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Itexamcourses Exam Table of Contents:

Microsoft DP-201 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated Microsoft DP-201 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
You are planning a big data solution in Azure.
You need to recommend a technology that meets the following requirements:
1.
Be optimized for batch processing.
2.
Support autoscaling.
3.
Support per-cluster scaling. Which technology should you recommend?
A. Azure Data Warehouse
B. Azure HDInsight with Spark
C. Azure Analysis Services
D. Azure Databricks
Correct Answer: D
Azure Databricks is an Apache Spark-based analytics platform. Azure Databricks supports autoscaling and manages
the Spark cluster for you.
Incorrect Answers: A, B:[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q1

 

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You are designing an Azure SQL Database that will use elastic pools. You plan to store data about customers in a table.
Each record uses a value for CustomerID.
You need to recommend a strategy to partition data based on values in CustomerID.
Proposed Solution: Separate data into customer regions by using vertical partitioning.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Vertical partitioning is used for cross-database queries. Instead, we should use Horizontal Partitioning, which also is
called charging.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-query-overview

 

QUESTION 3
You plan to use an Azure SQL data warehouse to store the customer data. You need to recommend a disaster recovery
solution for the data warehouse. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. AzCopy
B. Read-only replicas
C. AdICopy
D. Geo-Redundant backups
Correct Answer: D
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/backup-and-restore

 

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that emergency road response vehicles are dispatched automatically.
How should you design the processing system? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q4-1

Explanation: Box1: API App

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q4-2

Events generated from the IoT data sources are sent to the stream ingestion layer through Azure HDInsight Kafka as a
stream of messages. HDInsight Kafka stores a stream of data in topics for a configurable of time.
Kafka consumer, Azure Databricks, picks up the message in real-time from the Kafka topic, to process the data based
on the business logic and can then send it to the Serving layer for storage.
Downstream storage services, like Azure Cosmos DB, Azure SQL Data warehouse, or Azure SQL DB, will then be a
data source for presentation and action layer.
Business analysts can use Microsoft Power BI to analyze warehoused data. Other applications can be built upon the
serving layer as well. For example, we can expose APIs based on the service layer data for third party uses.
Box 2: Cosmos DB Change Feed
Change feed support in Azure Cosmos DB works by listening to an Azure Cosmos DB container for any changes. It
then outputs the sorted list of documents that were changed in the order in which they were modified.
The change feed in Azure Cosmos DB enables you to build efficient and scalable solutions for each of these patterns,
as shown in the following image:

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q4-3

 

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You are designing a new application that uses Azure Cosmos DB. The application will support a variety of data patterns
including log records and social media mentions.
You need to recommend which Cosmos DB API to use for each data pattern. The solution must minimize resource
utilization.
Which API should you recommend for each data pattern? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q5-1

Log records: SQL
Social media mentions: Gremlin You can store the actual graph of followers using Azure Cosmos DB Gremlin API to
create vertexes for each user and edges that maintain the “A-follows-B” relationships. With the Gremlin API, you can get
the followers of a certain user and create more complex queries to suggest people in common. If you add to the graph
the Content Categories that people like or enjoy, you can start weaving experiences that include smart content
discovery, suggesting content that those people you follow like, or finding people that you might have much in common
with.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/social-media-apps

 

QUESTION 6
You need to design the SensorData collection.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q6-1

Box 1: Eventual
Traffic data insertion rate must be maximized.
Sensor data must be stored in a Cosmos DB named try data in a collection named SensorData
With Azure Cosmos DB, developers can choose from five well-defined consistency models on the consistency
spectrum. From strongest to more relaxed, the models include strong, bounded staleness, session, consistent prefix,
and eventual
consistency.
Box 2: License plate
This solution reports on all data related to a specific vehicle license plate. The report must use data from the
SensorData collection.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/consistency-levels

 

QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a solution for storing the image tagging data. What should you recommend?
A. Azure File Storage
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure Blob Storage
D. Azure SQL Database
E. Azure SQL Data Warehouse
Correct Answer: C
Image data must be stored in a single data store at a minimum cost.
Note: Azure Blob storage is Microsoft\\’s object storage solution for the cloud. Blob storage is optimized for storing
massive amounts of unstructured data. Unstructured data is data that does not adhere to a particular data model or
definition,
such as text or binary data.
Blob storage is designed for:
1.
Serving images or documents directly to a browser.
2.
Storing files for distributed access.
3.
Streaming video and audio.
4.
Writing to log files.
5.
Storing data for backup and restore disaster recovery, and archiving.
6.
Storing data for analysis by an on-premises or Azure-hosted service.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blobs-introduction

 

QUESTION 8
You need to design a telemetry data solution that supports the analysis of log files in real-time.
Which two Azure services should you include in the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Databricks
B. Azure Data Factory
C. Azure Event Hubs
D. Azure Data Lake Storage Gent 2
E. Azure IoT Hub
Correct Answer: AC
You connect a data ingestion system with Azure Databricks to stream data into an Apache Spark cluster in near realtime. You set up a data ingestion system using Azure Event Hubs and then connect it to Azure Databricks to process the
messages coming through.
Note: Azure Event Hubs is a highly scalable data streaming platform and event ingestion service, capable of receiving
and processing millions of events per second. Event Hubs can process and store events, data, or telemetry produced by
distributed software and devices. Data sent to an event hub can be transformed and stored using any real-time analytics
provider or batching/storage adapters.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-databricks/databricks-stream-from-eventhubs

 

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You plan to store delimited text files in an Azure Data Lake Storage account that will be organized into the department
folders.
You need to configure data access so that users see only the files in their respective department folders.
Solution: From the storage account, you disable a hierarchical namespace, and you use access control lists (ACLs).
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Azure Data Lake Storage implements an access control model that derives from HDFS, which in turn derives from the
POSIX access control model.
Blob container ACLs do not support the hierarchical namespace, so it must be disabled.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/data-lake-storage-known-issues
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-lake-store/data-lake-store-access-control

 

QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a storage solution for a sales system that will receive thousands of small files per minute. The
files will be in JSON, text, and CSV formats. The files will be processed and transformed before they are loaded into an
Azure data warehouse. The files must be stored and secured in folders.
Which storage solution should you recommend?
A. Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure SQL Database
D. Azure Blob storage
Correct Answer: A
Azure provides several solutions for working with CSV and JSON files, depending on your needs. The primary landing
place for these files is either Azure Storage or Azure Data Lake Store.1
Azure Data Lake Storage is optimized storage for big data analytics workloads.
Incorrect Answers:
D: Azure Blob Storage containers is a general-purpose object store for a wide variety of storage scenarios. Blobs are
stored in containers, which are similar to folders.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/scenarios/csv-and-json

 

QUESTION 11
You need to design the Planning Assistance database.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q11-1

Box 1: No
Data used for Planning Assistance must be stored in a sharded Azure SQL Database.
Box 2: Yes
Box 3: Yes
Planning Assistance database will include reports tracking the travel of a single-vehicle


QUESTION 12
What should you recommend using to secure sensitive customer contact information?
A. data labels
B. column-level security
C. row-level security
D. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
Correct Answer: B
Scenario: All cloud data must be encrypted at rest and in transit.
Always Encrypted is a feature designed to protect sensitive data stored in specific database columns from access (for
example, credit card numbers, national identification numbers, or data on a need to know basis). This includes database
administrators or other privileged users who are authorized to access the database to perform management tasks but
have no business need to access the particular data in the encrypted columns. The data is always encrypted, which
means the encrypted data is decrypted only for processing by client applications with access to the encryption key.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) encrypts SQL Server, Azure SQL Database, and Azure SQL Data Warehouse
data files, known as encrypting data at rest. TDE does not provide encryption across communication channels.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-security-overview

 

QUESTION 13
You need to design the unauthorized data usage detection system. What Azure service should you include in the
design?
A. Azure Analysis Services
B. Azure SQL Data Warehouse
C. Azure Databricks
D. Azure Data Factory
Correct Answer: B
SQL Database and SQL Data Warehouse
SQL threat detection identifies anomalous activities indicating unusual and potentially harmful attempts to access or
exploit databases.
Advanced Threat Protection for Azure SQL Database and SQL Data Warehouse detects anomalous activities indicating
unusual and potentially harmful attempts to access or exploit databases.
Scenario:
Requirements. Security
The solution must meet the following security requirements:
Unauthorized usage of data must be detected in real-time. Unauthorized usage is determined by looking for unusual
usage patterns.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-threat-detection-overview

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Itexamcourses Exam Table of Contents:

Microsoft DP-200 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated Microsoft DP-200 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
A company uses Microsoft Azure SQL Database to store sensitive company data. You encrypt the data and only allow
access to specified users from specified locations.
You must monitor data usage, and data copied from the system to prevent data leakage.
You need to configure Azure SQL Database to email a specific user when data leakage occurs.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:[2021.1] lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q1

Step 1: Enable advanced threat protection Set up threat detection for your database in the Azure portal
1. Launch the Azure portal at https://portal.azure.com.
2. Navigate to the configuration page of the Azure SQL Database server you want to protect. In the security settings,
select Advanced Data Security.
3. On the Advanced Data Security configuration page:
Enable advanced data security on the server.
In Threat Detection Settings, in the Send alerts to the text box, provide the list of emails to receive security alerts upon
detection of anomalous database activities.

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q1-1

Step 2: Configure the service to send email alerts to [email protected]
Step 3:..of type data exfiltration
The benefits of Advanced Threat Protection for Azure Storage include:
Detection of anomalous access and data exfiltration activities.
Security alerts are triggered when anomalies in activity occur: access from an unusual location, anonymous access,
access by an unusual application, data exfiltration, unexpected delete operations, access permission change, and so
on.
Admins can view these alerts via Azure Security Center and can also choose to be notified of each of them via email.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-threat-detection
https://www.helpnetsecurity.com/2019/04/04/microsoft-azure-security/

 

QUESTION 2
You develop a data ingestion process that will import data to a Microsoft Azure SQL Data Warehouse. The data to be
ingested resides in parquet files stored in an Azure Data Lake Gen 2 storage account.
You need to load the data from the Azure Data Lake Gen 2 storage account into the Azure SQL Data Warehouse.
Solution:
1.
Create an external data source pointing to the Azure storage account
2.
Create a workload group using the Azure storage account name as the pool name
3.
Load the data using the CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Use the Azure Data Lake Gen 2 storage account.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-load-from-azure-data-lakestore

 

QUESTION 3
You plan to create a dimension table in Azure Data Warehouse that will be less than 1 GB.
You need to create a table to meet the following requirements:
Provide the fastest query time.
Minimize data movement.
Which type of table should you use?
A. hash distributed
B. heap
C. replicated
D. round-robin
Correct Answer: D
Usually, common dimension tables or tables that doesn\\’t distribute evenly are good candidates for round-robin
distributed table.
Note: Dimension tables or other lookup tables in a schema can usually be stored as round-robin tables. Usually, these
tables connect to more than one fact table, and optimizing for one join may not be the best idea. Also usually dimension
tables are smaller which can leave some distributions empty when hash distributed. Round-robin by definition
guarantees a uniform data distribution.
References: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/sqlcat/2015/08/11/choosing-hash-distributed-table-vs-round-robindistributed-table-in-azure-sql-dw-service/

 

QUESTION 4
You plan to deploy an Azure Cosmos DB database that supports multi-master replication.
You need to select a consistency level for the database to meet the following requirements:
Provide a recovery point objective (RPO) of less than 15 minutes.
Provide a recovery time objective (RTO) of zero minutes.
What are three possible consistency levels that you can select? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Strong
B. Bounded Staleness
C. Eventual
D. Session
E. Consistent Prefix
Correct Answer: CDE[2021.1] lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q4

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/consistency-levels-choosing

 

QUESTION 5
You have an Azure SQL data warehouse.
Using PolyBase, you create a table named [Ext].[Items] to query Parquet files stored in Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2
without importing the data to the data warehouse.
The external table has three columns.
You discover that the Parquet files have a fourth column named ItemID.
Which command should you run to add the ItemID column to the external table?[2021.1] lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q5

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
Incorrect Answers:
B, D: Only these Data Definition Language (DDL) statements are allowed on external tables:
CREATE TABLE and DROP TABLE
CREATE STATISTICS and DROP STATISTICS
CREATE VIEW and DROP VIEW
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-external-table-transact-sql

 

QUESTION 6
You manage a financial computation data analysis process. Microsoft Azure virtual machines (VMs) run the process in
daily jobs, and store the results in virtual hard drives (VHDs.)
The VMs product results using data from the previous day and store the results in a snapshot of the VHD. When a new month begins, a process creates a new VHD.
You must implement the following data retention requirements:
Daily results must be kept for 90 days
Data for the current year must be available for weekly reports
Data from the previous 10 years must be stored for auditing purposes
Data required for an audit must be produced within 10 days of a request.
You need to enforce the data retention requirements while minimizing cost.
How should you configure the lifecycle policy? To answer, drag the appropriate JSON segments to the correct locations.
Each JSON segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bat between
panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:[2021.1] lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q6-1

The Set-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicy cmdlet creates or modifies the management policy of an Azure Storage
account.
Example: Create or update the management policy of a Storage account with ManagementPolicy rule objects.

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q6-2

Action -BaseBlobAction Delete -daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 100
PS C:\>$action1 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -InputObject $action1 -BaseBlobAction
TierToArchive -daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 50
PS C:\>$action1 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -InputObject $action1 -BaseBlobAction TierToCool
-daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 30
PS C:\>$action1 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -InputObject $action1 -SnapshotAction Delete
-daysAfterCreationGreaterThan 100
PS C:\>$filter1 = New-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyFilter -PrefixMatch ab,cd
PS C:\>$rule1 = New-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyRule -Name Test -Action $action1 -Filter $filter1
PS C:\>$action2 = Add-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyAction -BaseBlobAction Delete
-daysAfterModificationGreaterThan 100
PS C:\>$filter2 = New-AzStorageAccountManagementPolicyFilter
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/az.storage/set-azstorageaccountmanagementpolicy

 

QUESTION 7
You plan to create an Azure Databricks workspace that has a tiered structure. The workspace will contain the following
three workloads:
A workload for data engineers who will use Python and SQL
A workload for jobs that will run notebooks that use Python, Spark, Scala, and SQL
A workload that data scientists will use to perform ad hoc analysis in Scala and R
The enterprise architecture team at your company identifies the following standards for Databricks environments:
The data engineers must share a cluster.
The job cluster will be managed by using a request process whereby data scientists and data engineers provide
packaged notebooks for deployment to the cluster.
All the data scientists must be assigned their own cluster that terminates automatically after 120 minutes of inactivity.
Currently, there are three data scientists.
You need to create the Databrick clusters for the workloads.
Solution: You create a Standard cluster for each data scientist, a High Concurrency cluster for the data engineers, and a
High Concurrency cluster for the jobs.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
We need a High Concurrency cluster for the data engineers and the jobs.
Note:
Standard clusters are recommended for a single user. Standard can run workloads developed in any language: Python,
R, Scala, and SQL.
A high concurrency cluster is a managed cloud resource. The key benefits of high concurrency clusters are that they
provide Apache Spark-native fine-grained sharing for maximum resource utilization and minimum query latencies.
References:
https://docs.azuredatabricks.net/clusters/configure.html

 

QUESTION 8
You are the data engineer for your company. An application uses a NoSQL database to store data. The database uses
the key-value and wide-column NoSQL database type.
Developers need to access data in the database using an API.
You need to determine which API to use for the database model and type.
Which two APIs should you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Table API
B. MongoDB API
C. Gremlin API
D. SQL API
E. Cassandra API
Correct Answer: BE
B: Azure Cosmos DB is the globally distributed, multimodel database service from Microsoft for mission-critical
applications. It is a multimodel database and supports document, key-value, graph, and columnar data models.
E: Wide-column stores store data together as columns instead of rows and are optimized for queries over large
datasets. The most popular are Cassandra and HBase.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/graph-introduction
https://www.mongodb.com/scale/types-of-nosql-databases

 

QUESTION 9
You develop a data ingestion process that will import data to a Microsoft Azure SQL Data Warehouse. The data to be
ingested resides in parquet files stored in an Azure Data Lake Gen 2 storage account.
You need to load the data from the Azure Data Lake Gen 2 storage account into the Azure SQL Data Warehouse.
Solution:
1.
Create an external data source pointing to the Azure storage account
2.
Create a workload group using the Azure storage account name as the pool name
3.
Load the data using the INSERT…SELECT statement Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You need to create an external file format and external table using the external data source. You then load the data
using the CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-load-from-azure-data-lakestore

 

QUESTION 10
You are a data engineer. You are designing a Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS) architecture. You plan to use
Microsoft Azure Data Lake as a data storage repository.
You must provision the repository with a resilient data schema. You need to ensure the resiliency of the Azure Data
Lake Storage. What should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q10-1

Explanation/Reference:
Box 1: NameNode
An HDFS cluster consists of a single NameNode, a master server that manages the file system namespace and
regulates access to files by clients.
Box 2: DataNode
The DataNodes are responsible for serving read and write requests from the file system

 

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You need to implement diagnostic logging for Data Warehouse monitoring.
Which log should you use?
A. RequestSteps
B. DmsWorkers
C. SqlRequests
D. ExecRequests
Correct Answer: C
Scenario:
The Azure SQL Data Warehouse cache must be monitored when the database is being used.[2021.1] lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q11

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/system-dynamic-management-views/sys-dm-pdwsql-requests-transact-sq

 

QUESTION 12
What should you include in the Data Factory pipeline for Race Central?
A. a copy activity that uses a stored procedure as a source
B. a copy activity that contains schema mappings
C. a delete activity that has logging enabled
D. a filter activity that has a condition
Correct Answer: B
Scenario:
An Azure Data Factory pipeline must be used to move data from Cosmos DB to SQL Database for Race Central. If the
data load takes longer than 20 minutes, configuration changes must be made to Data Factory.
The telemetry data is sent to a MongoDB database. A custom application then moves the data to databases in SQL
Server 2017. The telemetry data in MongoDB has more than 500 attributes. The application changes the attribute
names
when the data is moved to SQL Server 2017.
You can copy data to or from Azure Cosmos DB (SQL API) by using the Azure Data Factory pipeline.
Column mapping applies when copying data from source to sink. By default, copy activity map source data to sink by
column names. You can specify the explicit mapping to customize the column mapping based on your need. More
specifically,
copy activity:
Read the data from the source and determine the source schema
Use default column mapping to map columns by name, or apply explicit column mapping if specified.
Write the data to sink
Write the data to sink
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/copy-activity-schema-and-type-mapping

Lead4Pass Microsoft Discount code 2021

Lead4pass shares the latest Microsoft exam Discount code “Microsoft“. Enter the Discount code to get a 15% Discount!

About lead4pass

Lead4Pass has 8 years of exam experience! A number of professional Microsoft exam experts! Update exam questions throughout the year! The most complete exam questions and answers! The safest buying experience! The greatest free sharing of exam practice questions and answers!
Our goal is to help more people pass the Microsoft exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important!
In the study, you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
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QUESTION 1
An Alexa Skill Builder is designing skills with an intent that needs six slots to be filled. It is unlikely that a user will
provide all the slot values in a single utterance, so the slot fulfillment should be split up into a multi-turn conversation.
What can the Builder do in the developer console to have Amazon Alexa elicit any missing slots, without specifying each
of the slots in the backend code?
A. Keep track of what slots are filled in session attributes, and in the backend code, prompt the user for the missing slots
using Dialog.ElicitSlot.
B. Mark those six slots are required, fill in the necessary prompts, and in the backend code, use the Dialog. Delegate
directive until all slots are filled.
C. Mark those six slots are required, fill in the necessary prompts, and in the backend code, use the Dialog.ConfirmSlot
directive until all slots are filled
D. Mark those six slots are required, fill in the necessary prompts, and in the backend code, use the Dialog.ElicitSlot
directive until all slots are filled.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/custom-skills/create-the-interaction-model-for-yourskill.html

QUESTION 2
An Alexa Skill Builder is building an order reporting skill. Occasionally, users need to enter 30-digit serial codes. How
can this be accomplished while providing a good voice user interface experience?
A. Manually extend the timeout so that users can input all the numbers.
B. Use multiple requests for smaller segments of the code and store the data in session attributes.
C. Enter single digits one request at a time.
D. Request that users send the number using the Amazon Alexa app
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An Alexa Skill Builder is developing a skill using AWS Lambda. When invoking the skill, Amazon Alexa responds “There
was a problem with the requested skill\\’s response.” The following message is displayed in Amazon CloudWatch Logs
for the Lambda function.lead4pass axs-c01 practice test q3

Which of the following actions will resolve the problem?
A. Define a new intent named Unhandled in the skill interaction model and add an Unhandled intent handler to the
Lambda function.
B. Add an .addErrorHandlers() attribute to the SkillBuilder object and define a function to display detailed information
about the error, then respond verbally to the user.
C. Add an intent handler for the SessionEndedRequest intent to the Lambda function to display detailed information
about the error.
D. Add additional logic to the AMAZON.StopIntent handler in the Lambda function to display detailed information about
the error.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://forums.developer.amazon.com/questions/201658/input-request-reason-error-type-invalidresponse-1.html

QUESTION 4
The namespace value in the header of the incoming directive for an Amazon Alexa smart home skill specifies the:
A. context of the message
B. capability interface of the message
C. endpoint specified in the message
D. control message for the directive
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/device-apis/alexa-errorresponse.html

QUESTION 5
An Alexa Skill Builder did not include a display template in a skill.
When the skill is used with an Amazon Alexa enabled device with a screen, cards used in the skill are:
A. rendered as a gray screen.
B. rendered using the skill icon as the foreground image.
C. rendered using the skill icon as the background image.
D. rendered using BodyTemplate1.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/custom-skills/best-practices-for-skill-card-design.html

QUESTION 6
An Alexa Skill Builder has built a new custom skill backed by an AWS Lambda function. The Lambda function executes
successfully from the Lambda console, however, the Lambda function cannot be successfully invoked in the developer
console or from an Amazon Alexa enabled device. No error messages show in the function\\’s Amazon CloudWatch
Logs. The Builder confirmed the endpoint has the correct ARN.
What is likely causing this issue and how can it be corrected?
A. The Lambda application code has a bug that is causing it to crash. Modify the code to fix the bug, then redeploy the
Lambda function.
B. The ASK SDK was not deployed with the Lambda function. Add the ASK SDK, then redeploy the Lambda function.
C. The ASK trigger for the Lambda function has been restricted to the wrong skill ID. Re-create the trigger with the
correct skill ID.
D. The Lambda role does not have the correct AWS IAM permission. Update the IAM role associated with the Lambda
function.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An Alexa Skill Builder is developing a skill using AWS Lambda. The Builder made some backend code changes, then
tested the skill on an Amazon Echo device. When invoking the skill, Amazon Alexa replies with “There was a problem
with the requested skill\\’s response”.
How can the Builder troubleshoot this problem?
A. Use Amazon CloudWatch to check the most recent execution log and see if an error is present.
B. Use Amazon DynamoDB and export a copy of the log database, then search for error messages.
C. Use the developer console to rebuild the model, then invoke the skill again with the invocation name.
D. Use the developer console to add AMAZON.launch request to the interaction model, rebuild the model, then invoke
the skill again.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/blogs/alexa/post/0d8c5234-3c7a-4b77-9906-b43a5310bde4/5-common-errormessages-for-custom-alexa-skills-and-how-to-troubleshoot-them

QUESTION 8
An Alexa Skill Builder noticed that a large percentage of food ordering skill\\’s customers are not completing their
transactions. The Builder needs to know what portion of the customers are leaving the skill by not responding,
compared to the portion of customers who receive an error.
Which report inside the Analytics section of the developer console will provide this information?
A. Session Type Distribution
B. Unique Customers Per Intent
C. Average Session Per Customer
D. Failed Utterances Per Intent
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/devconsole/measure-skill-usage.html

QUESTION 9
An Alexa Skill Builder wants to name a skill using a company\\’s branded acronym, “NAT Systems.” Which invocation
name is valid?
A. n a t systems
B. n-a-t systems
C. n. a. t. systems
D. NAT Systems
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/custom-skills/choose-the-invocation-name-for-a-customskill.html

QUESTION 10
When testing an Amazon Alexa skill using the Test page in the developer console, the JSON output is null. What is the
MOST likely cause?
A. The AWS Lambda function is encountering an error and is not returning a result.
B. The endpoint ARN has not been configured
C. The ASK has not been granted access to trigger the AWS Lambda function
D. Skill ID verification has been disabled
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Before beginning the development of a skill, an Alexa Skill Builder wants to hear how a statement will be pronounced by
Amazon Alexa in another locale. How should the Builder test the pronunciation of the statement?
A. Use the Alexa Simulator tab in the developer console to interact with the skill using the selected locale.
B. Create a developer account for the specific locale and use a device to interact with the skill.
C. Use Voice and Tone tab in the developer console to play the statement using the selected locale.
D. Use the Manual JSON tab in the developer console to create a sample JSON response
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/devconsole/test-your-skill.html

QUESTION 12
An Alexa Builder is working on a skill for music streaming. When a user says, “Alexa, stop” the skill needs to know
where the user was in the song so that when returning to the skill in a new session, the song can pick up where it left
off. Which section of the following JSON contains the data indicating where the song left off?lead4pass axs-c01 practice test q12

A. session.attributes
B. Context.AudioPlayer
C. session.user
D. context.System.device.supportedInterfaces.AudioPlayer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
An Alexa Skill Builder built a skill with the following interaction model: Which utterance would invoke HelloIntent?lead4pass axs-c01 practice test q13

A. “Alexa, use my first skill to say hello.”
B. “Alexa, ask my first skill to say hello to John.”
C. “Alexa, open my first skill.”
D. “Alexa, say hello to my first skill.”
Correct Answer: D


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QUESTION 1
Your company has just completed a transition to IPv6 and has deployed a website on a server. You were able to
download software on the instance without an issue. This website is deployed using IPv6, but the public is not able to
access it. What should you do to fix this problem?
A. Add an internet gateway for the instance.
B. Add an egress-only internet gateway.
C. Add an inbound rule to your security group that allows inbound traffic on port 80 for ::/0.
D. Add an inbound rule to your security group that allows inbound traffic on port 80 for 0.0.0.0/0.
Correct Answer: C
Your instance can reach the internet if it was able to download sofftware, so an IGW is not needed. 0.0.0.0/0 is for IPv4.

 

QUESTION 2
You can use the ____ command of the AWS Config service CLI to see the compliance state of each of your rules.
A. get-compliance-details-by-resource
B. describe-compliance-by-config-rule
C. get-compliance-details-by-config-rule
D. describe-compliance-by-resource
Correct Answer: B
You can use the describe-compliance-by-config-rule command of the AWS Config CLI to see the compliance state of
each of your rules. For each rule that has a compliance type of NON_COMPLIANT, AWS Config returns the number of
noncompliant resources for the CappedCount parameter.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/evaluate-config_view-compliance.html

 

QUESTION 3
You need to set up an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instance for an application that requires the lowest latency
and the highest packet-per-second network performance. The application will talk to other servers in a peered VPC.
Which two of the following components should be part of the design? (Choose two.)
A. Select an instance with support for single root I/O virtualization.
B. Select an instance that has support for multiple ENAs.
C. Ensure that the instance supports jumbo frames and set 9001 MTU.
D. Select an instance with Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)-optimization.
E. Ensure that proper OS drivers are installed.
Correct Answer: AB
References: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/enhanced-networking.html

 

QUESTION 4
What is the minimum number of subnets for an RDS subnet group?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: D
This allows for high availability and failover in case an RDS instance goes down.

 

QUESTION 5
You need to set up a VPN between AWS VPC and your on-premises network. You create a VPN connection in the
AWS Management Console, download the configuration file and install it on your on-premises router. The tunnel is not
coming up because of firewall restrictions on your router. Which two network traffic options should you allow through the
firewall? (Choose two.)
A. UDP port 500
B. IP protocol 50
C. IP protocol 5
D. TCP port 50
E. TCP port 500
Correct Answer: AB
References: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/vpc/latest/userguide/VPC_VPN.html

 

QUESTION 6
You wish to access all European regions using your Direct Connect connection. How should you accomplish this?
A. Peer VPCs in the different regions and connect DX to one of the regions to communicate with the other.
B. Use a DX Gateway.
C. Find the prefix-list for the other region and add it to your route table.
D. One DX connection will connect you to all regions.
Correct Answer: B
The DX Gateway will allow access to multiple regions.

 

QUESTION 7
You can use the ____ command of the AWS Config service CLI to see the compliance state of each resource that AWS
Config evaluates for a specific rule.
A. describe-compliance-by-resource
B. describe-compliance-by-config-rule
C. get-compliance-details-by-config-rule
D. get-compliance-details-by-resource
Correct Answer: C
You can use the get-compliance-details-by-config-rule command of the AWS Config CLI to see the compliance state of
each resource that AWS Config evaluates for a specific rule. Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/evaluate-config_view-compliance.html

 

QUESTION 8
You need to find the public IP address of an instance that you\\’re logged in to. What command would you use?
A. curl ftp://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/public-ipv4
B. scp localhost/latest/meta-data/public-ipv4
C. curl http://127.0.0.1/latest/meta-data/public-ipv4
D. curl http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/public-ipv4
Correct Answer: D
curl http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/public-ipv4

 

QUESTION 9
Which port range must be allowed through an NACL to ensure all return traffic is successful?
A. 1024 – 65,535
B. 22
C. 65,000 – 65,535
D. 80 – 443
Correct Answer: A
1024 – 65,535 is the full “ephemeral port” range.

 

QUESTION 10
Which of these metrics cannot help detect a DDoS?
A. EC2 CPUUtilization
B. ELB SurgeQueueLength
C. EMR EMRspersecond
D. CloudFront Requests
Correct Answer: C
EMR EMRspersecond doesn\\’t exist.

 

QUESTION 11
You have just configured an Elastic Load Balancer. Assuming all settings are configured properly, how long will it
take an instance to become healthy with a 6-second HealthCheck Interval, an unhealthy threshold of 5, and a healthy
the threshold of 10?
A. 120 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 6 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Correct Answer: D
60 seconds. 10 health check successes with 6-second intervals.

 

QUESTION 12
An organization has multiple applications running in VPCs across multiple AWS accounts. The network engineer has
deployed a central VPC with a pair of software VPN instances that run IPSec tunnels with dynamic routing to VGWs of
all application VPCs. This central VPC is connected to on-premises resources via a Direct Connect connection using a
private VIF.
What additional configuration is required to enable the applications in VPCs to communicate with each other and access
on-premises resources?
A. Configure each application VPC with a static route entry pointing the on-premises CIDR block to the software VPN
instances.
B. Configure the central VPC with a static route entry pointing the on-premises CIDR block to local VGWs.
C. Advertise all application VPC CIDR blocks to on-premises resources via the VGW in the central VPC.
D. Configure IPSec tunnels from the on-premises router into the software VPN instances with dynamic routing.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
An organization with a growing e-commerce presence uses the AWS CloudHSM to offload the SSL/TLS processing of
its web server fleet. The company leverages Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling for web servers to handle the growth. What
the architectural approach is optimal to scale the encryption operation?
A. Use multiple CloudHSM instances, and load balances them using a Network Load Balancer.
B. Use multiple CloudHSM instances to the cluster; request to it will automatically load balance.
C. Enable Auto Scaling on the CloudHSM instance, with a similar configuration to the web tier Auto Scaling group.
D. Use multiple CloudHSM instances, and load balances them using an Application Load Balancer.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. Which two functions are performed by the load balancer when it handles traffic originating from the
Internet destined to an application hosted on the file server farm? (Choose two.)
A. Terminate the TLS over the UDP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected
server.
B. Terminate the TLS over the UDP connection from the router and originate an HTTP connection to the selected
server.
C. Terminate the TLS over the TCP connection from the router and originate an HTTP connection to the selected
server.
D. Terminate the TLS over the TCP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected
server.
E. Terminate the TLS over the SCTP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected
server.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q2 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q2-1 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q2-2

Refer to the exhibit. Which line of code must be added to this code snippet to allow an application to pull the next set of
paginated items?
A. requests.get(url, links=[`next\\’][`url\\’])
B. requests.get(url, headers=links[`next\\’][`url\\’])
C. requests.get(res.links[`next\\’][`url\\’], headers=headers)
D. requests.get(res.headers.get(`Link”)[`next\\’][`url\\’], headers=headers)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. The cURL POST request creates an OAuth access token for authentication with FDM API requests.
What is the purpose of the file “@token_data” that cURL is handling?
A. This file is a container to log possible error responses in the request.
B. This file is given as input to store the access token received from FDM.
C. This file is used to send authentication-related headers.
D. This file contains raw data that is needed for token authentication.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two statements describe the advantages of static code analysis over unit tests? (Choose two.)
A. It checks for potentially tainted data where input is not checked.
B. It enforces proper coding standards and style.
C. It performs a quick analysis of whether tests will pass or fail when run.
D. It checks for race conditions in threaded applications.
E. It estimates the performance of the code when run.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which two data encoding techniques are supported by gRPC? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. JSON
C. ASCII
D. ProtoBuf
E. YAML
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Which statement about microservices architecture is true?
A. Applications are written in a single unit.
B. It is a complex application composed of multiple independent parts.
C. It is often a challenge to scale individual parts.
D. A single faulty service can bring the whole application down.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which HTTP status code indicates that a client application is experiencing intentional rate limiting by the server?
A. 202
B. 401
C. 429
D. 503
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
An application is being built to collect and display telemetry streaming data. Drag and drop the elements of this stack
from the left onto the correct element functions on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q8

QUESTION 9
Which type of file is created from issued intermediate, root, and primary certificates for SSL installation on a server?
A. DER
B. CSR
C. PEM
D. CRT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Click on the GET Resource button above to view resources that will help with this question.

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q10 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q10-1 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q10-2 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q10-3

An engineer is managing a DC with 6000 Cisco UCS servers installed and running. The engineer has been asked to
identify all resources where the model is in the UCSB family and the available memory is less than or equal to 5 GB.
Which REST API call accomplishes this task?
A. GET/api/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=not(Model eq `UCSC\\’) and
AvailableMemory le 5000
B. GET/api/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=Model eq `UCSB\\’ and AvailableMemory lt
5000
C. GET/api/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=contains(Model, UCSB\\’) and
AvailableMemory lt 5000
D. GET/API/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=contains(Model, UCSB\\’) and
AvailableMemory le 5000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q11

Refer to the exhibit. a developer created the code, but it fails to execute. Which code snippet helps to identify the
issue?

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q11-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Into which two areas are AppDynamics APIs categorized? (Choose two.)

A. application-centric
B. analytics-events
C. database-visibility
D. platform-side
E. agent-side
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration of method and parameter retrieves the health of a laptop connected to the
network from Cisco DNA Center?
A. PUT; network-health;
B. GET; client-health;
C. GET; network-device;
D. POST; network-device;
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which configuration tells a switch part to send Cisco Discovery Protocol packets that configure an attached Cisco IP
phone to trust tagged traffic that is received from a device that is connected to the access port on the Cisco IP phone?
A. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend
B. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend
cos 3
C. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend
cos 5
D. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS extend trust
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An engineer with troubleshoots poor voice quality on multiple calls. After looking at packet captures, the engineer
notices high levels of jitter. Which two areas does the engineer check to prevent jitter? (Choose two.)
A. The network meets bandwidth requirements.
B. MTP is enabled on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Border Element.
C. Cisco UBE manages voice traffic, not data traffic.
D. All devices use wired connections instead of wireless connections.
E. Voice packets are classified and marked.
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/voice-quality/20371-troubleshoot-qos-voice.html

QUESTION 3

lead4pass 350-801 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. Given this “debug ISDN q921” output, what is the problem with the PRI?
A. Layer 1 is down on the controller.
B. PRI does not have an IP address configured on the interface.
C. Nothing, the PRI is sending keepalives.
D. Layer 2 is down on the controller.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which transport protocol does the application layer protocol SNMP use?
A. XML
B. UDP
C. SIP
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/simple-network-management-protocol-snmp/

QUESTION 5
What is a valid class included in the 8-Class QoS Strategy in a VoIP network?
A. Assured Forwarding
B. Broadcast Video
C. Multimedia Conferencing
D. Real-Time Interactive
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2756478andseqNum=8

QUESTION 6
A network administrator deleted a user from the LDAP directory of a company. The end-user shows as Inactive LOAP
Synchronized User in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which step is next to remove this user from Cisco
Unified Communications Manager?
A. Delete the user directly from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Restart the Dirsync service after the user is deleted from the LDAP directory.
C. Execute manual sync to refresh the local database and delete the end user.
D. Wait 24 hours for the garbage collector to remove the user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which settings are needed to configure the SIP route pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. pattern usage, IPv6 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list
B. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, IPv6 pattern, and description
C. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list
D. SIP trunk/Route list, description, and IPv4 pattern
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100_chapter_0100111.pdf

QUESTION 8
What is a characteristic of video traffic that governs QoS requirements for video?
A. Video is typically a variable bit rate.
B. Voice and video traffic are different, but they have the same QoS requirements.
C. Video is typically a constant bit rate.
D. Voice and video traffic are the same, so they have the same QoS requirements.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/cac.html

QUESTION 9
An engineer must extend the corporate phone system to mobile users connecting through the internet with their own
devices. One requirement is to keep that as simple as possible for end-users. Which infrastructure element achieves
these goals?
A. Cisco Express Mobility
B. Cisco Expressway-C and Expressway-E
C. Cisco Unified Border Element
D. Cisco Unified Instant Messaging and Presence
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Why would we not include an end user\\’s PC device in a QoS trust boundary?
A. The end-user could incorrectly tag their traffic to bypass firewalls.
B. The end-user may incorrectly tag their traffic to be prioritized over other network traffic.
C. There is no reason not to include an end user\\’s PC device in a QoS trust boundary.
D. The end-user could incorrectly tag their traffic to advertise their PC as a default gateway.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is
necessary in the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?
A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which command in the MGCP gateway configuration defines the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
server?
A. mgcapp
B. ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
C. mgcp call-agent
D. ccm-manager redundant-host
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A customer is deploying a SIP IOS gateway for a customer who requires that in-band DTMF relay is the first priority and out-of-band DTMF relay is second priority.
Which IOS entry sets the required priority?
A. dtmf-relay rtp-nte sip-notify
B. dtmf-relay cisco-rtp
C. sip-notify dtmf-relay rtp-nte
D. dtmf-relay sip-kpml cisco-rtp
Correct Answer: A

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[2020.6] 3V0-624 exam practice questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1

A company has requested that vSphere Virtual Machine Encryption be included in a vSphere 6.5 deployment design to
meet the security requirements specified by its compliance team.
Which three design considerations would apply in this case? (Choose three.)
A. RDM virtual machine disk configurations are NOT supported.
B. Suspend/resume operations for an encrypted virtual machine are NOT supported.
C. OVF Export is NOT supported for an encrypted virtual machine.
D. Encryption performance is independent of CPU and storage speed.
E. The cloning of the encrypted virtual machines is NOT supported.

Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 2

A company is a leading provider for an online travel booking system with over a $1,000,000 turnover each day. The company warns to leverage VMware cloud solutions to consolidate, scale, and ensure high availability for all of its data
centers.
Match each business requirement to its appropriate design concept.
Select and Place:

itexamcourses 3v0-624 q2

Correct Answer:

itexamcourses 3v0-624 q2-1

QUESTION 3

A company has requested assistance with a new cross-site failover design between two sites which will support
business-critical applications. The latency between the sites is less than 5ms round-trip. The company requires:
1. the application must be restarted quickly in the event of a total site failure
2. allow for planned migration during maintenance
3. applications must be kept online even when migrated due to planned maintenance
Drag each statement to its correct concept
Select and Place:

itexamcourses 3v0-624 q3

QUESTION 4

You have been tasked with creating a vSphere 6.5 data center design for an organization. The organization is
evaluating various design options and their impact on the design. For each design option, determine the design
characteristic that
would be affected by utilizing the option.
Match each Design Option on the left to the Characteristic on the right by dragging the red button (O1-O5) over the text
of the appropriate Characteristic.
NOTE: Design Options can be mapped to more than one Characteristic or none at all.
Select and Place:

itexamcourses 3v0-624 q4

QUESTION 5

A customer has an enterprise data center and wants to deploy two physical hosts with internal disks at each Remote
Office/Branch Office location.
1.
The customer does NOT want to use any external storage arrays.
2.
There is an existing enterprise SAN and vSphere infrastructure in the centralized data center. Which VMware
technology will fulfill this requirement?
A. vSAN with two physical hosts and nested witness node placed in the central management location
B. Virtual Volumes running on a supported SAN
C. VMware Storage Appliance with three physical servers
D. vSAN with two physical hosts and nested witness node on top of them

Correct Answer: A

(if 1 host fails then it will lose witness as well)
VMware vSAN and VMware Cloud on AWS VMware vSAN aggregate disks that are locally attached to vSphere hosts
into a robust, resilient virtual SAN. Workloads placed on the vSAN benefit from per-VM flexible storage policies including
failures-to-tolerate, space reservation, disk striping, and more.
vSAN redundancy is normally achieved via the deployment of three or more physical ESXi servers. Each object stored on
vSAN will have a minimum of two data components mirrored across two of the hosts, plus a witness component located
on the third host.
There are circumstances in which it may be desirable to deploy the vSphere hosts containing VM data in one data
center and to maintain a dedicated witness host in an offsite location. This can apply in a vSAN stretched cluster
scenario or in a two-node vSAN cluster. Caveats for each of these can be found in the hyperlinks.

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[2020.6] 5V0-32.19 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1

What is the minimum Recovery Point Objective (RPO) available for vCloud Availability for Cloud-to-Cloud?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vCloud-Availability-for-Cloud-to-Cloud-DR/1.5/vcav-c2c-usersguide.pdf

QUESTION 2

Which two vSphere network resources are directly consumed by vCloud Director Network Pools? (Choose two.)
A. virtual distributed switch
B. subnet
C. port group
D. VLAN IDs
E. standard virtual switch

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3

A Provider administrator deploys VMware vCloud Usage Meter and attempts to add a vCenter instance for metering
purposes. This error is generated: There was a problem checking the certificate for vcenter.corp.local:443. Unable to
connect with vcenter.corp.local on port 443: Connection timed out. What is the probable cause of this issue?
A. A firewall is blocking traffic from the vCloud Usage Meter to vcenter.corp.local.
B. vCloud Usage Meter needs reconfiguring to port 7444 for proper vCenter communication.
C. vCloud Usage Meter is not configured with an SMTP server.
D. The Site ID field is unpopulated on the Service Provider Information tab.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

A customer is planning to migrate VMs from the on-premises data center to the organization virtual data center in
VMware vCloud Director. Due to the size and number of VMs to be migrated, the customer is unable to migrate all of the
VMs in
the same migration window. Some of the migration targets are required to maintain IP addresses and the same broadcast
domain to on-premises VMs during the migration.
Which Virtual Private Networking service will meet the customer needs?
A. Third-party VPN service
B. IPSEC VPN
C. SSL VPN-Plus
D. L2 VPN

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

Which vSphere capability assigns storage to VMware vCloud Director?
A. storage profiles
B. datastores
C. network file system
D. Fibre Channel SAN

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/vsphere/2013/02/using-storage-profiles-with-vcloud-director-2.html

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[2020.6] 5V0-33.19 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1

A customer has a VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC and an on-premises vSphere 5.5 environments. The customer wants to
be able to migrate its virtual machines to VMware Cloud on AWS without changing IP addresses and allow the virtual
machines in VMware Cloud on AWS to connect back to the on-premises datacenter.
Which technology should they use to accomplish this?
A. vSphere Replication
B. VMware Site Recovery
C. Layer 2 VPN Tunnels
D. HCX

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/vmware/faqs/

QUESTION 2

Which virtual machine properties are supported for HCX vMotion migrations?
A. Attached ISO images
B. Passthrough devices
C. VMDKs less than 2TB
D. Physical RDMs

Correct Answer: A

Attached virtual media or ISOs.
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-HCX/services/hcx-user-guide.pdf

QUESTION 3

At which point is a readiness assessment recommended?
A. After the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC is deployed.
B. During the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC deployment.
C. Before the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC is deployed.
D. Once the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC is already configured.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.presidio.com/file?id=1319

QUESTION 4

VMware Cloud on AWS includes which two of the listed NSX-T networking constructs? (Choose two.)
A. Tier2 Router
B. Tier1 Router
C. Tier0 Router
D. Edge Services Gateway
E. Distributed Logical Router

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5

What are the two constructs within the managed services platform (MSP) for partners? (Choose two.)
A. Tenant Organization
B. Master Organization
C. Partner Organization
D. Global Organization
E. Provider Organization

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/cloudprovider/2018/03/boarding-vmware-cloud-aws-vcpp-partners.html

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VMware vRealize Operations 7.5:https://www.vmware.com/education-services/certification/vrops-2019-exam.html

[2020.6] 5V0-34.19 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1

Performance optimization moves virtual compute resources and file systems dynamically across datastore clusters
within which space?
A. data centers
B. resource pools
C. networks
D. vCenters

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-OperationsManager/8.0/com.vmware.vcom.core.doc/GUID-9B27A50B-97AD-4B89-89D3-7BB515BD7394.html

QUESTION 2

itexamcourses 5v0-34.19 q2

Based on the highlighted HIPPA compliance template above, how many hosts are in a compliant state?
A. 5
B. 24
C. 29
D. 31

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Where in vRealize Operations is the number of additional VMs that can fit into a data center displayed?
A. datacenter Capacity Allocation Overview dashboard
B. datacenter object Environment tab
C. datacenter object Capacity tab
D. Cluster Utilization dashboard

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

When starting a dashboard from the Manage Dashboards page, to what can a dashboard be directly assigned?
A. Groups
B. Embed
C. URL
D. Email

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which capacity setting should be enabled to avoid overcommitting resources in a vSphere cluster?
A. Demand Model
B. Operational Intent
C. Conservative Risk Level
D. Allocation Model

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/management/2019/05/allocation-model-for-capacity-management-in-vrealizeoperations-7-5.html

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Latest updates Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)
A. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.
C. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)
A. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the
link.
B. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.
C. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.
D. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.
E. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 3lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
A. 10.10.1.10
B. 10.10.10.20
C. 172.16.15.10
D. 192.168.0.1
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose
two.)
A. input errors
B. frame
C. giants
D. CRC
E. runts
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROPlead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5-2

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites.
Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach
one another? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.
B. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.
C. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.
D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.
E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 7
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down.
B. After spanning tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.
C. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.
D. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
A. Configure VTY access.
B. Configure the version of SSH.
C. Assign a DNS domain name.
D. Create a user with a password.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
A. allocation nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
B. disabling TCP so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices
C. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps
D. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)
A. one-to-many communication model
B. one-to-nearest communication model
C. any-to-many communication model
D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
E. the same address for multiple devices in the group
F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
Correct Answer: BEF
A new address type made specifically for IPv6 is called the Anycast Address. These IPv6 addresses are global
addresses, these addresses can be assigned to more than one interface unlike an IPv6 unicast address. Anycast is
designed to send a packet to the nearest interface that is a part of that anycast group. The sender creates a packet and
forwards the packet to the anycast address as the destination address which goes to the nearest router. The nearest
router or interface is found by using the metric of a routing protocol currently running on the network. However in a LAN
setting the nearest interface is found depending on the order the neighbors were learned. The anycast packet in a LAN
setting forwards the packet to the neighbor it learned about first.

 

QUESTION 11
Which IPv6 address type communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
A. link-local
B. unique local
C. multicast D. global unicast
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?
A. TTL
B. MAC address forwarding
C. Collision avoidance
D. Port blocking
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
A. enable secret
B. enable password
C. service password-encryption
D. username cisco password encrypt
Correct Answer: C

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This exam tests whether a network security engineer knows the components and architecture of secure access, by utilizing 802.1X and Cisco TrustSec.

This exam assesses knowledge of Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) architecture, solution, and components as an overall network threat mitigation and endpoint control solution. It also includes the fundamental concepts of bringing your own device (BYOD)
using posture and profiling services of ISE.

Latest updates Cisco 300-208 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

Which method does Cisco prefer to securely deploy guest wireless access in a BYOD implementation? 

A. deploying a dedicated Wireless LAN Controller in a DMZ 

B. configuring a guest SSID with WPA2 Enterprise authentication 

C. configuring guest wireless users to obtain DHCP centrally from the corporate DHCP server 

D. disabling guest SSID broadcasting 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 2

Which condition triggers wireless authentication? 

A. NAS-Port-Type is set to IEEE 802.11. 

B. Framed-Compression is set to None. 

C. Service-Type is set to Framed. 

D. Tunnel-Type is set to VLAN. 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 3

The NAC Agent uses which port and protocol to send discovery packets to an ISE Policy Service Node? 

A. tcp/8905 

B. udp/8905 

C. http/80 

D. https/443 

Correct Answer: A 

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/20/installation_guide/b_ise_InstallationGuide20/Cisco_SNS_3400_Series_Appliance_Ports_Reference.html 

QUESTION 4

A network engineer is configuring HTTP based CWA on a switch. Which three configuration elements are required?

(Choose three.) 

A. HTTP server enabled 

B. Radius authentication on the port with MAB 

C. Redirect access-list 

D. Redirect-URL 

E. HTTP secure server enabled 

F. Radius authentication on the port with 802.1x 

G. Pre-auth port based access-list 

Correct Answer: ABC 

QUESTION 5

Which action is a Cisco recommended practice while attempting to increase efficiency on the monitoring nodes? 

A. Back up data and transfer to a remote repository on regular basis 

B. Remove endpoints when not active. 

C. Re-index the data on a regular basis. 

D. Compress the data regularly 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 6

Under which circumstance would an inline posture node be deployed? 

A. When the NAD does not support CoA 

B. When the NAD cannot support the number of connected endpoints 

C. When a PSN is overloaded 

D. To provide redundancy for a PSN 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 7

Drag and drop each guest user login screen from the left onto the correct description on the right. 

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8
A security engineer must create an Antivirus remediation policy within Cisco ISE. Which two options can the engineer
select in the new Antivirus remediation policy? (Choose two.)
A. program installation path
B. Antivirus vendor name
C. uniform resource locator
D. file to upload
E. operating system
Correct Answer: BE
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_pos_pol.html#wp1655749

QUESTION 9
Which three algorithms should be avoided due to security concerns? (Choose three.)
A. DES for encryption
B. SHA-1 for hashing
C. 1024-bit RSA
D. AES GCM mode for encryption
E. HMAC-SHA-1
F. 256-bit Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman
G. 2048-bit Diffie-Hellman
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
Which two options must be used on Cisco ISE to enable the TACACS+ feature? (Choose two.)
A. TACACS External Servers
B. TACACS+ Authentication Settings
C. TACACS Server Sequence
D. Enable Device Admin Service
E. TACACS Command Sets
F. TACACS Profiles
G. Device Administration License
Correct Answer: DG

QUESTION 11
What is the function of the SGACL policy matrix on a Cisco TrustSec domain with SGT Assignment?
A. It determines which access policy to apply to the endpoint.
B. It determines which switches are trusted within the TrustSec domain.
C. It determines the path the SGT of the packet takes when entering the Cisco TrustSec domain.
D. It lists all servers that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain.
E. It lists all hosts that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which identity store option allows you to modify the directory services that run on TCP/IP?
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
B. RSA SecurID server
C. RADIUS
D. Active Directory
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two answers are potential results of an attacker that is performing a DHCP server spoofing attack? (Choose
two.)
A. ability to selectively change DHCP options fields of the current DHCP server, such as the giaddr field.
B. DoS
C. excessive number of DHCP discovery requests
D. ARP cache poisoning on the router
E. client unable to access network resources
Correct Answer: BE

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Cisco 200-105 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

Latest Cisco 200-105 google drive

[PDF] Free Cisco 200-105 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=12i4PQcOM_wViErLantss1O0KK0B4_1L3

200-105 ICND2 – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/200-105-icnd2.html

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

Last date to test: February 23, 2020
The 200-105 ICND2 exam will be retired on February 23, 2020.

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200-301 CCNA – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccna-200-301.html

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Latest updates Cisco 200-105 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
In an HSRP failover environment, which two tasks must you perform on the preferred active router so that it always
assumes the active role when it comes up? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the router with a higher priority than the other routers in the group
B. Configure the router with a higher MAC address than the other routers in the group
C. Configure preemption on the router
D. Configure the router with a higher IP address than the other routers in the group
E. Configure tracking on the router
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Two EIGRP routers have failed to establish a neighbor relationship. Drag and drop the configuration parameters from
the left onto the categories on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-105 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-105 exam question q2-1

QUESTION 3
Which three effects of using local SPAN are true? (Choose three.)
A. It doubles the load on the forwarding engine.
B. It prevents SPAN destinations from using port security.
C. It doubles internal switch traffic.
D. It reduces the supervisor engine workload by half.
E. it reduces the load on the switch fabric.
Correct Answer: ABC
To avoid disrupting traffic, do not oversubscribe any of these points in your SPAN topology. Some oversubscription and
performance considerations are: ?SPAN doubles traffic internally ?SPAN adds to the traffic being processed by the
switch fabric ?SPAN doubles forwarding engine load
Because SPAN destination ports drop ingress traffic, these features are incompatible with SPAN destination ports:
?Private VLANs ?IEEE 802.1X port-based authentication ?Port security
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/7600/ios/12-2SXF/configuration/guide/swcg/span.pdf

QUESTION 4
What are the two default metrics used by EIGRP for route selection? (Choose two.)
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Reliability
D. Load
E. MTU
Correct Answer: AB
EIGRP adds together weighted values of different network link characteristics in order to calculate a metric for
evaluating path selection.
These characteristics include:
Delay (measured in 10s of microseconds)
Bandwidth (measured in kilobytes per second)
Reliability (in numbers ranging from 1 to 255; 255 being the most reliable) Load (in numbers ranging from 1 to 255; 255
being saturated) Various constants (K 1 through K 5) are able to be set by a user to produce varying routing behaviors.
However, by default, only delay and bandwidth are used in the weighted formula to produce a single 32bit metric:lead4pass 200-105 exam question q4

Note: Default K values are: K1 = K3 = 1 and K2 = K4 = K5 = 0. When K5 is equal to 0 then [K5/( K4 + reliability)] is
defined to be 1 Use of the default constants effectively reduces the formula above to:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocol-eigrp/whitepaper_C11-720525.html

QUESTION 5
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as \\’active\\’ in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Correct Answer: AD
Introduction to EIGRP Feasible Successors A destination entry is moved from the topology table to the routing table
when there is a feasible successor. All minimum cost paths to the destination form a set. From this set, the neighbors
that have an advertised metric less than the current routing table metric are considered feasible successors. Feasible
successors are viewed by a router as neighbors that are downstream with respect to the destination. These neighbors
and the associated metrics are placed in the forwarding table. When a neighbor changes the metric it has been
advertising or a topology change occurs in the network, the set of feasible successors may have to be reevaluated.
However, this is not categorized as a route recomputation.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f07.shtml

QUESTION 6
When are packets processed by an inbound access list?
A. before they are routed to an outbound interface
B. after they are routed to an outbound interface
C. before and after they are routed to an outbound interface
D. after they are routed to an outbound interface but before being placed in the outbound queue
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a forwarding state?
A. BPDU guard
B. PortFast
C. loop guard
D. UDLD
E. UplinkFast
Correct Answer: B
PortFast causes a switch or trunk port to enter the spanning tree forwarding state immediately, bypassing the listening
and learning states. You can use PortFast on switch or trunk ports that are connected to a single workstation, switch, or
server to allow those devices to connect to the network immediately, instead of waiting for the port to transition from the
listening and learning states to the forwarding state.

QUESTION 8
What\\’s DTP\\’s default in a switch?
A. ON
B. OFF
C. Dynamic Desirable
D. Dynamic Auto
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two characteristics of extended access lists are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can compare source traffic only against a permit or deny statement
B. They must be identified with a number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
C. They can be identified only with a number between 100 and 199
D. They can be configured to filter only UDP or TCP traffic
E. They can compare source and destination traffic against a permit or deny statement
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 10
Which two features are supported only in named access lists? (Choose two.)
A. identifying QoS traffic for marking
B. filtering traffic on VTY lines
C. limiting debug output
D. noncontiguous port filtering
E. deleting entries
Correct Answer: DE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_data_acl/configuration/xe-3s/sec-data-acl-xe-3s-book/sec-acl-named.pdf

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3.
What is the TTL value for that ping?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q11

A. 252
B. 253
C. 254
D. 255
Correct Answer: B
From the CCNA ICND2 Exam book: “Routers decrement the TTL by 1 every time they forward a packet; if a router
decrements the TTL to 0, it throws away the packet. This prevents packets from rotating forever.” I want to make it clear
that before the router forwards a packet, the TTL is still remain the same. For example, in the topology above, pings to
S0/1 and S0/0 of Router 2 have the same TTL. The picture below shows TTL values for each interface of each router
and for HostB. Notice that Host A initializes ICMP packet with a TTL of 255:

lead4pass 200-105 exam question q11-1

QUESTION 12
Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
A. It reduces the need for a backup data center.
B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
D. It eliminates the need for a GSS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and
issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted.
Which set of commands will accomplish this task?
A. service password-encryption access-list permit 192.168.1.0.0.0.0.255 line vty0 4 login password cisco access-class
1
B. enable password secret line vty0 login password cisco
C. service password-encryption line vty0 login password cisco
D. service password-encryption line vty0 4 login password cisco
Correct Answer: C

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