20 online test first:

Verify answers at the end of the test

QUESTION 1:

In VMware Carbon Black Cloud, which reputations have the highest priority during analysis?

A. Known Priority
B. Trusted Allow List
C. Company Allow List
D. Ignore

QUESTION 2:

Which VMware application enrolls an endpoint into Workspace ONE?

A. Workspace ONE Web
B. CB Defense Sensor
C. VMware Horizon Client
D. Workspace ONE Intelligent Hub

QUESTION 3:

When filtering firewall rules after selecting an object to filter by, which four columns do the filter search? (Choose four.)

A. Services
B. Action
C. Protocol
D. Log
E. Applied To
F. Source
G. Destinations

QUESTION 4:

When using VMware Carbon Black Live Response, what command will show all active processes?

A. dir
B. list
C. ls
D. ps

QUESTION 5:

Which parameter ensures an endpoint will stay connected with the designated VMware Carbon Black Cloud tenant?

A. Company Code
B. Organization Group ID
C. Device Serial Number
D. User ID

QUESTION 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true about the firewall rule?

A. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that drops traffic on port 22

B. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Services, DB-Servers, and Web-Servers that rejects traffic on port 22

C. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Services, DB-Servers, and Web-Servers that drops traffic on port 22

D. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that rejects traffic on port 22

QUESTION 7:

A technician has been asked to confirm a specific browser extension does not exist on any endpoint in their environment.
Which is the VMware Carbon Black tool to use for this task?

A. Enterprise EDR
B. EDR
C. Audit and Remediation
D. Endpoint Standard

QUESTION 8:

Which attack technique probes the environment for openings on devices or the firewall?

A. Port Scan
B. Denial of Service
C. Living off the Land
D. Phishing

QUESTION 9:

What is the safe course of action for a USB disk of unknown ownership and origin?

A. Do not connect the USB to any computer as it may be a USB Killer device
B. Connect the USB device to your computer and allow the DLP software to protect it
C. Connect the USB to a non-Windows device and examine it
D. Connect the USB to an air-gapped system and examine it

QUESTION 10:

In VMware Carbon Black Cloud Endpoint Standard, which items are available in the Event view?

A. Hashes, Reputations
B. Emails, Policies, OS, Locations
C. Connection, IP/Port
D. IDs, Indicators/TTPs

QUESTION 11:

Micro-segmentation is under which pillar of trust in VMware\’s 5 pillars of Zero Trust?

A. User
B. Session/Transport
C. Application
D. Device

QUESTION 12:

Which VMware product allows you to query an endpoint like a database?

A. VMware NSX-T Data Center
B. VMware Carbon Black Audit and Remediation
C. VMware Workspace ONE UEM
D. VMware Carbon Black Endpoint Standard

QUESTION 13:

What types of hosts are supported for hosting both NSX-T Data Center managers and host transport nodes?

A. vSphere ESXi 6.7U1 or higher, KVM on CentOS Linux
B. vSphere ESXi 6.7U1 or higher, KVM on RHEL 7.6, Ubuntu 18.04.2 LTS
C. vSphere ESXi 6.5, KVM on RHEL 7.6, Ubuntu 18.04.2 LTS
D. vSphere ESXi 6.7U1 or higher, CentOS KVM 7.6, RHEL KVM

……

Verify answer:

Number:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
Answers:BDA E F GBDAAADCBCA

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[Updated 2022] Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam exercise questions and the latest updates 200-301 dumps

Cisco 200-301 is the latest Cisco CCNA exam code for 2020.
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Itexamcourses Exam Table of Contents:

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[Updated 2022] Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 exam question and answers

QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to config-router CB-R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with CB-R2.

Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

A. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

B. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

C. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

D. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.252 area 0
network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Correct Answer: B

 
QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

How many JSON objects are represented?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two)

A. R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out

B. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255

C. R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in

D. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127

E. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any

Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2.126?

A. 10.165 20.126
B. 10.165.20.146
C. 10.165.20.166
D. 10.165 20.226

Correct Answer: D

……

[Updated 2022]: Get more free CCNA 200-301 dumps questions and labs

Latest updates Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)
A. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.
C. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)
A. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the
link.
B. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.
C. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.
D. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.
E. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
A. 10.10.1.10
B. 10.10.10.20
C. 172.16.15.10
D. 192.168.0.1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose
two.)
A. input errors
B. frame
C. giants
D. CRC
E. runts
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROPlead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5-2

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites.
Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach
one another? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.
B. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.
C. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.
D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.
E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down.
B. After spanning tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.
C. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.
D. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
A. Configure VTY access.
B. Configure the version of SSH.
C. Assign a DNS domain name.
D. Create a user with a password.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
A. allocation nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
B. disabling TCP so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices
C. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps
D. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)
A. one-to-many communication model
B. one-to-nearest communication model
C. any-to-many communication model
D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
E. the same address for multiple devices in the group
F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
Correct Answer: BEF
A new address type made specifically for IPv6 is called the Anycast Address. These IPv6 addresses are global
addresses, these addresses can be assigned to more than one interface unlike an IPv6 unicast address. Anycast is
designed to send a packet to the nearest interface that is a part of that anycast group. The sender creates a packet and
forwards the packet to the anycast address as the destination address which goes to the nearest router. The nearest
router or interface is found by using the metric of a routing protocol currently running on the network. However in a LAN
setting the nearest interface is found depending on the order the neighbors were learned. The anycast packet in a LAN
setting forwards the packet to the neighbor it learned about first.

QUESTION 11
Which IPv6 address type communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
A. link-local
B. unique local
C. multicast D. global unicast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?
A. TTL
B. MAC address forwarding
C. Collision avoidance
D. Port blocking
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
A. enable secret
B. enable password
C. service password-encryption
D. username cisco password encrypt
Correct Answer: C

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2V0-31.21 Dumps V12.02 Is the Latest Version For Professional VMware vRealize Automation 8.3 Exam

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Before getting the full 2V0-31.21 dumps V12.02 recommended by subject matter experts, read the 2V0-31.21 free dumps below:

QUESTION 1:

Which vRealize Automation service allows an administrator to import released cloud templates and Amazon Web Services CloudFormation templates that users can deploy? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Service Broker
B. Cloud Assembly
C. Orchestrator
D. Code Stream

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

An administrator creates a custom form for an RHEL cloud template. A user reports only being able to see the standard form when requesting the cloud template.
Which step should the administrator take to resolve this issue?

A. Enable the custom form feature in Cloud Assembly.
B. Enable the custom form feature in Service Broker.
C. Enable the custom form in the project for the RHEL cloud template.
D. Enable the custom form for the RHEL cloud template.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures a lease policy, (“1 Day Lease”), for the App-Dev project so that machines have a starting lease of one day and a maximum lease of five days.

The following week, the administrator is assigned a ticket to address an issue with machines being deleted without any notifications being received. The administrator requests a new machine deployment through the App-Dev project\’s service catalog.

Given the one-day lease period, the administrator expects to receive an automated “Lease Expiring” system immediately following a successful deployment; however, the email is not received.

The administrator checks the deployment that has just been created (as displayed in the exhibit) and confirms that the “1 Day Lease” policy has been correctly applied.

Which action should the administrator take to resolve this issue? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Add an email endpoint.
B. Configure the notification email Server.
C. Ensure the users have notifications enabled.
D. Run the Configure mail workflow.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4:

What is the function of Action-Based Extensibility (ABX)? (Choose the best answer.)

A. It provides the capability to migrate content between instances of vRealize Automation.
B. It provides efficient capacity and cost management for managed virtual machines.
C. It provides intelligent remediation and integrated compliance for security patches.
D. It provides a way to execute stateless function, which contains reusable parameterized actions.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

Which command should an administrator run to ensure data integrity before a snapshot or backup of a vRealize Automation appliance? (Choose the best answer.)

A. /opt/scripts/deploy.sh ––onlyClean
B. /opt/scripts/svc-stop.sh
C. vracli status deploy
D. kubectl logs –n prelude

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6:

Which deployment action is performed using the vRealize Easy Installer?

A. Register vRealize Automation with vCenter Single Sign-On
B. Install vRealize Operations
C. Install vCenter Server
D. Register vRealize Automation with VMware Identity Manager

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/8.1/installing-vrealize-automation-
easyinstaller/GUID-77B713C5-0CD5-40C6-ADA0-9FAE84766661.html

QUESTION 7:

The administrator has installed SaltStack Config using the “edu” tenant from vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager.
How would the administrator access the SaltStack Config service?

A. Log in to https://
B. Log in to https://edu.
C. Log in to https://salt.
D. Log in to https://edu.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8:

Which two actions can be performed against a Cloud Assembly machine-based deployment? (Choose two.)

A. Run machine-level actions including adding a USB controller.
B. Change lease for the deployment.
C. Resize the deployment.
D. Change machine IP address assignment to DHCP.
E. Power off the deployment.

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 9:

As part of a greenfield deployment, an administrator needs to set up an NSX-T Data Center cloud account.
Which user role is required to create an NSX-T Data Center cloud account in vRealize Automation? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Cloud Assembly Administrator
B. Cloud Assembly User
C. Orchestrator Administrator
D. NSX-T Data Center Enterprise Administrator

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10:

An administrator must restrict the number of memory resources available for a specific group of users.
On which component would the administrator configure this?

A. Flavor Mappings
B. Cloud Accounts
C. Projects
D. Cloud Zones

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/management/2020/03/vra-resource-limits.html

QUESTION 11:

Which kubectl command should be run to find the Kubernetes authentication method? (Choose the best answer.)

A. kubectl describe pod
B. kubectl –n prelude describe pod
C. kubectl describe secrets
D. kubectl explain

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12:

Which type of cloud account is configured during the Quickstart process?

A. Google Cloud Platform
B. Microsoft Azure
C. VMware Cloud an AWS
D. VMware vCenter Server

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/8.4/Getting-Started-Cloud-
Assembly/GUID91597976-E472-493B-8017-2D37DC8DC0E5.html

QUESTION 13:

Which command should an administrator run to check the status of vRealize Automation services? (Choose the best answer.)

A. vracli org-oauth-apps
B. kubectl –n prelude get pods
C. kubectl cluster-info –n prelude
D. vracli status

Correct Answer: B

……

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2V0-72.22 Dumps [2022] Take the Professional Develop VMware Spring exam

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Number of Questions: 60
Language: English
Time: 130 Minutes
Passing score: 300 (scaled)
Format: Single and Multiple Choice, Proctored
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So let me show you some of the 2V0-72.22 Dumps questions:

QUESTION 1:

Which three statements are advantages of using Spring\’s Dependency Injection? (Choose three.)

A. Dependency injection can make code easier to trace because it couples behavior with construction.
B. Dependency injection reduces the start-up time of an application.
C. Dependencies between application components can be managed externally by the components.
D. Configuration can be externalized and centralized in a small set of files.
E. Dependency injection creates tight coupling between components.
F. Dependency injection facilitates loose coupling between components.

Correct Answer: BDE
Reference: https://raviroza.com/tight-coupling-and-loose-coupling-in-spring-framework/

QUESTION 2:

Which two options are valid optional attributes for Spring\’s @Transactional annotation? (Choose two.)

A. isolation
B. writeOnly
C. nestedTransaction
D. readWrite
E. propagation

Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://learningviacode.blogspot.com/2012/10/attributes-in-springs-declarative.html

QUESTION 3:

Which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)

A. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that is used to instruct the Spring TestContext Framework to record all application events that are published in the ApplicationContext during the execution of a single test.

B. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that you can use to configure how the Spring TestContext Framework is bootstrapped.

C. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that you can use to configure the locations of properties files and inlined properties to be added to the set of PropertySources in the Environment for an ApplicationContext loaded for an integration test.

D. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that is used to declare which bean definition profiles should be active when loading an ApplicationContext for an integration test.

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/4.2.x/spring-framework-reference/html/integrationtesting.html

QUESTION 4:

What is a Spring Boot starter dependency? (Choose the best answer.)

A. A setting for specifying which code you want Spring Boot to generate for you.
B. A specific POM which you must build to control Spring Boot\’s opinionated runtime.
C. A pre-existing model project you can download and use as the basis of your project.
D. An easy way to include multiple, coordinated dependencies related to a specific technology, like web or JDBC.

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://developer.ibm.com/tutorials/j-spring-boot-basics-perry/

QUESTION 5:

Which three types of objects can be returned from a JdbcTemplate query? (Choose three.)

A. Generic MapS
B. Simple types (int, long, String, etc)
C. JSONObject
D. User-defined types
E. Properties
F. XMLObject

Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6:

Which two options will inject the value of the daily. limit system property? (Choose two.)

A. @Value(“#{daily.limit}”)
B. @Value(“$(systemProperties.daily.limit)”)
C. @Value(“$(daily.limit)”)
D. @Value(“#{systemProperties[`daily.limit\’]}”)
E. @Value(“#{systemProperties.daily.limit}”)

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7:

In which three ways are Security filters used in Spring Security? (Choose three.)

A. To provide risk governance.
B. To drive authentication.
C. To manage application users.
D. To provide a logout capability.
E. To enforce authorization (access control).
F. To encrypt data.

Correct Answer: BDE
Reference: https://www.javadevjournal.com/spring-security/spring-security-filters/

QUESTION 8:

Which two statements are true regarding Spring Boot Testing? (Choose two.)

A. @TestApplicationContext is used to define additional beans or customizations for a test.
B. Test methods in a @SpringBootTest class are transactional by default.
C. @SpringBootTest is typically used for integration testing.
D. Test methods annotated with @SpringBootTest will recreate the ApplicationContext.
E. @SpringBootTest without any configuration classes expects there is only one class annotated with
@SpringBootConfiguration in the application.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

It is a Java code fragment from a Spring application. Which statement is true with regard to the above example? (Choose the best answer.)

A. This syntax is invalid because the result of the getBean() method call should be cast to ClientService.
B. It will return a bean called ClientService regardless of its id or name.
C. This syntax is invalid because the bean id must be specified as a method parameter.
D. It will return a bean of the type ClientService regardless of its id or name.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)

A. CustomerRepository should be a class, not an interface.
B. JPA annotations are required on the Customer class to successfully use Spring Data JDBC.
C. An implementation of this repository can be automatically generated by Spring Data JPA.
D. A class that implements CustomerRepository must be implemented and declared as a Spring Bean.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

Which two statements are true concerning constructor injection? (Choose two.)

A. If there is only one constructor the @Autowired annotation is not required.
B. Constructor injection only allows one value to be injected.
C. Constructor injection is preferred over field injection to support unit testing.
D. Construction injection can be used with multiple constructors without @Autowired annotation.
E. Field injection is preferred over constructor injection from a unit testing standpoint.

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12:

Which two statements are correct regarding Spring Boot auto-configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Auto-configuration uses @Conditional annotations to constrain when it should apply.
B. Auto-configuration could apply when a bean is missing but not when a bean is present.
C. Auto-configuration is applied by processing candidates listed in META-INF/spring.factories.
D. Auto-configuration could apply when a bean is present but not when a bean is missing.
E. Auto-configuration is applied before user-defined beans have been registered.

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the id/name of the declared bean in this Java configuration class? (Choose the best answer.)

A. clientServiceImpl (starting with lowercase “c”)
B. clientServiceImpl (starting with uppercase “C”)
C. clientService (starting with lowercase “c”)
D. ClientService (starting with uppercase “C”)

Correct Answer: D

……

Download the above 2V0-72.22 Dumps questions online:https://drive.google.com/file/d/12An5-aHTf_DPNQt_sHg7fjW8UdF_bx20/view?usp=sharing


View 60 questions:

Finally, I wish you success with your first exam in advance!

New 5V0-22.21 Dumps Questions [2022] Best material for VMware vSAN 6.7 Expert Exam

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QUESTION 1

An administrator has discovered that space utilized by VMs does not decrease after deleting files and folders within the VMs. The administrator needs to be able to reclaim this space.
Which action could the administrator take to accomplish this task?

A. Disable Storage I/O Control for the vSAN cluster.
B. Reboot the VM to recreate the swap file.
C. Set the Object Space Reservation rule to 100%.
D. Enable TRIM/UNMAP for the vSAN cluster.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

After a server power failure, the administrator noticed the scheduled resyncing in the cluster monitor displays objects to be resynchronized under the pending category.
What are these objects in this category?

A. These objects belong to virtual machines, which are powered off.
B. Object resynchronization must be started manually.
C. There is too many objects to be synchronized.
D. The delay timer has not expired.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

A site administrator has determined that the site needs to upgrade all vSAN clusters to 7.0 U1. The vSAN administrator wishes to complete the update in the shortest amount of time possible. All virtual machines are assigned a storage policy where the “Failures to tolerate” is set to one or higher.
Which strategy should be used to achieve this goal?

A. Disable de-duplication and compression prior to the upgrade.
B. Perform a complete update, omitting the on-disk format update.
C. Select the “No data migration” maintenance mode option.
D. Update only select, mission-critical clusters.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

During yesterday\’s business hours, a cache drive failed on one of the vSAN nodes. The administrator reached out to the manufacturer and received a replacement drive the following day. When the drive failed, vSAN started a resync to ensure the health of data, and all objects are showing a healthy and compliant state. The vSAN administrator needs to replace the failed cache drive.
Which set of steps should the vSAN administrator take?

A. Remove the existing vSAN disk group, and physically replace the device. Then, check to verify that the ESXi host automatically detects the new device. Afterward, manually recreate the Disk Group.

B. Physically replace the failed cache device, and vSAN will automatically create a new disk group. Then, remove the disk group with the failed device.

C. Physically replace the failed cache device, and vSAN will automatically allocate the storage. Then, rebalance the cache layer.

D. Place the disk group into maintenance mode, and select Full Data Migration. Then, physically replace the failed cache device. Afterward, vSAN will rebuild the disk group automatically.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

After a recent data loss event, the IT department plans to deploy a DR site using vSphere Replication with vSAN providing the storage backend.
The architect would like to know how many components will be created based on the following configuration:
2x 100 GB VMDK RAID 1 vSAN Storage Policy 4x Point in Time snapshots
How many components will be created?

A. 32
B. 24
C. 16
D. 8

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

What are two purposes of a vSAN storage policy (Choose two.)

A. To determine the vSAN encryption level
B. To enable TRIM/UNMAP

C. To define how the VM storage objects are provisioned
D. To guarantee the required level of service
E. To enable deduplication and compression

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7

A single capacity disk fails within a vSAN 7.0 U1 cluster running with a “compression-only” configuration enabled. The vSAN administrator must recognize the platform impact that has occurred and take steps to correct it.
Which action should the vSAN administrator take?

A. The hardware failure will impact the entire disk group, so the vSAN administrator will need to remove and recreate the disk group following the replacement of the failed storage device.

B. The hardware failure will stop the running workloads, so the vSAN administrator will need to disable the compression-only configuration, replace the failed capacity device, and then re-create the disk group.

C. The hardware failure will impact all disk groups within the ESXi host, so the vSAN administrator will need to manually remove the ESXi node from the vSAN Cluster, replace the failed capacity device, and then re-create the disk group.

D. The hardware failure will only impact the specific capacity disk, so the vSAN administrator will need to remove and replace the failed capacity device.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

A 100GB virtual disk object has this storage policy assigned to it:
Site disaster tolerance: None – standard cluster Failures to Tolerate: 1 failure – RAID-1 (Mirroring) Number of disk stripes per object: 3
What is the maximum amount of raw vSAN storage capacity consumed by this virtual disk?

A. 200GB
B. 100GB
C. 300GB
D. 600GB

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Which option, if any, is the default option to Enable Maintenance Mode on a vSAN host?

A. Ensure accessibility.
B. No data migration.
C. Full data migration.
D. There is no default option. The administrator must select an option.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

Which two prerequisites are required before a vSAN administrator is able to use the vSAN Performance Diagnostics feature? (Choose two.)

A. The vSAN Performance Service must be enabled.
B. The vSAN Health Service must be turned on.
C. vSAN File Services must be disabled before running vSAN Performance Diagnostics.
D. Participation in the Customer Experience Improvement Program (CEIP) must be enabled.
E. Verbose Mode must be enabled when configuring vSAN monitoring.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11

An organization is facing vSAN storage capacity challenges on one of their vSAN enabled clusters, while other vSAN enabled clusters are underutilized. The current vSAN version is 7.0 U1.
Which vSAN feature should be used to resolve this challenge in the quickest way?

A. vSAN HCI Mesh
B. vSAN Replication
C. vSAN Stretched Clusters
D. vSAN Datastore(s)

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

An administrator wants to check the vSAN cluster health during the maintenance window while the vCenter Server is offline.
What are two ways to complete this task? (Choose two.)

A. HCIBench
B. ESXi system logs on vSAN datastore
C. esxcli
D. vSphere Host Client
E. esxtop

Correct Answer: CD

……


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QUESTION 1

Which two statements are correct for VMware Cloud Services cloud proxy? (Choose two.)

A. It helps connect to public cloud entities.
B. It connects cloud services to on-premises networks.
C. An OVA deployment to an ESXi server is supported.
D. It requires a load balancer.
E. An OVA must be deployed on a vCenter Server.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2

An architect is designing a greenfield Cloud Management solution. During the requirements gathering workshop with the customer, the following information was captured:
The log monitoring solution must be capable of collecting a minimum of 10,000 events per second. The automation solution must be capable of deploying at least 20 concurrent workloads.
When creating the design documentation, which design quality should be used to classify the requirements?

A. Availability
B. Manageability
C. Performance
D. Recoverability

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

What level of design will contain an automation platform, an operational monitoring platform, and a desktop platform?

A. Physical Design
B. Conceptual Design
C. Detailed Design
D. Logical Design

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

An organization\’s cloud team would like to reduce template sprawl. Below are the applications they want to deploy using cloud templates:
MS SQL and Web IIS applications on OS type Windows 2016 and Windows 2019 Oracle WebLogic and Oracle DB applications on OS types RHEL7 and RHEL 8.
Which two options would meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Create an image mapping for Windows and RHEL OS types
B. Create a Cloud Template for each application type with a combination of OS types
C. Create a Cloud Template or upgrade an existing one with user input to select the OS type
D. Create a Cloud Template for each OS type and have a user input option to pick the application type.
E. Create image mappings for OS types Windows 2016, Windows 2019, RHEL7 and RHEL8

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5

A client wants to integrate a source control system to manage and maintain the cloud templates for their new installation of vRealize Automation.
Which solution should be included as part of the vRealize Automation logical design?

A. Git
B. Subversion
C. vRealize SaltStack Config
D. Gerrit

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

An architect is designing a private cloud solution for an organization and has been given the following
information:
The organization already has a VMware Workspace ONE Access 3.3.2 cluster with external MSSQL
server for their existing virtualized desktop environment.
Due to budget constraints, wherever possible, the architect needs to reuse the existing environment.
What should the architect recommend as an authentication solution for the private cloud?

Note: VMware Identity Manager has been renamed as VMware Workspace ONE Access.

A. The existing instance can be reused as an authentication provider for the private cloud but maintained outside of vRealize Lifecycle Manager.

B. Import the existing Workspace ONE Access cluster in vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager but do not reuse it for authentication purposes.

C. Deploy a new instance of Workspace ONE Access cluster using vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager and use it for authentication.

D. Import the existing Workspace ONE Access cluster in vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager and reuse it for authentication purposes.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

An architect is designing a vRealize Log Insight cluster for an organization. The organization has the following requirements:
No requirement for archival data Support a log data retention period of 14 days
How will the log data be handled in this vRealize Log Insight cluster after the 14-day retention period?

A. The user needs to manually select and delete specific old log messages to free up space.
B. Old log messages are automatically and periodically retired on a least accessed basis.
C. Old log messages are automatically and periodically retired on a first-come-first-retired basis.
D. A variable-sized chunk of old log messages is deleted to free up space based on the data age basis.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

An online retail company needs its shopping cart application to be highly available.
What three cloud management design decisions would give an optimal shopping experience? (Choose three.)

A. Create a vRealize Operations metric chart for the application\’s CPU usage
B. Create a vRealize Orchestrator workflow that remediates the issue by updating the CPU
C. Configure the vRealize Operations alert to run a vRealize Orchestrator workflow when triggered
D. Create a vRealize Operations alert that is triggered when the application\’s CPU usage exceeds a threshold
E. Create a vRealize Orchestrator workflow that emails an administrator to remediate the issue
F. Configure the vRealize Operations alert to email an administrator to remediate the issue

Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 9

Which two statements are true when considering the vRealize Automation logical design for workload storage placement based on service levels, cost, and performance? (Choose two.)

A. Secondary disk attached to the virtual machine resource uses the same storage constraint tag as the virtual machine

B. Storage constraint tag is applied to virtual machine resources and all the risks associated with the template

C. vSphere tags can only be used in storage profiles

D. Storage placement is independent of the vendor when using hard constraint tags

E. First class disks are only supported in vRealize Automation Cloud

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 10

A cloud architect is planning to scale out the small deployment of vRealize Automation to address high availability requirements.
When creating an implementation plan, which prerequisite should be documented?
Note: FQDN: Fully qualified domain name VIP: Virtual IP address

A. Request certificate containing VIP FQDN for each Organization for VMware Identity Manager VIP

B. Request Certificate Authority (CA)-signed certificate containing the VIP FQDN and the FQDN of the VMware Identity Manager nodes

C. Request Certificate Authority (CA)-signed certificate containing the VIP FQDN and the FQDN of all the cluster nodes

D. Request a certificate containing VIP FQDN for each Organization for vRealize Automation VIP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

An organization has a set of requirements for its private cloud:
Provide the ability to reclaim idle VMs deployed in the vRealize Automation (vRA) Report on the health of resources provisioned in vRA Calculate the cost of VMs provisioned in vRA Optimally place vRA deployment workloads to vSAN and avoid contention
Which cloud management product should be integrated with vRA to meet these requirements?

A. vRealize Operations

B. vRealize Orchestrator
C. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager
D. vRealize Log Insight

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

An architect has been asked about migrating a client\’s vRealize Automation solution from version 7.x to version 8.x. One of the requirements is to continue to support custom XaaS (Anything as a Service) blueprints that the client has developed.
Which component of a vRealize Automation logical design will fulfill this requirement?

A. Cloud Assembly
B. Cloud Zones
C. Service Broker
D. Cloud-Init

Correct Answer: B

……


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