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Latest updates Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)
A. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.
C. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)
A. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the
link.
B. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.
C. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.
D. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.
E. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 3lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
A. 10.10.1.10
B. 10.10.10.20
C. 172.16.15.10
D. 192.168.0.1
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose
two.)
A. input errors
B. frame
C. giants
D. CRC
E. runts
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROPlead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5-2

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites.
Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach
one another? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.
B. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.
C. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.
D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.
E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 7
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down.
B. After spanning tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.
C. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.
D. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
A. Configure VTY access.
B. Configure the version of SSH.
C. Assign a DNS domain name.
D. Create a user with a password.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
A. allocation nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
B. disabling TCP so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices
C. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps
D. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)
A. one-to-many communication model
B. one-to-nearest communication model
C. any-to-many communication model
D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
E. the same address for multiple devices in the group
F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
Correct Answer: BEF
A new address type made specifically for IPv6 is called the Anycast Address. These IPv6 addresses are global
addresses, these addresses can be assigned to more than one interface unlike an IPv6 unicast address. Anycast is
designed to send a packet to the nearest interface that is a part of that anycast group. The sender creates a packet and
forwards the packet to the anycast address as the destination address which goes to the nearest router. The nearest
router or interface is found by using the metric of a routing protocol currently running on the network. However in a LAN
setting the nearest interface is found depending on the order the neighbors were learned. The anycast packet in a LAN
setting forwards the packet to the neighbor it learned about first.

 

QUESTION 11
Which IPv6 address type communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
A. link-local
B. unique local
C. multicast D. global unicast
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?
A. TTL
B. MAC address forwarding
C. Collision avoidance
D. Port blocking
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
A. enable secret
B. enable password
C. service password-encryption
D. username cisco password encrypt
Correct Answer: C

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300-208 SISAS – Cisco:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/specialist-sisas.html

This exam tests whether a network security engineer knows the components and architecture of secure access, by utilizing 802.1X and Cisco TrustSec.

This exam assesses knowledge of Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) architecture, solution, and components as an overall network threat mitigation and endpoint control solution. It also includes the fundamental concepts of bringing your own device (BYOD)
using posture and profiling services of ISE.

Latest updates Cisco 300-208 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

Which method does Cisco prefer to securely deploy guest wireless access in a BYOD implementation? 

A. deploying a dedicated Wireless LAN Controller in a DMZ 

B. configuring a guest SSID with WPA2 Enterprise authentication 

C. configuring guest wireless users to obtain DHCP centrally from the corporate DHCP server 

D. disabling guest SSID broadcasting 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 2

Which condition triggers wireless authentication? 

A. NAS-Port-Type is set to IEEE 802.11. 

B. Framed-Compression is set to None. 

C. Service-Type is set to Framed. 

D. Tunnel-Type is set to VLAN. 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 3

The NAC Agent uses which port and protocol to send discovery packets to an ISE Policy Service Node? 

A. tcp/8905 

B. udp/8905 

C. http/80 

D. https/443 

Correct Answer: A 

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/20/installation_guide/b_ise_InstallationGuide20/Cisco_SNS_3400_Series_Appliance_Ports_Reference.html 

QUESTION 4

A network engineer is configuring HTTP based CWA on a switch. Which three configuration elements are required?

(Choose three.) 

A. HTTP server enabled 

B. Radius authentication on the port with MAB 

C. Redirect access-list 

D. Redirect-URL 

E. HTTP secure server enabled 

F. Radius authentication on the port with 802.1x 

G. Pre-auth port based access-list 

Correct Answer: ABC 

QUESTION 5

Which action is a Cisco recommended practice while attempting to increase efficiency on the monitoring nodes? 

A. Back up data and transfer to a remote repository on regular basis 

B. Remove endpoints when not active. 

C. Re-index the data on a regular basis. 

D. Compress the data regularly 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 6

Under which circumstance would an inline posture node be deployed? 

A. When the NAD does not support CoA 

B. When the NAD cannot support the number of connected endpoints 

C. When a PSN is overloaded 

D. To provide redundancy for a PSN 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 7

Drag and drop each guest user login screen from the left onto the correct description on the right. 

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8
A security engineer must create an Antivirus remediation policy within Cisco ISE. Which two options can the engineer
select in the new Antivirus remediation policy? (Choose two.)
A. program installation path
B. Antivirus vendor name
C. uniform resource locator
D. file to upload
E. operating system
Correct Answer: BE
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_pos_pol.html#wp1655749

QUESTION 9
Which three algorithms should be avoided due to security concerns? (Choose three.)
A. DES for encryption
B. SHA-1 for hashing
C. 1024-bit RSA
D. AES GCM mode for encryption
E. HMAC-SHA-1
F. 256-bit Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman
G. 2048-bit Diffie-Hellman
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
Which two options must be used on Cisco ISE to enable the TACACS+ feature? (Choose two.)
A. TACACS External Servers
B. TACACS+ Authentication Settings
C. TACACS Server Sequence
D. Enable Device Admin Service
E. TACACS Command Sets
F. TACACS Profiles
G. Device Administration License
Correct Answer: DG

QUESTION 11
What is the function of the SGACL policy matrix on a Cisco TrustSec domain with SGT Assignment?
A. It determines which access policy to apply to the endpoint.
B. It determines which switches are trusted within the TrustSec domain.
C. It determines the path the SGT of the packet takes when entering the Cisco TrustSec domain.
D. It lists all servers that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain.
E. It lists all hosts that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which identity store option allows you to modify the directory services that run on TCP/IP?
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
B. RSA SecurID server
C. RADIUS
D. Active Directory
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two answers are potential results of an attacker that is performing a DHCP server spoofing attack? (Choose
two.)
A. ability to selectively change DHCP options fields of the current DHCP server, such as the giaddr field.
B. DoS
C. excessive number of DHCP discovery requests
D. ARP cache poisoning on the router
E. client unable to access network resources
Correct Answer: BE

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This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

Last date to test: February 23, 2020
The 200-105 ICND2 exam will be retired on February 23, 2020.

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Latest updates Cisco 200-105 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
In an HSRP failover environment, which two tasks must you perform on the preferred active router so that it always
assumes the active role when it comes up? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the router with a higher priority than the other routers in the group
B. Configure the router with a higher MAC address than the other routers in the group
C. Configure preemption on the router
D. Configure the router with a higher IP address than the other routers in the group
E. Configure tracking on the router
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Two EIGRP routers have failed to establish a neighbor relationship. Drag and drop the configuration parameters from
the left onto the categories on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-105 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-105 exam question q2-1

QUESTION 3
Which three effects of using local SPAN are true? (Choose three.)
A. It doubles the load on the forwarding engine.
B. It prevents SPAN destinations from using port security.
C. It doubles internal switch traffic.
D. It reduces the supervisor engine workload by half.
E. it reduces the load on the switch fabric.
Correct Answer: ABC
To avoid disrupting traffic, do not oversubscribe any of these points in your SPAN topology. Some oversubscription and
performance considerations are: ?SPAN doubles traffic internally ?SPAN adds to the traffic being processed by the
switch fabric ?SPAN doubles forwarding engine load
Because SPAN destination ports drop ingress traffic, these features are incompatible with SPAN destination ports:
?Private VLANs ?IEEE 802.1X port-based authentication ?Port security
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/7600/ios/12-2SXF/configuration/guide/swcg/span.pdf

QUESTION 4
What are the two default metrics used by EIGRP for route selection? (Choose two.)
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Reliability
D. Load
E. MTU
Correct Answer: AB
EIGRP adds together weighted values of different network link characteristics in order to calculate a metric for
evaluating path selection.
These characteristics include:
Delay (measured in 10s of microseconds)
Bandwidth (measured in kilobytes per second)
Reliability (in numbers ranging from 1 to 255; 255 being the most reliable) Load (in numbers ranging from 1 to 255; 255
being saturated) Various constants (K 1 through K 5) are able to be set by a user to produce varying routing behaviors.
However, by default, only delay and bandwidth are used in the weighted formula to produce a single 32bit metric:lead4pass 200-105 exam question q4

Note: Default K values are: K1 = K3 = 1 and K2 = K4 = K5 = 0. When K5 is equal to 0 then [K5/( K4 + reliability)] is
defined to be 1 Use of the default constants effectively reduces the formula above to:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocol-eigrp/whitepaper_C11-720525.html

QUESTION 5
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as \\’active\\’ in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Correct Answer: AD
Introduction to EIGRP Feasible Successors A destination entry is moved from the topology table to the routing table
when there is a feasible successor. All minimum cost paths to the destination form a set. From this set, the neighbors
that have an advertised metric less than the current routing table metric are considered feasible successors. Feasible
successors are viewed by a router as neighbors that are downstream with respect to the destination. These neighbors
and the associated metrics are placed in the forwarding table. When a neighbor changes the metric it has been
advertising or a topology change occurs in the network, the set of feasible successors may have to be reevaluated.
However, this is not categorized as a route recomputation.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f07.shtml

QUESTION 6
When are packets processed by an inbound access list?
A. before they are routed to an outbound interface
B. after they are routed to an outbound interface
C. before and after they are routed to an outbound interface
D. after they are routed to an outbound interface but before being placed in the outbound queue
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a forwarding state?
A. BPDU guard
B. PortFast
C. loop guard
D. UDLD
E. UplinkFast
Correct Answer: B
PortFast causes a switch or trunk port to enter the spanning tree forwarding state immediately, bypassing the listening
and learning states. You can use PortFast on switch or trunk ports that are connected to a single workstation, switch, or
server to allow those devices to connect to the network immediately, instead of waiting for the port to transition from the
listening and learning states to the forwarding state.

QUESTION 8
What\\’s DTP\\’s default in a switch?
A. ON
B. OFF
C. Dynamic Desirable
D. Dynamic Auto
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two characteristics of extended access lists are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can compare source traffic only against a permit or deny statement
B. They must be identified with a number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
C. They can be identified only with a number between 100 and 199
D. They can be configured to filter only UDP or TCP traffic
E. They can compare source and destination traffic against a permit or deny statement
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 10
Which two features are supported only in named access lists? (Choose two.)
A. identifying QoS traffic for marking
B. filtering traffic on VTY lines
C. limiting debug output
D. noncontiguous port filtering
E. deleting entries
Correct Answer: DE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_data_acl/configuration/xe-3s/sec-data-acl-xe-3s-book/sec-acl-named.pdf

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3.
What is the TTL value for that ping?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q11

A. 252
B. 253
C. 254
D. 255
Correct Answer: B
From the CCNA ICND2 Exam book: “Routers decrement the TTL by 1 every time they forward a packet; if a router
decrements the TTL to 0, it throws away the packet. This prevents packets from rotating forever.” I want to make it clear
that before the router forwards a packet, the TTL is still remain the same. For example, in the topology above, pings to
S0/1 and S0/0 of Router 2 have the same TTL. The picture below shows TTL values for each interface of each router
and for HostB. Notice that Host A initializes ICMP packet with a TTL of 255:

lead4pass 200-105 exam question q11-1

QUESTION 12
Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
A. It reduces the need for a backup data center.
B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
D. It eliminates the need for a GSS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and
issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted.
Which set of commands will accomplish this task?
A. service password-encryption access-list permit 192.168.1.0.0.0.0.255 line vty0 4 login password cisco access-class
1
B. enable password secret line vty0 login password cisco
C. service password-encryption line vty0 login password cisco
D. service password-encryption line vty0 4 login password cisco
Correct Answer: C

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Exam 70-537: Configuring and Operating a Hybrid Cloud with Microsoft Azure Stack Hub: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-537.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Deploying and Integrating an Azure Stack Hub Environment (20-25%)
  • Configuring PaaS and IaaS for an Azure Stack Hub Environment (25-30%)
  • Providing Services to and Enabling DevOps for Azure Stack Hub Users (25-30%)
  • Maintaining and Monitoring an Azure Stack Hub Environment (20-25%)

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Candidates for this exam are Azure administrators and Azure Stack Hub operators who use Azure Stack Hub to provide cloud services to their end-users or customers from within their own data center.

Candidates for this exam should have significant experience managing and operating Azure Stack Hub environments. Candidates should have a strong understanding of Azure as well as some knowledge of virtualization, networking, and identity management. Candidates should also understand how Azure Stack Hub enables DevOps processes and the hybrid development model.

Candidates for this exam are expected to demonstrate the ability to plan, deploy, package, update, and maintain the Azure Stack Hub infrastructure. Candidates must also demonstrate the ability to offer hybrid cloud resources and requested services, and to manage infrastructure as a service (IaaS) and platform as a service (PaaS).

Latest updates Microsoft 70-537 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure integrated system.
You receive a storage alert that a tenant share is at 80 percent capacity. There are multiple containers in the tenant\\’s
share.
You verify that there are no deleted storage accounts.
You need to increase the amount of space availability on the tenant share.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Start-AzsReclaimStorageCapacity
B. Start-AzsStorageContainerMigration
C. Set-AzsStorageQuota
D. Remove-AzsStorageQuota
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure Stack integrated system that uses Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) for authentication.
You download and extract the Azure App Service files.
You need to configure the system to support the deployment of Node.js applications and Azure functions.
What should you do before you configure the resource provider?
A. Install certificates. Register a service principal. Deploy and configure a file server. Create a relying party trust.
B. Install certificates. Deploy and configure a file server. Deploy and configure a Microsoft SQL server. Create an Azure
AD application.
C. Install certificates. Register a service principal. Deploy and configure a Microsoft SQL server. Create a relying party
trust.
D. Register a service principal. Deploy and configure a file server. Implement and configure a MySQL resource provider.
Configure the Azure functions.
Correct Answer: B
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: App Service on Azure Stack does not require a service principal or a relying party trust, but does require Microsoft
SQL server for the App Service databases.
D: App Service on Azure Stack requires certificates and Microsoft SQL server for the App Service databases.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-app-service-before-you-get-started


QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You plan to deploy an Azure Stack integrated system and the Azure Stack Development Kit. Both will be registered with
Microsoft Azure.
The planned deployment will contain the virtual machines configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-537 exam question q3

You need to identify which virtual machines will report usage information to Azure, and which virtual machines will
generate monthly fees.
Which virtual machines should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-537 exam question q3-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-537 exam question q3-2

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-usage-reporting#are-users-charged-for-the-infrastructure-vms

QUESTION 4
NOTE: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series
contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct
solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Stack integrated system that runs in a connected environment.
You need to recommend an interval for installing Microsoft software update packages to Azure Stack. The solution must
ensure that you can receive Microsoft support.
Solution: You recommend that Microsoft software updates be installed every three months.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
For your Azure Stack deployment to remain in support, it must run the most recently released update version or run
either of the two preceding update versions.
Microsoft will release update packages for Azure Stack integrated systems on a regular cadence that will typically fall on
the fourth Tuesday of every month.
Thus to remain in support you must be running one of the last three update versions and, as an update version is
released every month, you need to install updates at least every three months.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-servicing-policy https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-updates

QUESTION 5
NOTE: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series
contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct
solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Stack integrated system that contains four nodes named Node1, Node2, Node3 and Node4.
You plan to replace Node2.
You need to drain the active workloads that run on Node2.
Solution: You connect to the BMC web interface on Node2 and power off the node.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
The Drain action evacuates all active workloads by distributing them among the remaining nodes in that particular scale
unit. To run the drain action through PowerShell, use the Disable-AzsScaleUnitNode cmdlet.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The BMC web interface on Node2 can be used to power off the node. This does not send a shutdown signal to the
operating system. For planned power off operations, make sure you drain a scale unit node first. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-replace-node

QUESTION 6
You have an Azure Stack integrated system that has the following deployment details:
Region: East Naming prefix: azs External domain name: cloud.fabrikam.com
Which URL should you direct tenants to use based on the deployment details?
A. https://adminportal.cloud.fabrikam.com
B. https://portal.east.cloud.fabrikam.com
C. https://portal.azs.cloud.fabrikam.com
D. https://adminportal.azs.cloud.fabrikam.com
E. https://portal.cloud.fabrikam.com
F. https://adminportal.east.cloud.fabrikam.com
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-integrate-dns#

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com
You deploy an Azure Stack integrated system named Prod to a production environment. You also deploy an Azure
Stack integrated system named Dev to a development environment. The developers who access Dev change
frequently.
The Azure Stack integrated systems and the contoso.com forest are federated. The on-premises network contains a
Hyper-V host that hosts a Red Hat Enterprise Linux virtual machine named Linux1. Linux1 has the following
characteristics: A 2-TB disk Generation 1 10 virtual cores 128 GB of RAM A disk named LinuxVhd.vhdx
You plan to deploy infrastructure as a service (IaaS) to Dev for developer projects. The Marketplace on Dev is
configured and ready to publish items. Dev contains one plan named Dev_Plan1 and one offer named Dev_Offer1.
Prod contains two plans and two offers. One of the offers is named Offer1.
All the IaaS and platform as a service (PaaS) tenant data must be backed up to an external location. The solution must
ensure that the data can be restored if the datacenter that hosts Prod becomes unavailable.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to provide the support team for the developers the ability to perform Azure Stack operator tasks on the Dev
Azure Stack integrated system. The solution must minimize the amount of administrative effort required to manage the
administrative rights.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From the Azure Stack administrator portal, configure the Default Provider Subscription.
B. In contoso.com, modify the group membership of the development users.
C. From the Azure Stack administrator portal, create a new subscription.
D. From PowerShell, run the New-CloudAdminUser cmdlet.
E. From the Azure Stack administrator portal, create a new resource group.
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 8
You plan to create a Linux virtual machine on an Azure Stack integrated system.
You download an Ubuntu Server image.
Which authentication method can use to access the Linux virtual machine by using SSH?
A. The Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
B. a Kerberos token
C. a service principal
D. a key pair
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You have an Azure Stack integrated system.
A tenant requires assistance managing a subscription.
The tenant needs to create a custom RBAC role definition.
What should you instruct the tenant to do?
A. Establish a PowerShell session to the Azure Resource Manager (user) endpoint. Run the New-
AzureRmPolicySetDefinition cmdlet and the New-AzureRoleTemplate cmdlet.
B. Establish a PowerShell session to the Azure Resource Manager (user) endpoint. Create a JSON file that contains the
permission definitions. Run the New-AzureRmRoleDefinition cmdlet.
C. Establish a PowerShell session to the Azure Resource Manager (administrator) endpoint. Create an XML file that
contains the permission definitions. Run the New-AzureRmRoleDefinition cmdlet
D. Establish a PowerShell session to the Azure Resource Manager (administrator) endpoint. Run the New-
AzureRmPolicySetDefinition cmdlet and the New-AzureRoletemplate cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B
The New-AzureRmRoleDefinition cmdlet creates a custom role in Azure Role-Based Access Control. Provide a role
definition as an input to the command as a JSON file or a PSRoleDefinition object. Incorrect Answers:
A: New-AzureRoleTemplate creates web and worker role templates. This has nothing to do with RBAC.
C: The permission definitions should be contained in a JSON file, not an XML file.
D: New-AzureRoleTemplate creates web and worker role templates. This has nothing to do with RBAC.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/azurerm.resources/new-azurermroledefinition?view=azurermps-6.2.0

QUESTION 10
You have an Azure Stack integrated system.
You plan to use the Marketplace publishing tool.
Which two parameters should you specify when you run the tool? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. the Service Admin credentials
B. the Azure Resource Manager endpoint
C. the privileged endpoint
D. a backup location for AzureDeploy.json
E. the cloud administrator credentials
Correct Answer: AB
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-marketplace-publisher#publish-marketplace-items

QUESTION 11
You plan to automate the deployment of Azure Stack resources by using a script. The script will run by using a security
principal named ScriptUser1. The script will run daily and will be used to assign users the ability to create resources
within
newly created resource groups.
You need to assign an RBAC role to ScriptUser1. The solution must minimize administrative privileges.
Which RBAC role should you assign?
A. resource group Owner
B. resource group Contributor
C. subscription Contributor
D. subscription Owner
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You plan to deploy an Azure Stack integrated system to host applications on the Internet. Which network from the Azure
Stack deployment should be routed beyond the border device?
A. the switch network
B. the private VIP network
C. the storage network
D. the public VIP network
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-network

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure Stack integrated system that is isolated from the Internet.
You download an Azure Stack update to your administrator workstation.
You need to apply the update. The solution must ensure that only the Azure Stack operator can upload update
packages.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-537 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-537 exam question q13-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-apply-updates

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Free Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-365 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

What is the default NMSP echo interval between a Mobility Services Engine and Wireless LAN Controller? 

A. 30 Seconds 

B. 15 Seconds 

C. 10 Seconds 

D. 60 Seconds 

Correct Answer: B 

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/wireless/mse/3350/6.0/CAS/configuration/guide/msecg_ch4_CAS.html 

 

QUESTION 2

A customer has limited staff to manage a wireless network. The customer wants a solution that requires minimum

hardware. Which type of architecture do you propose? 

A. centralized 

B. distributed 

C. cloud-based 

D. unified 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 3

A customer called into the support center with a problem ticket that involves wireless clients having to reauthenticate

when they are walking around their office. After further investigation, it was discovered that the customer has two

controllers in an N+1 deployment. Which action must the engineer take to troubleshoot the issue? 

A. Verify that the wireless controllers are in the same mobility group and that the access points are all on the primary

controller. 

B. Under the SSID, make sure that 802.11r is configured and running for the clients. 

C. Make sure that the SSID has the authentication set to 802.1x with Cisco Centralized Key Management so the data

clients can roam seamlessly. 

D. Verify the access points are spread out between the primary and secondary controller and that the controllers are in

the same mobility group. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 4

A customer wants to restrict the number of SSIDs being offered in a specific location, but with a single WLC enterprise

wide. The customer is enabled to delete the SSIDs globally without impacting users at other sites. Which action fulfills

this requirement? 

A. Configure a FlexConnect group for the specified location and add the location APs to the group. 

B. Add an AP group for the specified location and add the location APs to the group. 

C. Change the WLAN ID of the desired SSIDs to greater than 16 and then disable them. 

D. Apply an access control list to restrict access at the specified location. 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 5

A customer is implementing a massively scaled guest wireless network to support approximately 32,000 clients. For

ease of administration, they have required implementing multiple interfaces defined on the WLC and mapped to a single

interface group. Which configuration meets this need? 

A. 264 interfaces of /25 sized networks 

B. 132 interfaces of /24 sized networks 

C. 66 interfaces of /23 sized networks 

D. 33 interfaces of /22 sized networks 

Correct Answer: D 

References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/8500-series-wireless-controllers/113695-8500-dg-00.html 

 

QUESTION 6

Branch wireless users report that they can no longer access services from head office but can access services locally at

the site. New wireless users can associate to the wireless while the WAN is down. Which three options (Cisco

FlexConnect state, operation mode, and authentication method) are seen in this scenario? (Choose three.) 

A. authentication-central/switch-local 

B. standalone mode 

C. authentication-central/switch-central 

D. WPA2 personal 

E. authentication-local/switch-local 

F. WPA2 enterprise 

Correct Answer: BDE 

 

QUESTION 7

What devices can be tracked with the Cisco Context Aware Services? 

A. Only wired devices. 

B. Both wired and wireless devices. 

C. Only Cisco certified wireless devices. 

D. Only wireless devices. 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 8

On which AP radio or radios is Cisco WGB association and public safety supported? 

A. 5 GHz only 

B. 2.4 GHz only 

C. 2.4, 5, or 4.9 GHz 

D. 2.4 or 5 GHz only 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 9

CMX Facebook WiFi can allow access to the network before authentication. Which two of the following options are

available? (Choose two) 

A. Allow all the traffic before authentication and intercept HTTPs only. 

B. Allow HTTP traffic only before authentication and block all the traffic. 

C. Allow SNMP traffic only before authentication and block all the traffic. 

D. Allow all the traffic before authentication and intercept HTTP only. 

E. Allow HTTPs traffic only before authentication and block all other traffic. 

Correct Answer: BD 

 

QUESTION 10

An engineer needs to address roaming issues with sticky clients in high-density areas on a campus. Which feature must

the engineer configure? 

A. Layer 3 roaming 

B. load balancing and band select 

C. optimized roaming 

D. Layer 2 roaming 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 11

A network engineer is debugging issues with the mDNS gateway. Which type of reply should be seen in the Wireshark

capture when querying for a mDNS service in the Bonjour Cache? 

A. unicast from Prime Infrastructure 

B. unicast from controller 

C. multicast from devices 

D. multicast from controller 

E. unicast from devices 

F. multicast from Prime Infrastructure 

Correct Answer: B 

References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/bonjour/Bonjour74/Bonjour_Deployment.html 

 

QUESTION 12

An engineer must implement WLC features that enhance roaming. Which two technologies fulfill this requirement?

(Choose two.) 

A. 802.11v 

B. WPA2 

C. Cisco Centralized Key Management 

D. 802.1X 

E. 802.11r 

Correct Answer: AE 

 

QUESTION 13

Which two parameters must be considered when conducting an outdoor mesh site survey? (Choose two.) 

A. weather 

B. traffic lights 

C. throughput 

D. Fresnel zone 

E. near-far effect 

Correct Answer: AD 

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements concerning IGMP are correct? (Choose all that apply.)
A. With IGMPvl, queries are sent to a specific group.
B. Hosts issuing IGMPvl requests will be correctly interpreted by IGMPv2 hosts due to backward compatibility.
C. An IGMPv2 router will ignore IGMPv2 leave messages when IGMFVl hosts are present.
D. With IGMFV2, a leave message is supported.
E. An IGMPv2 host will send an IGMFVl report on an IGMFVl router.
F. An IGMPv2 router can only allow IGMPv2 hosts to execute a join request.
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 2
In what situation would the command ip helper-address be required? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Only when there is a duplicate IP address caused by a combination of static and dynamic IP address allocations
B. On each router that exists between the client and the server
C. Only when a router separates the client from the server
D. Only if the DHCP sever issues a DHCPNAK to the initial request
E. Only when the client is on the same subnet as the server
F. Only when the DHCP pool is out of IP addresses
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which are valid AAA authentications methods?
A. Line
B. Local
C. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
D. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 4
Which of the following are valid methods of providing a router with information concerning the location of the RP?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Statically defined RP
B. Bootstrap Router
C. Auto-RP
D. RP Discovery Protocol (RDP)
E. RP Helios
F. RPARP(RARP)
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 5
Examine the output from R1. Interface FastEthernet0/0 is used for all management of the device. A client is able to
connect to R1 on port 22, however, they are unable to connect on port 23. What is the cause of the problem?lead4pass 300-135 exam question q5

A. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled, which only allows SSH.
B. Telnet and SSH are not allowed at the same time.
C. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled on the wrong interface.
D. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled, however telnet is not allowed.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
I—fa0/0—router branch 1—–S0/2—–Core—S0/1—Router HQ———fa2/1 Branch 1 : Tu 1 =192.168.10.2/28 L1 =
10.20.1.1/32 S0/2 = 172.18.10.2/30 Fa0/0 = 192.168.200.1/24
HQ : TU 1 = 192.168.10.1/28 L1 = 10.30.1.1/32 S0/1 = 172.18.10.1/30 Fa2/1 = 192.168.100.1/24
Refer to exhibit. which Ip Address shold be configured as the tunnel source on the HQ router for maximum resiliency ?
A. 10.20.1.1
B. 10.30.1.1
C. 172.18.10.2
D. 192.168.10.1
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Using the divide and conquer approach, drag the troubleshooting steps on the left onto the corresponding description on
the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-135 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-135 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-135 exam question q8

The administrator has successfully logged into R1 but is unable to access privileged mode commands Which
configuration is causing the problem?
A. The password on the VTY lines does not match the username password.
B. The username command uses password, not secret
C. Enable secret or enable password must be configured
D. The aaa authorization reverse-access command is missing.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#logging console warnings
Which alerts will be seen on the console?
A. Warnings only
B. debugging, informational, notifications, warnings
C. warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D. notifications, warnings, errors
E. warnings, errors, critical, alerts
Correct Answer: C
Cisco routers prioritize log messages into 8 levels (0-7), as shown below:
LevelLevel NameDescription 0 Emergencies System is unusable 1 Alerts Immediate action needed 2 Critical Critical
conditions 3 Errors Error conditions 4 Warnings Warning conditions 5 Notifications Informational messages 6
Informational Normal but significant conditions 7 Debugging Debugging messages
When you enable logging for a specific level, all logs of that severity and greater (numerically less) will be logged. In this
case, when you enable console logging of warning messages (level 4), it will log levels 0-4, making the correct answer
warnings, errors, critical, alerts, and emergencies.

 

QUESTION 10
A new router is added to an existing HSRP standby group. One of the existing routers is in an active state, the other is
in a standby state. Under what circumstance will the new router become the active router?
A. The new router will become active immediately because it\\’s the newest router introduced into the group.
B. The new router can become active only when the existing active router and the existing standby router become
unavailable.
C. The new router has a lower priority value.
D. The new router will never become active unless the existing active router becomes unavailable.
E. The new router has preempt configured and a higher priority
F. The new router has a higher priority value.
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 11
A question about restrict access for device on management plane? (Choose two.)
A. Enable Cisco Express Forward (CEF) globally.
B. Add authentication for routing protocols.
C. Restrict physical access.
D. Add ACLs for Telnet.
E. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 12
An exhibit with three routers A, B and C. Router A is connected to Router B. Router B is connected to Router C.lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12

The output of “show interface Tunnel 1” on Router C shows that the tunnel is in “up/ down” state. The question asks
what is the reason for this.
A. Router C does not have a route to the loopback interface of Router A
B. The tunnel mode should be changed to “gre mode multipoint”
C. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
D. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
You must add encryption to a GRE tunnel. Which IPsec configuration is recommended for a VPN with NAT
transversal?
A. Enable SHA on the tunnel
B. Implement IPsec transport mode
C. Enable MD5 on the tunnel
D. Implement IPsec tunnel mode
Correct Answer: D

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Exam 70-414: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-414.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Manage and maintain a server infrastructure (25–30%)
  • Plan and implement a highly available enterprise infrastructure (25–30%)
  • Plan and implement a server virtualization infrastructure (25–30%)
  • Design and implement identity and access solutions (20–25%)

Who should take this exam?

This exam is part two of a series of two exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to design, implement, and maintain a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an enterprise scaled, highly virtualized environment. Passing this exam validates a candidate’s ability to the plan, configure, and manage the Windows Server 2012 services,
such as identity and access, high availability, and the server infrastructure. Passing this exam along with the other exam confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge necessary for designing, deploying, and maintaining services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment.

Test your Microsoft MCSE 70-414 exam level

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains multiple servers that are
configured as Hyper-V hosts. You plan to implement four virtual machines. The virtual machines will be configured as
shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-414 exam question q1

You need to identify which network must be added to each virtual machine.
Which network types should you identify?
To answer, drag the appropriate Network Type to the correct virtual machine in the answer area. Each Network Type
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag
the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-414 exam question q1-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-414 exam question q1-2

 

QUESTION 2
You plan to configure Windows Network Load Balancing (NLB) for a company. You display following Network Load
Balancing Manager window:lead4pass 70-414 exam question q2

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the graphic.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-414 exam question q2-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-414 exam question q2-2

 

QUESTION 3
You are planning the deployment of System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You need to identify which
additional System Center 2012 product is required to meet the virtualization requirements. What should you include in
the recommendation?
A. App Controller
B. Operations Manager
C. Configuration Manager
D. Service Manager
Correct Answer: Blead4pass 70-414 exam question q3

http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj656649.aspx

 

QUESTION 4
Your network contains five physical servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-414 exam question q4

All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
During the setup of VMM, you configure distributed key management.
You need to ensure that the entire VMM infrastructure can be restored.
What should you include in the backup plan? To answer, select the appropriate server to back up for each backup
content type in the answer.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-414 exam question q4-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-414 exam question q4-2

 

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains several domain
controllers. The domain controllers run either Windows Server 2012 or Windows Server 2008 R2.
The domain functional level is Windows Server 2008 R2. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2008.
The corporate compliance policy states that all items deleted from Active Directory must be recoverable from a Recycle
Bin.
You need to recommend changes to the current environment to meet the compliance policy.
Which changes should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2008 R2.
B. Run the Enable-ADOptionalFeature cmdlet.
C. Run the New-ADObject cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-Server cmdlet
E. Raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: AB
You can enable Active Directory Recycle Bin only if the forest functional level of your environment is set to Windows
Server 2008 R2.
B: Enabling Active Directory Recycle Bin
After the forest functional level of your environment is set to Windows Server 2008 R2, you can enable Active Directory
Recycle Bin by using the following methods:
Enable-ADOptionalFeature Active Directory module cmdlet (This is the recommended method.)
Ldp.exe
Note: By default, Active Directory Recycle Bin in Windows Server 2008 R2 is disabled.

 

QUESTION 6
You have a small Hyper-V cluster built on two hosts that run Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V. You manage the virtual
infrastructure by using System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2012. Distributed Key Management is not installed. You
have the following servers in the environment:lead4pass 70-414 exam question q6

You have the following requirements:
You must back up virtual machines at the host level.
You must be able to back up virtual machines that are configured for live migration.
You must be able to restore the entire VMM infrastructure.
You need to design and implement the backup plan.
What should you do?
A. Run the following Windows PowerShell command: Get-VM VMM1 | Checkpoint-VM-SnapshotName “VMM backup”
B. Run the following Windows PowerShell command: Set-DPMGlobalProperty-DPMServerName
DPM1-KnownVMMServers VMM1
C. Configure System State Backup for DCL.
D. Configure backup for all disk volumes on FILESERVER1
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Your company has data centers in Seattle and New York. A high-speed link connects the data centers. Each data
center runs a virtualization infrastructure that uses Hyper-V Server 2012 and Hyper-V Server 2012 R2. Administrative
users
from the Seattle and New York offices are members of Active Directory Domain Services groups named SeattleAdmins
and NewYorkAdmins, respectively.
You deploy one System Center Virtual Machine Manager (SCVMM) in the Seattle data center. You create two private
clouds named SeattleCloud and NewYorkCloud in the Seattle and New York data centers, respectively.
You have the following requirements:
Administrators from each data center must be able to manage the virtual machines and services from their location by
using a web portal.
Administrators must not apply new resource quotas or change resource quotas.
You must manage public clouds by using the existing SCVMM server.
You must use the minimum permissions required to perform the administrative tasks.
You need to configure the environment.
What should you do?
A. For both the Seattle and New York admin groups, create a User Role and assign it to the Application Administrator
profile. Add the Seattle and New York private clouds to the corresponding User Role.
B. For both the Seattle and New York admin groups, create a User Role and assign it to the Tennant Administrator
profile. Add the Seattle and New York private clouds to the corresponding User Role.
C. Add both SeattleAdmins and NewYorkAdmins to the Local Administrators group of each Hyper-V host in Seattle and
New York, respectively.
D. Add both SeattleAdmins and NewYorkAdmins to the Local Administrators group of the SCVMM server.
Correct Answer: A
Members of the Application Administrator (Self-Service User) ole can create, deploy, and manage their own virtual
machines and services by using the VMM console or a Web portal.

 

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the PII requirement. What should you
recommend?
A. Establish a two-way, forest trust. Create an AD RMS cluster in Proseware and Fabrikam, and then establish
Fabrikam as a trusted user domain.
B. Create an AD RMS cluster in Proseware, and then provision the user accounts in Proseware for the Proseware
users.
C. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from ProsewareCA.
D. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from FabrikamCA.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
Your company has an enterprise root certification authority (CA) named CA1.
You plan to deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to a server named Server1.
The company purchases a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.
You plan to register the company\\’s SMTP domain for Office 365 and to configure single sign-on for all users.
You need to identify which certificate is required for the planned deployment.
Which certificate should you identify?
A. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted third-party root CA and that contains the subject name
server1.contoso.com
B. a self-signed server authentication certificate for server1.contoso.com
C. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted third-party root CA and that contains the subject name
Server1
D. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CA1 and that contains the subject name Server1
E. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CA1 and that contains the subject name server1.contoso.com
Correct Answer: A
Prepare Your Server and Install ADFS
You can install ADFS on a domain controller or another server. You\\’ll first need to configure a few prerequisites. The
following steps assume you\\’re installing to Windows Server 2008 R2.
Using Server Manager, install the IIS role and the Microsoft .NET Framework. Then purchase and install a server-
authentication certificate from a public certificate authority. Make sure you match the certificate\\’s subject name with the
Fully
Qualified Domain Name of the server. Launch IIS Manager and import that certificate to the default Web site.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/jj631606.aspx


QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a solution that meets the AD RMS requirements of Customer1 and Customer2.
Which actions should you recommend performing for each customer? To answer, select the appropriate customer for
each action in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-414 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 11
This question consists of two statements: One is named Assertion and the other is named Reason. Both of these
statements may be true; both may be false; or one may be true, while the other may be false.
To answer this question, you must first evaluate whether each statement is true on its own. If both statements are true,
then you must evaluate whether the Reason (the second statement) correctly explains the Assertion (the first
statement).
You will then select the answer from the list of answer choices that matches your evaluation of the two statements.
Assertion:
You can manage VMware ESX hosts and virtual machines by using a System Center Virtual Machine Manager
(SCVMM) server.
Reason:
SCVMM automatically imports ESX hosts and virtual machines when you add the corresponding VMware vCenter to the
SCVMM server.
Evaluate the Assertion and Reason statements and choose the correct answer option.
A. Both the Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion.
B. Both the Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation for the Assertion.
C. The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
D. The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.
E. Both the Assertion and the Reason are false.
Correct Answer: C
Assertion: true
Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) enables you to deploy and manage virtual machines and services across multiple
hypervisor platforms, including VMware ESX and ESXi hosts.
Reason: False
When you add a vCenter Server, VMM no longer imports, merges and synchronizes the VMware tree structure with
VMM. Instead, after you add a vCenter Server, you can add selected ESX servers and hosts to any VMM host group.
Therefore, there are fewer issues with synchronization.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg610683.aspx

 

QUESTION 12
You manage a Hyper-V 2012 cluster by using System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2012 SP1. You need to ensure
high availability for business-critical virtual machines (VMs) that host business-critical SQL Server databases. Solution:
You set the memory-weight threshold value to High for each business-critical VM. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System
Center 2012 infrastructure.
All client computers have a custom application named App1 installed. App1 generates an Event ID 42 every time the
application runs out of memory.
Users report that when App1 runs out of memory, their client computer runs slowly until they manually restart App1.
You need to recommend a solution that automatically restarts App1 when the application runs out of memory. The
solution must use the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. From Configurations Manager, create a desired configuration management baseline.
B. From Windows System Resource Manager, create a resource allocation policy.
C. From Event Viewer, attach a task to the event.
D. From Operations Manager, create an alert.
Correct Answer: D

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Easy to learn, you’ll pass the EMC Specialist E20-594 exam! Free E20-594 dumps

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Test your EMC Specialist E20-594 exam level

QUESTION 1

An EMC Avamar customer is deploying a backup solution consisting of two EMC Avamar servers (server A and server

B) with replication. 

Which configuration provides seamless server failover capability? 

A. All clients back up to Avamar server A and backup data is replicated to Avamar server B using root-to-root

replication. 

B. Clients of server A replicate to Avamar server B and clients of Avamar server B replicate to Avamar server A using

Normal replication. 

C. Using root-to-root replication, clients of Avamar server A replicate to Avamar server B and clients of Avamar server B

replicate to Avamar server A. 

D. All clients back up to Avamar server A and backup data is replicated to Avamar server B using Normal replication. 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 2

What are the various severity levels contained in each Dell EMC Avamar log? 

A. Info, Warn, Error, and Fatal 

B. Info, Problem, Warn, and Fatal 

C. Info, Problem, Warning, and Fail 

D. Info, Warning, Error, and Fail 

Correct Answer: D 

Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu91834.pdf 

 

QUESTION 3

Which component should be stopped and started, before and after specifying the e-mail home smtp server? 

A. MCS 

B. gsan 

C. EMS 

D. dtlt 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 4

Which port must be open on an EMC Avamar utility node to be able to browse a client file system? 

A. 26000 

B. 27000 

C. 28001 

D. 28002 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 5

What is the default duration of the Backup window in EMC Avamar? 

A. 6 hours 

B. 8 hours 

C. 10 hours 

D. 12 hours 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 6

After completing the initial root-to-root system migration, you are ready to switch over to the new target system. You

have been performing some critical backups of key systems during this initial replication phase. Which key step must be

done prior to the final switchover to ensure all backups are present on the target? 

A. Perform a final catchup replication 

B. Perform all required DNS changes 

C. Run an MCS flush on the target 

D. Run an MCS flush on the source 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 7

On a Dell EMC Avamar server, what is the file extension of stripes that contain backup chunks? 

A. dat 

B. wlg 

C. tab 

D. chd 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 8

A company has requested that a Dell EMC Avamar Administrator console be installed on a server so that an Avamar

server can be managed in a high security environment. Since firewalls are in use, which port will require a rule so that

the Avamar server and Administrator console can communicate? 

A. 443 

B. 5555 

C. 7778 

D. 28002 

Correct Answer: C 

Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu89848.pdf 

 

QUESTION 9

You have correctly executed the EMC Avamar network definition utility and rebooted all of the nodes in your Avamar

server. To check that the nodes have been defined correctly, you execute the command mapall –all –user=root date. 

Which nodes should respond by displaying the output of the command? 

A. Utility node and active data nodes only 

B. Utility node, active data nodes, and spare node 

C. Active data nodes and spare node only 

D. Active data nodes only 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 10

How many hours does the benchmark test run in an AVE install? 

A. 6 

B. 12 

C. 24 

D. 36 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 11

Which is the last step in the hardware installation portion of an EMC Avamar multinode deployment? 

A. Connecting to the customer network 

B. Cabling the nodes to the switch 

C. Powering on the nodes 

D. Placing nodes in the rack 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 12

What is the minimum physical RAM requirement for a 0.5 TB installation of EMC AVE? 

A. 1024 MB 

B. 2048 MB 

C. 3072 MB 

D. 4096 MB 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 13

Which command is used to discover and list physical node numbers and IP addresses on a multi-node Dell EMC

Avamar server? 

A. status.dpn 

B. rebuild.node 

C. asktime 

D. mapall 

Correct Answer: D

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Latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access
and aggregation layers in the data canter?
A. vPC
B. PAgP
C. LACP
D. host vPC
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Access layer switches are located as which type of design to provide network connectivity to servers that are installed in
rack?
A. ToR design
B. MoR design
C. EoR design
D. ILR
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-160 exam question q3

You are evaluating a proposed topology design. Which technology can you recommend to provide high availability for
the topology?
A. OTV
B. STP
C. LLDP
D. vPC
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which two resources can be VDC-dedicated resources? (Choose two.)
A. QoS hardware queues
B. physical interfaces
C. A table spaces
D. fabric modules
E. management interfaces
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 5
The client\\’s data center manager has requested the physical weights of the equipment in your Cisco UCS design along
with the power and cooling requirements. Where in cisco.com can you find this information?
A. the product datasheets
B. the Cisco UCS power calculator
C. the Cisco UCS GUI Configuration Guide
D. the Cisco UCS Hardware Installation Guide
E. the Hardware and Software Interoperability Matrix Utility Tool
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which two features are supported by VXLAN on the Cisco NX-OS platform? (Choose two)
A. MP-BGP EVPN
B. DHCP snooping
C. PIM-SM
D. OTV
E. L2TP
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 7
Which two licenses must you have to enable OTV on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. Transport Services Package
B. Advanced Services Package
C. MPLS Services Package
D. Enterprise Services Package
E. Enhanced Layer 2 Package
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 8
Which two characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose two)
A. voice, data, and wireless convergence
B. no packet manipulation
C. QoS–policing
D. routing manipulation and filtering
E. QoS – classification and queuing
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 9
What introduces unique implications into the overall Data Center aggregation layer design? (Choose Three.)
A. High-speed switching fabric with a high forwarding rate
B. Over-subscription values
C. Service Modules
D. IP routing
E. WAN
F. Internet Edge
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 10
Which option is a characteristic of the data center aggregation layer?
A. segments groups of applications and isolates problems
B. provides access for IP multicast applications
C. offers QoS services, such as the classification and marking of traffic
D. is a high-speed backbone of the data center
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
You plan to use Cisco FEX and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches. Which deployment model is valid?
A. straight-through connections that use static pinning
B. active/active fabric extenders that use vPC
C. straight-through connections that use dynamic pinning
D. active/active fabric extenders that use straight-through connections
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12 lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12-1 lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12-2

Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 4. Which of the items is true regarding the activation of a Management Extension
update?
A. Adds support for new management access protocols
B. Adds support for new SAN protocols
C. Adds support for new LAN protocols
D. Adds support for new hardware
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Exhibit 4 shown below:

lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12-3

Management Extensions enable you to add support for previously unsupported servers and other hardware to Cisco
UCS Manager. For example, you may need to activate a Management Extension if you want to add a new, previously
unsupported server to an existing Cisco UCS domain.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/firmware-
mgmt/gui/2-2/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_22/
b_GUI_Firmware_Management_22_chapter_01001.html#task_AAF21C05F1754D30B2CBFFA4642840E3

 

QUESTION 13
After a recent acquisition, you have been asked to merge two SANs into one. Which SAN topology is Cisco
recommended?
A. Core-Edge
B. Edge-Core-Edge
C. Core Access
D. Collapsed Core
E. Collapsed Core-Edge
Correct Answer: B

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