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  • Latest Microsoft Azure AZ-201 exam dumps, AZ-201 exam Practice Test | 100% Free

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Free test Microsoft Azure AZ-201 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You develop software solutions for a web services company. You have the following code. (Line numbers are for
reference only.)
You need to implement an immediate response customer support solution for the company\\’s website. For each of
thefollowing statements, select Yesif the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass az-201 exam question q1Correct Answer: lead4pass az-201 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
You need to add code at line EG15 in EventGridControHer.es to ensure that the Log policy applies to all services.
Allow should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each
code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass az-201 exam question q2Correct Answer: lead4pass az-201 exam question q2-1

 

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You need to tool code at line LE03 of Login Event to ensure that all authentication events are processed correctly. How
should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass az-201 exam question q3 lead4pass az-201 exam question q3-1

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You have an application that provides weather forecasting data to external partners. You use Azure API Management to
publish APIs.
You must change the behavior of the API to meet the following requirements:
Support alternative inputparameters.
Remove formatting text from responses.
Provide additional context to back-end services.
Which types of polices should you implement? To answer, drag the policy types to the correct scenarios. Each policy
type maybe used once, more than once, or not at all. Youmayneed to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
Select and Place:lead4pass az-201 exam question q4Correct Answer: lead4pass az-201 exam question q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
Note:Thisquestionispartof aseriesofquestionsthatpresentthesamescenario.Eachquestionin the series contains a unique
solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others
might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You use ASP.NET Core MVC with ADO.NET to develop an application. You implement database sharding for the
application by using Azure SQL Database. You establish communication links between the sharddatabases.
Youneed to implement a strategy that allows a group of operations that are performed on multiple Azure databases to
be rolled back on all databases if any of the operations fail.
Solution:
In the .NET method, define a new transaction in a using block.
Within the using block, establish connections to each Azure SQL Database instance.
Run the SQL operations on each connection. If no exception occurs, commit the transaction.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
A company has an app that records and processes videos. New videos are recorded daily. The videos are displayed on
the companywebsite the dayafter theyare recorded. The companyruns several servers that process data andencode
the
videos. The processing servers use FFmpeg and proprietary software to encode and convert the videos.
The company plans to migrate the app to Azure. Azure Batch must be used to process videos. Each task must run a
command and output the result to a file on a destination storage account.
You create and assign values to the following variables:lead4pass az-201 exam question q6YouarereviewingcodetocreatetasksinAzureBatch.(Linenumbersareincludedforreferenceonly.) lead4pass az-201 exam question q6-1For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true.
Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass az-201 exam question q6-2Correct Answer: lead4pass az-201 exam question q6-3

 

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You need to secure the access to the Delivery API.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass az-201 exam question q7Correct Answer: lead4pass az-201 exam question q7-1

QUESTION 8
Member of the finance department for a company review and make changes to a Microsoft Excel workbook that is
hosted on OneDrive. The workbook contains projected costs and revenue for a project.
You need to develop an Azure Function that ingests data from the modified workbook and place it into a Microsoft Word
document.
Which two objects should you implement? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. An auth token input binding
B. A group subscription
C. An Excel table output binding
D. A group conversationsubscription
E. An Excel table input binding
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
Note:this question is partof a series of questionsthat presentthe samescenario. Each questionin the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You use ASP.NET Core MVC with ADO.NET to develop an application. You implement database sharding for the
application by using Azure SQL Database. You establish communication to implement a strategy that allows a group of
operations that are performed on multiple Azure
databases to be rolled back on all database if any of the operations fail.
Solution
Create stored procedures in each Azure SQL database instance to perform operations for each respective database.
Invoke anamedtransaction and usethe same namefor thetransactionin each stored procedure.
Establish a new transaction scope in a using block. Within the block, establish connections to each Azure SQL
Database instance and run the stored procedure.
If no exception occurs, commit the scoped transaction.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Note:Thisquestionispartof aseriesofquestionsthatpresentthesamescenario.Eachquestionin the series contains a unique
solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others
might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Margie\\’s Travel is an international travel and bookings management service. The company is expanding into
restaurant bookings. You are tasked with implementing Azure Search for the restaurants listed in their solution.
You create the index in Azure Search.
You need to import the restaurant data into the Azure Search service by using the Azure Search .NET SDK.
Solution:
1.
Create a SearchlndexClient object to connect to the search index.
2.
Create a DataContainer that contains the documents which must be added.
3.
Create a DataSource instance and set its Container property to the DataContainer.
4.
Call the Documents.Suggest method of the SearchlndexClient and pass the DataSource. Does the solution meet the
goal?
A. No
B. Yes
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
Note:Thisquestionispartof aseriesofquestionsthatpresentthesamescenario. Eachquestionin the seriescontainsa unique
solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement
Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a cloud based email service.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
A construction company creates three-dimensional models from photographs and design diagrams of buildings. The
company plans to store high-resolution photographs and blueprint files in Azure Blob Storage. The files are currently
stored
in the construction company\\’s office.
You are developing a tool to connect to Azure Storage,create containers,and then upload the files.
The tool must remain responsive to the end user while it is running and performing remote I/O operations. It must also
wait for methods to complete before continuing.
You need to complete the configuration.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct solution is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-201 exam question q12

Correct Answer: lead4pass az-201 exam question q12-1 lead4pass az-201 exam question q12-2

 

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
Youare developing a solution that requires serverless code execution in Azure.
The solution has two functions that must run in a specific order.
You need to ensure that the second function can use the output from the first function,
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area,
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass az-201 exam question q13Correct Answer: lead4pass az-201 exam question q13-1

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The latest Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 exam dumps and exercises test questions and answers,These free exercises will help you improve 400-201 CCIE Service Provider test skills, We share 400-201 pdf for free to download and learn, and you can also watch 400-201 YouTube videos online! We share 40 real effective exam questions and answers for free if you want to get the full 400-201 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-201.html (Total questions:711 Q&A)->> updated throughout the year!Make sure you pass the exam easily!

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Latest effective Cisco 400-201 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which protocol provides fast link failure detection for all type of encapsulation?
A. Prefix Independent Convergence
B. Carrier delay
C. Non stop forwarding
D. Bidirectional forwarding detection
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which three counters from a show interface output indicate that data packets were dropped on that interface? (Choose
three.)
A. pause input
B. collisions
C. lost carrier
D. frame
E. runts
F. input error
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 3lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q3Refer to the exhibit Which PW type is negotiated?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5
F. Type 6
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 4
A network engineer observes increasing output drops on the serial interface. Which two solutions can be implemented
to minimize these drops? (Choose two.)
A. Increase the MTU size on the link.
B. Replace the serial cable between the connecting devices.
C. Turn on fast switching.
D. Increase the output hold queue size.
E. Implement priority queuing on slower serial links by configuring priority lists.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 5
Which two statements best describe the functionality of the BGP graceful restart capability? (Choose two.)
A. The peer router sends an end-of RIB message to the restarting router.
B. The peer router immediately removes the BGP routes that it learned from the restarting router from its BGP routing
table.
C. The restarting router does not remove any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires.
D. The router establishes BGP sessions with other routers and relearns the BGP routes from other routers that are also
capable of graceful restart. The restarting router waits to receive updates from the neighboring routers. When the
neighboring routers send end-of- RIB messages to indicate that they are done sending updates, the restarting router
starts sending its own updates.
E. The restarting router removes any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 6
The SP core supports PIM-SM for multicast traffic, but one of these routers is not able to see one of its PIM neighbors.
What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The router is an RP with high priority.
B. IGMP snooping is not enabled.
C. PIM sparse mode is not enabled on a participating multicast interface.
D. PIM protocols are not enabled in global configuration mode.
E. Auto-RP is not enabled on this network.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Which two statements about spanning tree path cost are true? (Choose two.)
A. The path cost can be changed for an interface using the spanning-tree cost command.
B. The path cost can be changed for an interface using the stp path-cost command.
C. The STP default path cost depends on the interface speed.
D. The STP default path cost is similar for all interface.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 8
Which BGP feature protects the external BGP peering session from CPU utilization-based attacks that use forged IP
packets?
A. BGP multihop
B. TTL security check
C. BGP FlowSpec
D. Secure BGP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
On Cisco IOS devices, which IS-IS feature reduces the convergence time for prefixes designated as high priority?
A. iSPF
B. advertise passive only
C. prefix prioritization
D. Fast-Forwarding
E. Route tagging
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 10lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q10Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has a requirement to enable MPLS TE tunnels on the network to be L3VPN
customers. Which MPLS TE feature allow the network engineer to configure MPLS TE LSPs by using a few CLI
commands?
A. AutoTunnel Mesh Groups on all P and PE routers
B. AutoTunnel Primary and Backup on all PE routers
C. AutoTunnel Primary and Backup on all P and PE routers
D. AutoTunnel Mesh Groups on all PE routers
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which type of IPv6 address does OSPFv3 use to communicate with OSPFv3 neighbors?
A. link-local
B. site-local
C. global
D. unique local
E. anycast
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q12Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct?
A. If the labeled packet arrives with the bottom label of 27, the label is replaced with label 38 and the packet is sent out
on the Gigabitethernet 0/0
B. If the labeled packet arrives with the bottom label of 27, all of the labels are replaced with label 38 and the packet is
sent out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface
C. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 27,the label is replaced with the label 38 and the packet is sent
out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface
D. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 27, all of the labels are replaced with label 38 and the packet is
sent out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface.
E. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 38,the label is replaced with label 27 and the packet is sent out
on the GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface
F. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 38, all labels are replaced with the label 27 and the packet is
sent out on the GogabitEthernet 0/0/ interface.
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 13
Which three are optional extensions of the Frame Relay Local Management Interface specification? (Choose three) A.
Switched virtual circuit
B. Virtual circuit status
C. Simple flow control
D. Multicasting
E. Permanent virtual circuit
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation: Optional LMI Extensions:
The LMI specification also defines several optional extensions:
*
Global addressing convention
*
Multicast capability
*
A simple flow control mechanism
*
Ability for the network to communicate a PVC\\’s CIR to the subscriber in a Status message
*
A new message type that allows the network to announce PVC status changes without prompting from the subscriber
Implementors may build any, all, or none of these features into their networks.


QUESTION 14
During the modem boot process, how does the modem acquire the downstream channel?
A. The modem is commanded by the CMTS to set to the specific channel.
B. The modem uses the default value in the broadcom chipset.
C. The modem tuner sets a level as defined by the DOCSIS specification.
D. The modem tuner scans the downstream spectrum until digital QAM modulated signal is encountered
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 15
Which two features prevent routing loops between the OSPF sites of a customer when the sites are multihomed or a
backdoor link is used between the sites? (Choose two.)
A. sham link
B. down bit
C. virtual link
D. Site of Origin
E. domain tag
Correct Answer: BE
If a route sent from a PE router to a CE router could then be received by another PE router from one of its own CE
router, there are chances of routing loops. This situation is possible when a “backdoor link” connects two CE routers
connected to two different PE routers. To prevent this, the PE sets the DN bit in any LSA that it sends to the CE router.
If the PE router receives any LSA with DN bit set, it ignores the LSA.
1) DN bit:
When a PE router sends a Type-3 LSA to a CE router, the DN bit in LSA Options field must be set. Now if the CE router
sends the Type-3 LSA to other PE router(s), the PE router will not redistribute it further.
When a PE router needs to distribute a route to a CE router which comes from the outside of CE router\\’s OSPF
domain, the PE router presents itself as an ASBR and distributes the route in Type-5 LSA. The DN bit must be set in the
LSA.
The Options field is present in all LSAs. The Options field is 1-byte long as follows- DN O DC EA N/P MC E MT
2) Route Tags (Domain Tags):
In some implementations (where DN bit is not set), Domain Tags (named by Cisco) are used to ensure Type-5
LSAs generated by a PE router will be ignored by other PE routers that may receive it. The value of Domain tag is
configurable and arbitrary if not set. Hence must be distinct from other OSPF tags


QUESTION 16
In the context of GMPLS, LMP stands for:
A. Load Management Protocol
B. Label Management Protocol
C. Loop Management Protocol
D. Link Management Protocol
Correct Answer: D
The Generalized Multi-Protocol Label Switching (GMPLS)[1] is a protocol suite extending MPLS to manage further
classes of interfaces and switching technologies other than packet interfaces and switching, such as time division
multiplex,
layer-2 switch, wavelength switch and fiber-switch.
GMPLS is composed of three main protocols:
Resource Reservation Protocol with Traffic Engineering extensions (RSVP-TE) signaling protocol.[5][6]Open Shortest
Path First with Traffic Engineering extensions (OSPF-TE) routing protocol.[7][8] Link Management Protocol (LMP).[9]


QUESTION 17
IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS
domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6
multicast traffic only to those ports that want to receive it?
A. IGMP snooping
B. MLD snooping
C. MLD querier
D. IGMP version 3 E. MLD version 2
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
Which SONET protocol layer is in charge of clock synchronization and timing issues?
A. Photonic
B. Section
C. Path
D. Line
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Which option propagates SRLG membership information to the network?
A. BGP attribute
B. IGP extension
C. RSVP extension
D. LDP extension
E. PIM extension
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 20
A service provider is using point-to-multipoint TE to forward MPLS traffic from one source to multiple destinations, what
is a restriction of using this method?
A. Destinations must be manually added and removed on the TE tail-end router
B. Multicast traffic must be implemented using PIM sparse mode
C. Point-to-multipoint TE does not support policy-based routing
D. Only node protection is supported on point-to-multipoint TE LSPs
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q21Inbound Infrastructure ACLs are configured to protect the SP network. Which three types of traffic should be filtered in
the infrastructure ACLs? (Choose three.)
A. traffic from a source with an IP address that is within 239.255.0.0/16
B. FTP traffic destined for internal routers
C. IPsec traffic that at an internal router
D. traffic from a source with an IP address that is within 162.238.0.0/16
E. EBGP traffic that peers with edge routers
Correct Answer: ABD
With the use of the protocols and addresses identified, the infrastructure ACL can be built to permit the protocols and
protect the addresses. In addition to direct protection, the ACL also provides a first line of defense against certain types
of invalid traffic on the Internet:
-RFC 1918 space must be denied. (RFC1918 describes a set of network ranges set aside for so-called “private” use.)
-Packets with a source address that fall under special-use address space, as defined in RFC 3330, must be denied.
-Anti-spoof filters must be applied. (Your address space must never be the source of packets from outside your AS.)


QUESTION 22
The layer 2 protocol used by POS technology offers a standardized way for mapping IP packets into SONET/ SDH
payloads. Select the correct sequence of POS operation:
1) Data is scrambled and synchronous mapping takes place by octet into the SONET/SDH frame.
2) Encapsulated via Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) takes place framing information is added with High-level
Data Link Control (HDLC).
3) Gaps between frames are filled with flags, set to value 7E.
4) Octet stuffing occurs if any flags or resultant escape characters (of value 7D) are found in the data.
5) Data is segmented into an IP datagram with its 20-byte IP header.
A. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
C. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
D. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Correct Answer: D
The proper order of operation of PoS is:
When transmitting:
IP -> PPP -> FCS generation -> Byte stuffing -> Scrambling -> SONET/SDH framing When receiving:
SONET/SDH framing -> Descrambling -> Byte destuffing -> FCS detection -> PPP -> IP Remote


QUESTION 23
Which descriptions of Netflow is correct? (Choose three.)
A. By default,Netflow records bidirectional IP traffic flow.
B. Netflow answers questions regarding IP traffiC. who, what, where, when, and how
C. Netflow accounts for both transit traffic and traffic destined for the router.
D. Netflow returns the subinterface information in the flow records.
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 24
Which option describes a benefits of IPv6 VPN Provider Edge?
A. Provider support for intra-AS and CSC scenarios
B. Uses separate signaling plane, which provides more security than IPv4
C. BGP is the preferred routing protocol for connecting two SPs.
D. No requirement for a separate signaling plane
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 25
Which of the following descriptions about IP spoofing is correct?
A. IP destination address is forged
B. IP source address is forged
C. IP TCP destination port is forged
D. None of above
E. IP TCP source port is forged
Correct Answer: B
1.13. Security in core


QUESTION 26
Which option is the SONET frame format of the STM-4 SDH circuit?
A. STS-1
B. STS-192
C. STS-12
D. STS-3
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q27Inbound infrastructure ACLs are configured to protect the SP network. Which two types of traffic should be permitted in
the infrastructure ACL? (Choose two.)
A. traffic destined for network of 172.30.0.0/16
B. traffic source from network of 172.30.0.0/16
C. traffic destined for network of 162.238.0.0/16
D. traffic source from network of 162.238.0.0/16
E. traffic destined for network of 232.16.0.0/16
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 28
In an infrastructure As a service cloud deployment model, which two components are managed by the customer?
(Choose two)
A. hardware (server)
B. Network storage
C. Virtualization
D. Operating System
E. Runtime application
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 29lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q29Refer to the exhibit Customer ABC is peering with two service providers for internet access. In order to prevent the AS
100 from becoming a transit AS between ISP_1 and ISP_2. Which BGP configuration must be applied to achieve this
goal?
A. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY
permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor
1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
B. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
C. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
D. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit
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10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor
1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
E. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 30
In the Inter-AS VPN deployment shown in the diagram, what is the Next Hop address of MP-IBGP Update for CE4
network received at PE-R2?lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q30A. ASBR-2 50.0.0.3
B. PE-R2 50.0.0.2
C. PE-R4 50.0.0.4
D. ASBR-1 50.0.0.1
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 31
In which way does the DS-Lite IPv6 transitioning mechanism differ from IPv6 Dual-Stack?
A. DS-Lite is a combination of tunnel and translation technologies.
B. DS-Lite is a transition technology that gives full IPv6 connectivity for IPv6 capable hosts that are on the IPv4 Internet
but have no native connection to an IPv6 network.
C. DS-Lite is an automatic tunnel where the tunnel destination is determined by the IPv4 address extracted from the
IPv6 address that starts with the prefix 2002::/16.
D. DS-Lite is a stateless tunneling mechanism with a lightweight and secure manner without requiring upgrades to
existing IPv4 access network infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 32
A service provider is offering VoIP services level agreement to customers. Which configuration provides validation that
the service level agreement has been honored?
A. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
B. ipsla 999 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forerver start-time now
C. ipsla 99 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
D. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever start-time now
E. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
F. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever stat-time now
Correct Answer: F


QUESTION 33
Which two Any Transport over MPLS (AToM) traffic encapsulations require the use of a control word? (Choose two)
A. HDLC
B. ATM AAL5
C. PPP
D. Ethernet VLAN
E. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: BE
AToM Header
The AToM header is 4 bytes (control word). The control word is optional for Ethernet, PPP, HDLC, and cell relay
transport types. However, the control word is required for Frame Relay, and ATM AAL5 transport types.


QUESTION 34
Which statement about IPv6 security is true?
A. Reconnaissance attacks are easier to do in IPv6 compared to IPv4.
B. IPv6 amplification attacks can happen using IPv6 broadcast address.
C. RA-guard feature is used to block rogue RAs.
D. ICMP policies on firewalls do not need to be changed for IPv6 because ICMP is Layer 3 agnostic.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 35
Which command will display the MPLS label binding for IP prefix 1.1.1.0 on the router?
A. All of the above.
B. show tag-switching tdp binding 1.1.1.0/24
C. show tag-switching tdp bindings neighbor 1.1.1.0
D. A and B both will show the binding.
E. show tag-switching interface e0/0
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 36
What Cisco IOS feature examines packets received to make sure that the source address and interface are in the
routing table and match the interface that the packet was received on?
A. MPLS Traffic Engineering
B. Receive ACL
C. Unicast RPF
D. Authentication
E. Dynamic access-lists
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q37An MPLS VPN service has been provisioned for an ABC customer. Based on the output from the VRF BGP
configuration of PE1 and PE2, which statement describes the route exchange between ABC site 1 and site 2?
A. Only CE1 will be able to install CE2 BGP updates in its BGP table.
B. Only CE2 will be able to install CE1 BGP updates in its BGP table.
C. CE1 can install the CE2 subnets in its BGP table and CE2 can install the CE1 subnets its BGP table.
D. CE1 cannot install the CE2 subnets in its BGP table and CE2 cannot install the CE1 subnets its BGP table.
E. “as-override” feature cannot be used in this scenario.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 38
A network engineer is responsible for provisioning LDP and IGP over the IP core network to maintain the MPLS
functionality as a day-to-day task. The IP engineer is looking for automation opportunities. Which feature allows the LDP
protocol to be automatically enabled on interfaces that run IGP on the routers?
A. MPLS LDP autoconfiguration
B. MPLS LDP discovery
C. MPLS LDP-IGP synchronization
D. MPLS LDP session protection
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. Why is router 1 unable to ping 10.10.100.2 from vrf cust1?
A. Because Multi-VRF support is not enabled
B. Because address-family ipv4 is missing from the VRF statement
C. Because of an incorrect interface configuration
D. Because of a missing BGP configuration
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
What is a limitation of implementing uRPF?
A. Domain name must be defined.
B. MPLS LDP must be enabled.
C. BGP routing protocol must be running.
D. Symmetrical routing is required.
E. Named access-lists must be configured.
Correct Answer: D

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Latest effective Cisco 400-151 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which two parameters must be identical per interface while configuring virtual port channels? (Choose two)
A. network access control
B. Bridge Assurance setting
C. maximum transmission unit
D. Protocol Independent Multicast
E. IP Source Guard
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the management interface monitoring policy?
A. to monitor the management interface counts for errors and drops
B. to prevent VM traffic form being black-holed during a cluster switchover
C. to sync MAC address tables between peer fabric interconnects
D. to ensure that management interface of the managing fabric interconnect can reach the gateway
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q3A. The service profile in organization IS-SecureESX10 is trying to be associated to chassis 1 blade 7
B. The error is triggered when the service profile pn is being associated.
C. The only way to fix the problem is to delete the service profile and start again with the proper MAC and WWPN pool
association.
D. If you ignore the warning and press Yes, the association fails because no MAC address is assigned
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Which transceiver allows 40 GB Ethernet Connectivity by leveraging a single pair of multimode fibers?
A. OSFP-40G-SR4
B. OSFP-H40G-CU
C. FET-40G
D. QSFP-40G0SR0BD
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Which three CLI configuration commands are for port profile as a private VLAN on Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch?
(Choose 3)
A. Switch (config-port-prof) # switch port private-vlan trunk allowed vlan vlan-range
B. Switch (Config) # port-profile type vethernet name
C. Switch (config-port-porf) # switch port mode private-vlan host promiscuous
D. Switch (config-port-porf) # switch port Private-vlan mapping primary_vlan add scondary_vlan
E. Switch (config-port-porf) # switch port Private-vlan host-association primary_vlan secondary_vlan
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 6
Which two statements about import and export route control in an ACI fabric are true? (Choose two)
A. Prefixes learned from OSPF/EIGRP L3Outs are never permitted inbound by default
B. Prefixes learned from BGP L3outs cannot be filtered inbound
C. Prefixes permitted inbound are redistributed into MP-BGP at the ingress leaf
D. Export route control controls if the prefixes are redistributed from MP-BGP to the egress leaf
E. By default import route control is always enabled while export route control is always disabled
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 7
Refer to the Exhibit. Many tools are available to troubleshoot an ACI fabric. Which tool is this sample output from?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q7A. Traffic map
B. iPing
C. traceroute
D. atomic counters
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which three statements about ip source guard are true? (Choose 3) A. IP source guard is dependent upon DHCP
snooping to build and maintain the IP-MAC-Address binding table or upon manual maintenance of static IP-source
entries.
B. IP source guard requires that DHCP snooping is disabled.
C. By default, IP source guard is enabled on all interfaces.
D. IP source guard limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC-Address binding table
entry or static IP source entry
E. When you first enable IP source guard on an interface, you may experience disruption in IP traffic until the hosts on
the interface receive a new IP address from a DHCP server
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 9
Which three options are SDN Southbound protocols? (Choose three)
A. API
B. OVSDB
C. OpenFlow
D. Puppet
E. PCEP
F. VXLAN
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 10
Which statement about updating the service profile is true?
A. Updating service profile templates can have vNIC and vHBA templates that are lnitial templates.
B. Updating service profile templates cannot have vNIC and vHBA templates that are lnitial templates
C. Changes made to a vNIC templat that is an Updating template are not propagated to the service profile if the service
profile templat is lnitial.
D. Updating service profile templates can only be applied to an existing service profile.
E. Changes made to a vNIC template that is an lnitial template are propagated to the service profole if the service profile
template is Updating
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output, what is the most likely reason for the failure of the iSCSI boot?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q11A. There is no gateway configured on the iSCSI vNIC.
B. The LUN is not masked correctly on the storage array.
C. CHAP authentication is not configured correctly.
D. The latency between the imitator and target is too high.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps must be taken to add NFS storage to the Cisco UCS domain ? (Choose 3) n ACI
environment from the left onto the correct d
A. Configure fabric interconnect A and B to Ethernet switching mode.
B. Configure Eth1/17 as a unified storage port.
C. Configure Eth1/17 as an appliance port.
D. Configure a QoS policy for NFS storage.
E. Create a LAN cloud VLAN on fabric A and fabric B.
F. Create an appliance VLAN on fabric A and fabric B.
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 13
Which two statements about multicast routing are true? (Choose 2)
A. You can define RPF routes for multicast when you want multicast data to diverge from the unicast traffic path
B. Multicast routes are used to directly forward traffic without making RPF checks
C. You can define RPF routes for multicast on border routers to enable reverse path forwarding to an external network
D. RPF routes for multicast can be distributed
E. Ipv6 static multicast routes are supported
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Your application has reduced health score. Upon inspection, you find fault that impacts the health
score. The fault currently is the soaking lifecycle state. Which 2 options are possible next steps while in this state?
(Choose 2)lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q14A. The condition ceased by it self and goes into the soaking-cleaning state.
B. The soaking timer expires and moves to the Raised severity level
C. Acknowledge the fault, which immediately clears it from the system
D. The condition ceases by itself an automatically clears the fault
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 15lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q15Refer to the exhibit. When adding an ASAv to the APIC , the user notices a fault raised on the device. Which cause of
this fault is the most likely?
A. The device package was never uploaded
B. The incorrect username and password was used
C. The configuration specified HTTP and not HTTPS
D. The configuration did not specify “apic” as the username
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 16
On which two features does ITD depend? (Choose two)
A. interface-vlan
B. IP SLA
C. BFD
D. WCCP
E. PBR
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 17
Which option is an commonly used network layer protocol in an loT environment?
A. RPL
B. AQMP
C. MQTT
D. XMPP
E. CoAP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about these commands is true? lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q18A. The outputs of the debug are redirected on file test on the “log” directory.
B. The outputs of the debug are redirected to the logging buffer.
C. The command does not have an effect unless you configure “debug enable”.
D. If you are on a console connection, the outputs are shown after the event occurs.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. When the engineer tried to check CoPP on the switch, the engineer observed the error that is
shown in the exhibit. Which option describes the reason for the displayed output?

lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q19

A. The Cisco NX-OS version that is running does not support CoPP.
B. The CoPP feature is not enabled on this switch
C. The CoPP CLI is available from the default VDC
D. CoPP is enabled by default but not configured.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 20
Which statement about soft pinning is incorrect?
A. If no uplink Ethernet port channel is configured with all VLANs on the VNIC. Cisco UCS Manager drops the traffic for
all of the VLANs on the VNIC.
B. When the VLAN validation fails, a VLAN mismatch fault with a severity of warning appears.
C. It is the default behavior Cisco UCS.
D. Cisco UCS Manager pins the VNIC to an uplink Ethernet port or port channel according to VLAN membership
criteria.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 21
Which mode must the Cisco MDS VSAN be configured for so that it interoperates correctly with a Brocade Fibre
Channel switch that is configured for interop mode?
A. interop mode 2
B. interop mode 4
C. interop mode 3
D. native mode
E. interop mode 1
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 22
After VTEP devices are established BGP neighbor adjacencies with other VTEPs or with internal BGP route reflector,
which three pieces of information are exchanged through BGP? (Choose 3)
A. Layer 3 VNI
B. VPNv4 prefixes
C. Router MAC address
D. VTEP peer list
E. VTEP address.
F. MD5 Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES) key
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 23
Which feature in ACI permits the user to specify that HTTP and HTTPS traffic between an L3out EPG and an internal
EPG is sent to a firewall , and SSH and Telnet traffic between the L3Out and the internal EPG bypasses the firewall?
A. policy-based redirect
B. Layer 4 -Layer 7 function profile
C. vzAny contract
D. contracts and filters
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about VPC member ports on this switch is true?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q24A. VPC ports are error disabled.
B. VPC ports are suspended.
C. Only Orphan ports stay operational.
D. VPC port status remains unchanged.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. Based on this portion of an MDS ISCSI configuration, which two statements are true? (Choose 2)lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q25A. The fc-lun 0x0000 mapping to iscsi-lun 0x0000 is not permitted.
B. The ISCSI initiator that connects to target name iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 will see two LUNs numbered as 2 and 4.
C. The ISCSI initiator and the ISCSI target iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 must be in the same zone before LUNs are
available to the host.
D. The ISCSI initiator at nme iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t2 has access to only one LUN.
E. The ISCSI initiator that connects to targets name iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 will see two LUNs as number 0 and 1.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit Server 1 and Server 2 are on the same VLAN but cannot reach each other. Which option describes
the reason?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q26A. Interface VLAN (SVI) must be configured for this VLAN
B. VLAN is not allowed on the peer link.
C. VLAN is not on Fabric Path mode.
D. Type2 inconsistency prevents the communication.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Which two options can be used for server pool qualifications? (Choose two)
A. chassis model
B. RAID controller
C. firmware version
D. CPU stepping
E. memory speed
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 28
Which option is the advantage of Cisco ACE SSL Offload?
A. Export cipher suite
B. Decentralized certificate management
C. SSL encryption only
D. Front-end SSL
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 29
STP provides a loop-free network at the Layer 2 level. Layer 2 LAN ports send and receive STP frames at regular
intervals. Network devices do not forward these frames but use the frames to construct a loop-free path. Which option is
the name of these frames?
A. bridge protocol data units
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol frames
C. Link Layer Discovery Protocol frames
D. runt frames
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. Corporate ABC want to implement control by allowing authorized virtual machine MAC addresses to
send traffic to the Internet. The administrator wants to add this MAC ACL on Nexus7k-1 to achieve the task: (Choose 2)
[Configuration Output] Nexus7k-1: Mac access-list mac-ad Permit 0050.561f.73d3 0000. 00ff.ffff any ! Interface e1/1
Mac access-group mac-ad

lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q30

A. The MAC address and mask do not match.
B. The MAC ACL cannot be applied to egress traffic.
C. This command is wrong to apply this ACL under interface.
D. The sequence number is missing from the ACL.
E. The MAC ACL is not supported on Cisco nexus 7000 Series.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 31
Which two server models support single-wire management for Cisco UCS C-Series integration with Cisco UCS
Manager? (Choose 2)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2 server
B. Cisco UCS C250 M2 server
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2 server
D. Cisco UCS C240 M3 server
E. Cisco UCS C240 M2 server
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 32
Which option is required by atomic counters to be leveraged in troubleshooting endpoint connecticity?
A. Endpoints must be in different endpoint groups
B. Endpoints must connect to different leaf switches
C. Endpoints must connect to the same leaf switch
D. Endpoints must be in different VRFs
E. Endpoints muts be in different bridge domains
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 33
Which two options are advantages of deploying Ethernet-based FCoE switches such as the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
Switches beyond the access layer? (Choose 2)
A. lower overall throughout compared to native Fibre Channel switches
B. flexibility to support file (NAS) and block (ISCSI and FCoE) storage traffic
C. High-performance Ethernet-based FCoE switches cannot be used in a dedicated SAN core
D. requirement for traffic isolation with dedicated links and storage VDCs is no longer required
E. plans that include 40 and 100 Gigabit Ethernet speeds
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 34
Which two statements about the Fibre Channel over Ethernet Virtual Link Establishment are true? (Choose 2)
A. FLOGI/FDISC ACCEPT is part of the FCoE protocol.
B. Fibre Channel commands are part of the FIP protocol.
C. VLAN discovery is part of FIP protocol.
D. FCF discovery is part FCoE protocol.
E. FLOGI/FDISC is part of the FIP protocol.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 35
Which two connectivity modes does Cisco RISE support? (Choose two)
A. Directly connected. No virtual port channel is supported.
B. Indirectly connected. Only Layer 3 adjacent.
C. Indirectly connected. Only Layer 2 adjacent
D. Indirectly connected. Layer 2 and Layer 3 adjacent.
E. Directly connected. Virtual port channel is supported.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 36
Which three options are valid local disk configuration policies? (Choose 3)
A. RAID 40
B. RAID 60
C. RAID 7
D. RAID 30
E. RAID 50
F. RAID 6
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 37
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2 connectivity between separate Layer 2
domains, while keeping these domains independent and preserving the fault isolation, resiliency, and load-balancing
benefits of an IP-based interconnection. Which statements are true about OTV Adjacency Server? (Choose 2)
A. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with unicast-only transport.
B. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with multicast-enabled transport.
C. Each OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to first register with the Adjacency Server.
D. Each OTV device trying to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to be configured as an Adjacency Server.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibits. After you upgrade Cisco UCS firmware, some of your blades have these error messages. Which
description of the problem is true?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q38A. Storage provisioning is not configured
B. VNIC template must be converted to updating.
C. Some components are deprecated.
D. Service profile requires as connectivity policy
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 39
Which option is a data modeling language used to model configuration and state data of network elements.
A. SNMPv4
B. YANG
C. RESTCONF
D. NETCONF
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. Your application has a reduced health score.Upon inspection,you find a fault that impacts the health
score. The fault currently is in the soaking lifecycle stare. Which two options are possible next steps while in this state?
(Choose two)lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q40A. Acknowledge the fault. which immediately clears it from the system
B. Once the soaking timer expires the fault ceases and no change is expected in sevenity level.
C. The condition ceases by itself and goes into the soaking-clearing state
D. The condition ceases by itself and automatically clears the fault
E. The soaking timer expires and moves to the Raised sevenity
Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012.
The domain contains an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. OU1 contains an OU named OU2. OU2 contains a user named User1.
User1 is the member of a group named Group1. Group1 is in the Users container.
You create five Group Policy objects (GPO). The GPOs are configured as shown in the following table.
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The Authenticated Users group is assigned the default permissions to all of the GPOs.
There are no site-level GPOs.
You need to identify which three GPOs will be applied to User1 and in which order the GPOs will be applied to User1.
Which three GPOs should you identify in sequence?
To answer, move the appropriate three GPOs from the list of GPOs to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8.
Group Policy objects (GPOs) are linked to the domain as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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GPO2 contains computer configurations only and GPO3 contains user configurations only.
You need to configure the GPOs to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that GPO2 only applies to the computer accounts in OU2 that have more than one processor.
Ensure that GPO3 only applies to the user accounts in OU3 that are members of a security group named SecureUsers.
Which setting should you configure in each GPO?
To answer, drag the appropriate setting to the correct GPO. Each setting may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You add a third server named Server3 to the network. Server3 has Intel processors.
You need to move VM3 and VM6 to Server3. The solution must minimize downtime on the virtual machines.
Which method should you use to move each virtual machine?
To answer, select the appropriate method for each virtual machine in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named fabrikam.com.
You implement DirectAccess. 70-417 dumps
You need to view the properties of the DirectAccess connection.
Which connection properties should you view?
To answer, select the appropriate connection properties in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured as a Network Policy Server (NPS) server and as a DHCP server.
You need to log all DHCP clients that have windows Firewall disabled.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an Active Directory site named Site1 and an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
The domain contains a client computer named Client1 that is located in OU1 and Site1.
You create five Group Policy objects (GPO). The GPOs are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to identify in which order the GPOs will be applied to Client1.
In which order should you arrange the listed GPOs?
To answer, move all GPOs from the list of GPOs to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 and a member server named Server1. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You install the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature on Server1.
From the Provision IPAM wizard, you select the Group Policy Based provisioning method and enter a GPO name prefix of IPAM1.
You need to provision IPAM by using Group Policy.
What command should you run on Server1 to complete the process?
To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All file servers in the domain run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The computer accounts of the file servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1.
You plan to modify the NTFS permissions for many folders on the file servers by using central access policies.
You need to identify any users who will be denied access to resources that they can currently access once the new permissions are implemented.
In which order should you Perform the five actions?
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named Server1. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
All domain user accounts have the Division attribute automatically populated as part of the user provisioning process. The Support for Dynamic Access Control and Kerberos armoring policy is enabled for the domain.
You need to control access to the file shares on Server1 based on the values in the Division attribute and the Division resource property.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence?
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
You plan to deploy a failover cluster that will contain two nodes that run Windows Server 2012 R2. 70-417 dumps
You need to configure a witness disk for the failover cluster.
How should you configure the witness disk?
To answer, drag the appropriate configurations to the correct location or locations. Each configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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High Quality Microsoft Dynamics AX MB6-890 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
You need to write an expression to calculate the compound interest that a bank needs
The formula for compound interest after one period is as follows:
I = (P * (1 + R)) – P
Where
I = Compound interest
P = Principal that was invested
R = Rate of interest
after one period.
Which X++ expression is equivalent to the formula above using operator precedence in X+- +-?
A. I = P* 1 + R- P
B. I = P*(1 + R-P)
C. I = P*(1 + R)-P
D. I = (P* 1) + (R-P)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a table named CustTable. which has the following three fields: AccountNum, Currency, and CustGroup. You need to wnte X++ code to insert a record into CustTable and set the values of the three fields as follows:
AccountNum = “5000-
Currency = “USD”
CustGroup=”30″
Which two code segments can you use to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
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Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
You have an X++ class that has the following code:
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You are writing a static method. You have an object of AssetBookCompareContract named assetBookCompareContractObj that is initialized within this method.
You need to print the current value of the firstAssetBookld variable from the assetBookCompareContractObj object.
Which piece of code should you use to achieve this goal?
A. irvFo(assetBookCompareContractObj : :fIrstAssetBookld);
B. info(assetBookCompareContractObj.f IrstAssetBookld);
C. info(assetBookCompareContractObj.panmFirstAssetBookId(“”));
D. info(assetBookCompareContractObj.parmFirstAssel:BookId());
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You have the following X++ statement
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What is the output of the statement?
A. An error has occurred.
VariableB cannot be less than variableA.
B. An error has occurred.
Process was aborted.
C. An error has occurred.
VariableB cannot be less than variableA.
D. VariableB cannot be less than variableA.
Process was aborted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You want to have a form where you can display an image in a fast tab. Which type of sub- pattern should you apply to the fast tab?
A. Horizontal fields and Button group
B. Section tiles
C. Custom filters
D. Image preview
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You are using Visual Studio to manage development with Microsoft Dynamics AX. You need to complete a project for use within the application. MB6-890 dumps Which step must be performed?
A. best practice check
B. synchronization
C. build
D. validation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have two classes written in X++ with the following code:
MB6-890 dumps
Which three methods of the DirParty class are accessible from the Write method? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.)
A. duplicateCurrentParty()
B. addLocation()
C. update()
D. getContactlnfo()
E. add LocationCI ientO
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
You need to develop a new XDS policy for employees. You employees’ expense records.
Where should you apply the filter?
A. Constrained tables
B. Query
C. Policy group
D. Context string
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are developing a form that allows users to update an order status. You create a table named Tablel that you will use as a data source for this form.
You want to include a radio-button style selection so that the end user can choose between three different order statuses: “Canceled”, “Delivered”, “Processing”.
What should you add to Table1 so that you can add the radio button selection to the form?
A. three different string fields that represent each order status
B. three different Extended Data Types (EDTs) of type string with each order status
C. a Boolean data type with values that represent each choice
D. a base enumeration with three elements that represent each order status
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You need to ensure that the custom roles that are created for your company comply with the segregation of duties. What are three possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Verification
B. Authorization
C. Application
D. Validation
E. Contextualization
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 11
You have an X+ + class that has the following code:
public class CustAdvancelnvoiceJourDP
{
private void insertCustVendAdvanceInvoiceJourTmp()
{
// do work
}
public void processReport()
{
// call InsertCustVendAdvancelnvoiceJourTmp
} }
You need to call insertCustVendAdvancelnvoiceJourTmpO from the processReport method on the current instance of the object Which piece of code should you write within the processReport method to achieve this goal?
A. CustiAdvancelnvoiceJourDP newObj = new CustAdvanceInvoiceDourDP(); newObj.insertCustVendAdvanceInvoiceDourTmp();
B. CustAdvancelnvoiceDourDP.insertCustVendAdvancelnvoiceJourTmp();
C. CustAdvancelnvoiceDourOP: :insertCustVendAdvanceInvoiceDourTmp( ) ;
D. this.insertCustVendAdvanceInvoice3ourTmp();
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are writing a class named Asset Copy.
You need to create a menu item that, when clicked, runs code written in the Asset Copy class.
What should you do to achieve this goal?
A. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “client static void main(Args args)’ Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
B. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “void run()”.
Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
C. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “void new(AssetTable _assetTable)”.
Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
D. Create a method in the AssetCopy class which has a prototype of “Object dialogO”.
Create an Action Menu item, and set the ObjectType to Class and the Object to “AssetCopy”.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You are using the Visual Studio development environment to perform a customization for your client.
You need to follow best practices to create a new table to store customer ranking information for each custom
What should you name this new table element?
A. Custrankinginfo
B. CustRankinglnfo
C. CustRankinglnfo
D. custrankinginfo
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You have the following X++ classes:
class ProductDimensionAttribute;
{
string attribute
void getAttribute()
{
return “Color”;
} }
Class ColorDiraensionAttnibute extends ProductDimensionAttribute
{
void getAttribute( )
{
return “Green”;
} }
You also have a runnable class which has the following co
ProductDimensionAttribute dimension;
ColorDimensionAttribute color = new ColorDimensionAttribute();
info(color.getAttnibute());
dimension = color;
inf o(dimension . getAttribute()) ;
Which output is correct if you run the above code that is part of the runnable class?
A. Green Color
B. Green Green
C. Color Color
D. Color Green
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You are working in the Visual Studio development environment of Microsoft Dynamics AX. You need to delete the data in a specific table. What should you use?
A. Table Browser
B. Delete Actions
C. Code Profiler
D. Type Hierarchy Browser
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You create a duty to maintain customer master information.
Which two elements can you add to the duty?
A. permissions
B. policies
C. privileges
D. process cycles
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You need to create several reports that use the same combination of tables as data sources. You know that you will need a relation between these tables so that the report outputs as desired. MB6-890 dumps You also want the ability to change details, such as report parameters or sorting options, at run time.
Which element should you create to store these tables and the relations so that you can reuse the element as the data source on future reports?
A. a new table
B. a query
C. a view
D. a table map
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Your company needs a new table that will track customer names and numbers for three new types of transactions, along with the date for each transaction.
You need to create the new table and fields.
Which field should you create using a base enumeration?
A. customer name
B. transaction type
C. customer account number
D. transaction date
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You need to explain the attributes of a package in Microsoft Dynamics AX.
Which three statements are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. A package can be associated with one or more projects.
B. A package can only be associated with one project.
C. A package can contain one or more models.
D. A package can only be associated with one model.
E. A package can be exported to a file.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 20
You have two tables: CustTable and CustTrans.
CustTrans has a foreign key relation with CustTable on the “AccountNum” field. Multiple CustTrans records refer to a single CustTable record. Each CustTrans record can refer to a single CustTable record.
You want to write code to display records of customers and their corresponding transactions. You need to display the following fields:
AccountNum from CustTable table
CustGroup from CustTable table
AmountCur from CustTrans table
Finally, you want to select only the approved transactions. An approved transaction is a CustTrans record where the value of the Approved field is NoYes::Yes.
You need to choose the data that meets these requirements.
Which select statement should you use?
A. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select: AccountNum, CustGroup -From custTable join AmountCur -from custTrans
where custTrans.AccountNum == custTable.AccountNum && custTrans.Approved == NoYes::Yes
{
// do work
}
B. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select: AccountNum, CustGroup from custTable exists join AmountCur -from custTrans
where custTrans.AccountNum == custTable.AccountNum && custTrans-Approved == NoYes::Yes
{
// do work
}
C. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select AccountNum, CustGroup from custTable where custTrans .AccountNum == custTable. AccountNum join AmountCust -from custTrans where custTrans.Approved == NoYes:;Yes {
// do work
}
D. CustTable custTable;
CustTrans custTrans;
while select AccountNum, CustGroup, AmountCur -from custTable join custTrans
where custTrans-AccountNum == custTable.AccountNum && custTrans.Approved == NoYes::Yes
{
// do work
}
Correct Answer: A

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Newest Citrix CCP-N 1Y0-351 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Traffic to which destination is sourced from the NetScaler IP (NSIP) by default?
A. NTP servers
B. Clients on the Internet
C. Load-balanced web services
D. Load-balanced authentication services
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A NetScaler Engineer configures COOKIEINSERT persistence method for an HTTP VServer named ‘myApp’. Many clients do NOT allow the persistence cookie to be set and application sessions fail as a result. All clients are behind a network address translation (NAT) gateway, which will insert the client IP address into an HTTP header called X-Forwarded-For.
Which command could the engineer execute to provide persistence for clients while still distributing the requests across the bound services?
A. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType SOURCEIP
B. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType NONE -lbmethod SRCIPDESTIPHASH
C. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType COOKIEINSERT -timeout 0 -cookieName X-Forwarded- For
D. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType NONE -lb method TOKEN -rule “HTTP.REQ.HEADER(\”X
Forwarded-For\”).VALUE(0)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A NetScaler Engineer has created an SSL virtual server that utilizes SSL services. The engineer needs to configure certificate authentication from the NetScaler to the backend web services.
What should the engineer do to meet the requirements outlined in the scenario?
A. Bind a CA Certificate to the SSL Services.
B. Bind a Client Certificate to the SSL Services.
C. Create an SSL policy to present the Client Certificate to the web services.
D. Enable Client Authentication and set Client Certificate to mandatory on the virtual server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which service setting would a NetScaler Engineer use in the command-line interface to limit connections to server resources?
A. -maxReq
B. -maxClient
C. -monThreshold
D. -maxBandwidth
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true about interface link-state on the NetScaler?
A. Interface link-state is controlled by ifconfig in BSD.
B. Interface link-state is dependent on the HAMON setting.
C. Interface link-state CANNOT be brought down from the NetScaler.
D. Interface link-state on both appliances is unaffected by the force failover command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In order to configure integrated cache, a NetScaler Engineer would need to reboot the NetScaler when the integrated caching feature is __________ and cache memory limit is set to __________. (Choose the correct set of options to complete the sentence.)
A. enabled; zero
B. disabled; zero
C. enabled; non-zero
D. disabled; non-zero
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two certificate formats are supported when creating a certificate key pair on the NetScaler? 1Y0-351 dumps (Choose two.)
A. PEM
B. DER
C. PKCS7
D. PKCS12
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
As a result of connecting two NetScaler interfaces in the same L2 broadcast domain/VLAN (unless link aggregation is configured), the NetScaler will __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. restart
B. disable one interface
C. cause a network loop
D. disable both interfaces
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Scenario: Users in an organization need to access several web applications daily. Management has asked a NetScaler Engineer to reduce the amount of times users have to enter credentials when accessing web applications.
What should the engineer configure to meet this requirement?
A. A load-balancing VServer and an authorization policy
B. An authentication VServer and an authorization policy
C. An authentication VServer and an authentication policy
D. A content switching VServer and an authentication profile
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The upgrade script copies the updated NetScaler kernel file to the __________ NetScaler directory. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. /var
B. /flash
C. /nsconfig
D. /flash/boot
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which setting must an engineer ensure is configured before a Subnet IP (SNIP) could be used to communicate with servers on the same network segment?
A. Static route is defined
B. USIP mode is enabled
C. USNIP mode is enabled
D. Default gateway is defined
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which tool could a NetScaler Engineer use to monitor client-side rendering times for a Web application that is load-balanced by NetScaler?
A. Tcpdump
B. Insight Center
C. Command Center
D. NetScaler Dashboard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which step could a network engineer take to prevent brute force logon attacks?
A. Enable the Rate Limiting feature.
B. Enable the AAA Application feature.
C. Configure the Access Gateway policies.
D. Configure the Cache redirection policies.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A network engineer should enable the Rate Limiting feature of a NetScaler system to mitigate the threat of __________ attack. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. reverse proxying
B. Java decompilation
C. source code disclosure
D. brute force logon attacks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which NetScaler feature could be used to stall policy processing to retrieve information from an external server?
A. Responder
B. HTTP callout
C. AppExpert template
D. EdgeSight monitoring
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
An engineer has bound three monitors to a service group and configured each of the monitors with a weight of 10.
How should the engineer ensure that the members of the service group are marked as DOWN when at least two monitors fail?
A. Re-configure the weight of each monitor to 0.
B. Configure the service group with a threshold of 21.
C. Configure the service group with a threshold of 20.
D. Re-configure the weight of each monitor to 5, and configure the service group threshold to 15.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
A network engineer has noted that the primary node in an HA pair has been alternating as many as three times a day due to intermittent issues. 1Y0-351 dumps
What should the engineer configure to ensure that HA failures are alerted?
A. LACP
B. SNMP
C. Route monitors
D. Failover Interface Set
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
The disk is full on a NetScaler appliance but NO alerts were generated by the SNMP traps.
What is the likely cause of this failed alert?
A. Auditing is not enabled.
B. EdgeSight monitoring is not configured.
C. The threshold was not set for the alarm.
D. Health monitoring has not been enabled.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
What type of protocol does AppFlow use for reporting?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. HTTP
D. SSL_TCP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Scenario: A network engineer monitoring an HTTP service-related issue needs to view only the relevant data pertaining to the service being monitored. The IP address of the back-end service being monitored is 10.10.1.99. The NSIP address is 10.10.1.230.
Which command should the engineer execute to monitor data relevant to this issue only in real time?
A. telnet
B. traceroute
C. nsconmsg
D. nstcpdump
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Scenario: A NetScaler environment uses two-factor authentication and the second authentication method is AD. A user logs in to the environment but does NOT receive access to the resources that the user should have access to.
How can an engineer determine the AD authentication issue on the NetScaler?
A. Check NSlogs
B. Use nsconmsg
C. Use the cat aaad.debug command
D. Check the authorization configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
A NetScaler is configured with two-factor authentication. A user reported that authentication failed.
How can an engineer determine which factor of the authentication method failed?
A. Check NSlog
B. Use nsconmsg
C. Check the dashboard
D. Use cat aaad.debug command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
A public SSL certificate on a virtual server is about to expire and the NetScaler engineer needs to renew the certificate before it expires.
Which step must the engineer take to renew the SSL Certificate?
A. Generate a new CSR
B. Recreate the Private Keys
C. Execute CRL Management
D. Update the existing certificate
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
An environment network has:
– High bandwidth
– Low packet loss
– High Round-Trip Time (RTT)
Which TCP profile should an engineer configure for the environment described?
A. Nstcp_default_profile
B. Nstcp_default_tcp_lfp
C. Nstcp_default_tcp_lnp
D. Nstcp_default_tcp_lan
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Scenario: A network engineer needs to provide web server administrators with access to monitoring and reporting after changing the default root password during the initial setup of the NetScaler. The engineer needs to ensure that the web server administrators can perform this task.
What should the engineer do in order to ensure that the administrators are able to log on to the NetScaler?
A. Create a group.
B. Create user accounts.
C. Create an authorization policy.
D. Create an authentication policy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Scenario: An engineer has configured a virtual server that users access using HTTP port 80. The web application also uses TCP port 81 and 8080 for non-user access. The engineer would like to prevent users from connecting to web servers if any of the ports go down. 1Y0-351 dumps
How should the engineer set this configuration to ensure service availability?
A. Increase the monitor threshold.
B. Lower the server timeout value.
C. Create additional virtual servers for ports 81 and 8080.
D. Create monitors for ports 81 and 8080, and bind to the service or service group.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which step is required to ensure that SSL traffic is passed through the NetScaler to backend services without processing SSL on the NetScaler appliance?
A. Create a service group of type SSL.
B. Create a service group of type HTTP.
C. Bind an SSL certificate to a service group.
D. Bind an SSL certificate to the virtual server
E. Create a service group of type SSL_BRIDGE.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 28
A NetScaler engineer would like to present different web pages to a user based on the device and browser type from which they are connecting.
Which responder policy could assist with this requirement?
A. HTTP.RES.URL.PATH
B. HTTP.REQ.Host(“Host”)
C. HTTP.RES.BODY(1024)
D. HTTP.REQ.HEADER(“User-Agent”)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Scenario: A user browses to a page and is presented with a warning that he is trying to enter a web site with an untrusted certificate. The network engineer had added the correct certificate to the SSL virtual server.
What could be the cause of this issue?
A. TLS is disabled on the virtual server.
B. The certificate is not linked to the intermediate CA.
C. The certificate has expired and needs to be renewed.
D. The CA certificate has not been added to the SSL virtual server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A network engineer is investigating issues and suspects that a new server that has been recently added to the environment has the same IP address as a virtual server that is configured on the NetScaler.
Which command could the engineer run to check the logs that will contain such details?
A. nsconmsg -K newnslog -d stats
B. nsconmsg -K /var/nslog/newnslog -d consmsg
C. nsconmsg -K /var/nslog/newnslog -s ConLb=1 -d oldconmsg
D. nsconmsg -K /var/nslog/newnslog -s ConMon=x -d oldconmsg
Correct Answer: B

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New Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration 70-243 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (11-20)

QUESTION 1
Your company has 120,000 client computers.
You plan to deploy System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) to the computers.
You need to install Configuration Manager by using the fewest number of sites possible.
Which site configuration should you use?
A. two individual stand-alone primary sites
B. a single primary site and four secondary sites
C. a stand-alone primary site
D. a Central Administration site and two primary sites
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
You can deploy Configuration Manager as a single stand-alone primary site, or as multiple sites in a hierarchy.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory forest.
The forest contains a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack (SP1) environment. The environment contains one primary site.
You need to ensure that the members of a group named Group1 are allowed to deploy applications to desktop computers.
The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Group1.
What should you do?
A. Assign the Application Administrator security roleto Group1. Create a new collection that contains all of the desktop computers. Add Group1 to the local Administrators group on each desktop computer.
B. Add the Application Deployment Manager security role to Group1. Create a new collection that contains all of the desktop computers. Add Group1 to the local Administrators group on each desktop computer.
C. Assign the Application Deployment Manager security role to Group1. Create a new collection that contains all of the desktop computers. Scope Group1 to the new collection.
D. Assign the Application Administrator security role to Group1. Create a new collection that contains all of the desktop computers. Scope Group1 to the new collection.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Application Deployment Manager is a securityrole that grants permissions to administrative users so that they can deploy and monitor applications.

QUESTION 3
Your network contains a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) environment.
In Default Client Settings, you enable Hardware Inventory and Software Inventory.
You discover that a group of client computers fails to report hardware inventory data. The client computers report software inventory data.
You verify that Configuration Manager can deploy applications to the client computers.
You need to identify what is causing the reporting issue.
Which two log files should you review? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Hman.log
B. Filesystemfile.log
C. Dataldr.log
D. Mp_sinv.log
E. Inventoryagent.log
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
C: Dataldr.log is a site server log file that records information about the processing of Management Information Format (MIF) files and hardware inventory in the Configuration Manager database. 70-243 dumps
Example of contents of dataldr.log:
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E: Inventoryagent.log is aclient log file that records activities of hardware inventory, software inventory, and heartbeat discovery actions on the client.
Example: The InventoryAgent.log will show that four new attributes regarding the Class “Department_Name” need to be collectedfor hardware Inventory data and that info needs to be sent to server.
Content of inventoryagent.log:
70-243 dumps
QUESTION 4
You have a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) stand- alone primary site.
You have an administrator named Admin1.
You discover that Admin1 can create collections that contains servers, laptops, and desktop computers.
You create a collection named Collection1. Collection1 contains only desktop computers on the network.
You need to ensure that Admin1 can create only collections that contain desktop computers.
Which settings should you modify?
A. Security Scopes for Admin1
B. Membership Rules for Collection1
C. Security Roles for Admin1
D. Security for Collection1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Management environment.
The network contains 10 database servers that run Microsoft SQL Server 2008.
You have a configuration baseline that is used to monitor database servers.
You confirm that all of the database servers downloaded the configuration baseline.
You discover that a database server named Server1 fails to report any data for the configuration baseline.
You need to identify whether Server 1 evaluates the configuration items that are part of the configuration baseline.
Which log file should you review?
A. Locationservices.log
B. Smsexec.log
C. Ccm.log
D. Sdmagent.log
E. Dcmagent.log
F. Rcmctrl.log
G. Wsyncmgr.log
H. Ciagent.log
I. Hman.log
J. Contenttransfermanager.log
K. Sitestat.log
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
DCMAgent.log is a client log file that records high-level information about the evaluation, conflict reporting, and remediation of configuration items and applications.

QUESTION 6
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Software Inventory and Hardware Inventory are enabled for all of the client computers.
All of the client computers have an Application named App1 installed.
App1 savesfiles to the C:\ABC folder.
All of the files saved by App1 have a file name extension of .abc.
You configure Software Inventory to inventory all of the files that have the .abc extension and the .exe extension.
After six months, you discover that some ofthe client computers failed to inventory .abc files. All of the client computers inventory .exe files. You need to ensure that the .abc files are inventoried.
What should you do?
A. Modify C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
B. Delete C:\ProgramFiles\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
C. Modify C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat.
D. Delete C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
How to Exclude Folders from Software Inventory in Configuration Manager You can create a hidden file named Skpswi.dat and place it in the root of a client hard drive to exclude it from System Center 2012 Configuration Manager software inventory. You can also place this file in the root of any folder structure you want to exclude from software inventory. This procedure can be used to disable software inventory on a single workstation or server client, such as a large file server.
Note: Software inventory will not inventory the client drive again unless this file is deleted from the drive on the client computer.

QUESTION 7
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and litwareinc.com.
You deploy System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) to the contoso.com forest.
You deploy the Configuration Manager client to all of the client computers in contoso.com by using a logon script.
All of the client computers in litwareinc.com run a local firewall to prevent traffic to the administrative shares.
You need to ensure that the Configuration Manager client can be deployed to all of the client computers in litwareinc.com.
Which three tasks should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a Group Policy-based installation of the Configuration Manager client.
B. Enable Active Directory System Discovery.
C. Copy the Cmsetup.msi file to a network share.
D. Configure a Client Push Installation account.
E. Enable Client Push Installation.
F. Enable Active Directory Forest Discovery.
Correct Answer: DEF

Explanation:
F: In this scenario thereare two forests.
Active Directory Forest Discovery can discover Active Directory sites andsubnets, and then create Configuration Manager boundaries for each site and subnet from the forests that you have configured for discovery. 70-243 dumps When Active Directory Forest Discovery identifies a supernet that is assigned to an Active Directory site, Configuration Manager converts the supernet into an IP address range boundary.
DE: Use client push installation to install the System Center 2012 Configuration Manager client software on computers that Configuration Manager discovered. You can configure client push installation for a site, and client installation will automatically run on the computers that are discovered within the site’s configured boundaries when those boundaries are configured as a boundary group.
To configure the site to automatically use client push for discovered computers

QUESTION 8
You deploy Windows 7 by using Operating System Deployment (OSD).
The development task sequence contains steps to install software updates and Applications.
The amount of time required to deploy the Windows 7 image has increased significantly during the last six months.
You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to deploy the image.
What should you recommend?
A. Synchronize software updates before deploying the image.
B. Use offline servicing for the image.
C. Create a new automatic deployment rule.
D. Add anadditional Install Software Updates step to the deployment task sequence.
E. Upgrade the image to Windows 7 SP1.
Correct Answer: BE

Explanation:
Configuration Manager 2012: Offline Servicing for Operating System Images In Configuration Manager 2012 there is a new feature for applying updates to operating system images while they are in the Configuration Manager library. This meansany operating system image you see in the Operating Systems > Operating Systems Images node from the Software Library wunderbar can be updated with Component Based Servicing (CBS) updates. By updating an image in the Software Library instead of performinga new build and capture of the operating system image you will gain a few distinct advantages. You will be able to reduce the risk of vulnerabilities during operating system deployments and reduce the overall operating system deployment to
the end user. You will also reduce the administrative effort to maintain your operating system images.
The feature is applicable for Component Based Servicing (CBS) updates and for the following operating systems:

QUESTION 9
You are the network administrator for a company named Contoso, Ltd.
The network contains 1,000 desktop computers and 500 servers.
The network contains a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack (SP1) environment.
The names of all the desktop computers in the human resources department start with the letters HR, for example HR001 and HR023.
A device collection named All Server Devices contains all of the servers.
A device collection named All Desktop Devices contains all of the desktop computers. You plan to create a new collection named All HR Computers and Servers.
The new collection must contain all of the human resources department computers and all of the servers. The collection must not contain any other computers. You need to create a membership rule for the new collection.
Which rule should you include in the membership rule? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. QUERY RULE: select * from SMS_R_System where SMS_R_system.NetbiosName like “HR%”
B. INCLUDE RULE: All Server Devices
C. EXCLUDE RULE: All NON HR Computers
D. EXCLUDE RULE: All Desktop Devices
E. QUERY RULE- select * from SMS_R_System where SMS_R_system.OperatingSystemNameandVersion like. *%Workstation*
F. QUERY RULE-select * fromSMS_R_System where SMS_R_system.OperatingSystemNameandVersion not like. *%Server*
Correct Answer: AB

Explanation:
Select * from SMS_R_System where SMS_R_system.NetbiosName like “HR%” SQL command to select all Systems whose names begin with HR INCLUDE RULE: All Server DevicesSelects all the Server Devices as asked in the question.

QUESTION 10
Your network contains a System center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You are creating a configuration item that contains application settings for Microsoft Office 2010.
You need to detect whether Office 2010 is installed before validating the configuration item.
What should you do?
A. Create a query-based collection.
B. Create an automatic deployment rule.
C. Create a report to display all installed software.
D. Enable Use Windows Installer detection.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Compliance settings contains tools to help you assess the compliance of users and client devices for many configurations, such as whether the correct Windows operating system versions are installed and configured appropriately, whether all required applications are installed and configured correctly, whether optional applications are configured appropriately, and whether prohibited applications are installed.
Note: Compliance settings in System Center 2012 Configuration Manager provides a unified interface and user experience that lets you manage the configuration and compliance of servers, laptops, desktop computers, and mobile devices in your organization.

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QUESTION 1
A company has client computers that run Windows 8. On all client computers, Internet Explorer has the Display intranet sites in Compatibility View option enabled and the Download updated compatibility lists from Microsoft option disabled.
The corporate website was designed for a previous version of Internet Explorer. When viewed on the client computers, menus and image on the corporate website are displayed out of place.
You need to ensure that the corporate website displays correctly on the client computers without negatively impacting the display of any other website.
What should you do?
A. Manually add the corporate website to the compatibility view settings.
B. Enable the Display all websites in Compatibility View option.
C. Disable the Display intranet sites in Compatibility View option.
D. Manually download an updated compatibility list from Microsoft.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A company has client computers that run Windows 8 in a kiosk environment.
You need to ensure that Windows updates are automatically applied and cannot be disabled by users.
What should you do?
A. Configure Windows Update to install updates automatically.
B. In the local Group Policy, enable the Turn on recommended updates via Automatic Updates policy setting.
C. msiexec /i app1.msi /qn
D. In the local Group Policy, configure the Remove access to use all Windows Update features policy setting.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A company has client computers that run Windows 8.
You need to create a baseline performance report that includes disk status by using the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Start the System Diagnostics Data Collector Set.
B. Create and start a custom Data Collector Set.
C. Start the System Performance Data Collector Set.
D. Add counters to Performance Monitor, and then print the Performance Monitor output.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A company has client computers that run Windows 8. Each computer has two hard drives.
You need to create a dynamic volume on each computer that maximizes write performance.
Which kind of dynamic volume should you create?
A. Striped volume
B. RAID 5 volume
C. Spanned volume
D. Mirrored volume
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 8. 70-744 dumps
A local printer is shared from a client computer. The client computer user is a member of the Sales AD security group.
You need to ensure that members of the Sales security group can print to the shared printer and modify only their own print jobs.
Which permission should you grant to the Sales group?
A. Manage queue
B. Print
C. Manage documents
D. Manage this printer
E. Manage spooler
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows Vista and are members of the domain. A Group Policy object (GPO) configuring a software restriction policy is implemented in the domain to block a specific application.
You upgrade a computer to Windows 8 and implement a GPO that configures an AppLocker rule in the domain. The blocked application runs on the Windows 8 computer but not on the Windows Vista computers.
You need to ensure that the application is blocked from running on all computers and the AppLocker rule is applied to the computers in the domain.
What should you do?
A. Add the blocked application as an additional AppLocker rule to the GPO that configures AppLocker.
B. Run the Get-AppLockerPolicy Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicy Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
D. Configure the software restriction policy as a local policy on the Windows 8 computer.
E. Add the blocked application as a software restriction policy to the GPO that configures AppLocker.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A company has client computers that run Windows 8. Users store data on company-issued USB flash drives.
You establish that users are able to store data on personally owned USB flash drives.
You need to ensure that users can save data on company flash drives but not on personal flash drives.
What should you do?
A. Disable driver signature enforcement.
B. Run Device Manager as an administrator.
C. In the local Group Policy, modify the device installation restrictions.
D. In the system properties for hardware, modify the device installation settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You manage computers that run Windows 8.
You plan to install a desktop app named MarketingApp on one of the client computers.
You need to display a progress bar to the user while installing the app.
Which command should you run?
A. msiexec /i marketingapp.msi Jqn
B. msiexec /i marketingapp.msi /qb
C. msiexec /x marketingapp.msi /qb
D. msiexec /x marketingapp.msi /qn
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A company has 10 client computers that run Windows 8. You are responsible for technical support. You purchase a support tool from the Windows Store while logged in with your Microsoft account.
You install the support tool on several client computers.
Three months later, you attempt to install the support tool on another client computer. The installation fails.
You need to ensure that you can install the support tool on the client computer.
What should you do?
A. Log in with your Microsoft account and remove a computer from the Windows Store device list.
B. On the computer on which you want to install the tool, synchronize the Windows Store application licenses.
C. Disassociate your Microsoft account from the computer on which you want to install the tool. Then reassociate your Microsoft account with the computer.
D. Reset your Microsoft account password.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You update the video card driver on a computer that runs Windows 8.
You can no longer configure the display settings to extend the display to a projector.
You need to restore the display options as quickly as possible and retain all user data.
What should you do?
A. Roll back the video card driver to the previous version.
B. Run the DisplaySwitch/extend command.
C. Run the sic /scannow command.
D. Start the computer from the Windows 8 installation media and perform a system image recovery.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
An organization has client computers that run Windows 7. You upgrade the client computers to Windows 8 without migrating the local user profiles. You install the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (ADK) in the environment.
You need to migrate the user profiles from the Windows 7 installation to the Windows 8.1 installation. 70-744 dumps
What should you do first on each client computer?
A. Run the scanstate command.
B. Run Windows Easy Transfer and select the user profile to migrate
C. Run the Ioadstate command.
D. Copy the Default Profile to a folder on drive C.
E. Run the ImaqeX command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 8.
A local printer is shared from a client computer. The client computer user is a member of the Sales AD security group.
You need to ensure that members of the Sales security group can modify the order of documents in the print queue, but not delete the printer share.
Which permission should you grant to the Sales group?
A. Manage queue
B. Manage this printer
C. Print
D. Manage spooler
E. Manage documents
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 8.
A notification appears when domain users change Windows settings and when applications try to make changes to client computers.
You need to ensure that a notification appears only when an application tries to make changes to the computer.
What should you do?
A. Configure the Notification Area Icons settings on the client computers.
B. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enables the Admin Approval Mode for the builtin Administrator account policy.
C. Configure the User Account Control (UAC) settings on the client computers.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that disables the Run all administrators in Admin Approval Mode policy.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A company has client computers that run Windows 8. The company uses Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption with the data-only option o all client computers.
You need to remove data fragments that exist in the free space on the local computer disk drives, without affecting current user data.
Which command should you run on the computers?
A. BdeHdCfg
B. diskpart
C. chkdsk
D. manage-bde
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
You deploy several tablet PCs that run Windows 8.
You need to minimize power usage when the user presses the sleep button.
What should you do?
A. In Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Hibernate.
B. Disable the C-State control in the computer’s BIOS.
C. Configure the active power plan to set the system cooling policy to passive.
D. In Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Sleep.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
You install Windows 8 on a desktop computer and install a third-party desktop app. The computer runs optimally until you install another third-party desktop app.
You need to remove only the most recently installed third-party desktop app.
You start the computer from a system repair disk.
Which troubleshooting option should you use?
A. System Image Recovery
B. Remove everything and install Windows
C. System Restore
D. Refresh your PC without affecting your files
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
A company has client computers that run Windows 8. Each computer has two hard drives.
You need to create a dynamic volume on each computer that maximizes write performance with data fault tolerance.
Which kind of dynamic volume should you create?
A. Striped Volume
B. RAID 5 Volume
C. Spanned Volume
D. Mirrored Volume
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A company has a main office and three branch offices. The company has 20 portable computers that run Windows 8. Portable computer users can install local devices while in any branch office. 70-744 dumps
Your manager has instructed you to collect information about faulty devices and drivers within the company’s branch offices.
You need to create a performance report that includes a list of incorrectly installed devices by using the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Add counters from each portable computer to Performance Monitor, and then print the Performance Monitor output.
B. Start the System Performance Data Collector Set on each portable computer.
C. Start the System Diagnostics Data Collector Set on each portable computer.
D. Create and start a custom Data Collector Set on each portable computer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A company has 100 client computers that run Windows 8.
The client computers are connected to a corporate private network.
Users are currently unable to connect from their home computers to their work computers by using Remote Desktop.
You need to ensure that users can remotely connect to their office computers by using Remote Desktop. Users must not be able to access any other corporate network resource from their home computers.
What should you do?
A. Configure a Virtual Private Network connection.
B. Configure the Remote Desktop Gateway IP address in the advanced Remote Desktop Connection settings on each client.
C. Configure the local resource settings of the Remote Desktop connection.
D. Configure a DirectAccess connection.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A portable computer that runs Windows 8 uses a mobile broadband connection for the corporate wireless network. The computer also has a wired corporate network connection.
The computer successfully downloads Windows updates when connected to either network.
You need to ensure that the computer automatically downloads updates by using Windows Update only while connected to the wired corporate network connection.
What should you do?
A. Set the corporate wireless network to metered.
B. Set the corporate wireless network to non-metered.
C. Configure the Specify intranet Microsoft update service location local Group Policy setting.
D. Configure a Windows Firewall connection security rule.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You use a centralized identity management system as a source of authority for user account information. You export a list of new user accounts to a file on a daily basis. Your company uses a local Active Directory for storing user accounts for on-premises solutions.
You are configuring the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
New user accounts must be created in both the local Active Directory and Office 365. You must import user account data into Office 365 daily.
You need to import the new users. What should you do?
A. Use the Office 365 admin center to import the file.
B. Create a Windows PowerShell script to import account data from the file into Active Directory.
C. Use the Windows Azure Management Portal to import the file.
D. Create a Windows PowerShell script that uses the MSOnline module to import account data from the file.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You create an Office 365 tenant. You assign administrative roles to other users. You hire a new user named User2.
User2 must NOT be able to change passwords for other users.
You need to assign an administrative role to User2.
Which role should you assign?
A. Service administrator
B. Global administrator
C. Delegate administrator
D. Password administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active Directory (AD) Sync tool. 70-346 dumps
Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active Directory.
You need to synchronize the remaining users.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync $false.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 5
A company has a Windows Server 2008 domain controller and a SharePoint 2007 farm. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008.
You must provide single sign-on for Office 365 SharePoint sites from the company’s network.
You need to install the required software.
What should you install? To answer, drag the appropriate action to the correct location.
Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
70-346 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 6
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You prepare to install Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
You need to open the correct port between the AD FS proxy server and the AD FS federation server.
Which port should you open?
A. TCP 80
B. TCP 135
C. TCP 389
D. TCP 443
E. TCP 636
F. TCP 1723
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A company has an Active Directory Domain Service (AD OS) domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008. You have an on-premises Exchange 2010 server.
The company plans to migrate to Office 365.
In the table below, identify the required action for each phase of the pilot. Make only one selection in each column. 70-346 dumps Each correct selection is worth one point.
70-346 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 8
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012. You plan to install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) proxy server.
You need to install and configure all of the required roles.
Which two roles should you install and configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Web Server (IIS)
B. AD FS
C. Application Server
D. Network Policy and Access Service
E. Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS)
F. Remote Access
Correct Answer: A,B

QUESTION 9
An organization migrates to Office 365.
The Office 365 administrator must be notified when Office 365 maintenance activities are planned.
You need to configure the administrator’s computer to receive the notifications.
What should you configure?
A. Office 365 Management Pack for System Center Operations Manager
B. Service requests
C. Service health page
D. Office 365 Service Health RSS Notifications feed
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You create a new retention policy that contains several retention tags. A user named Test5 has a client computer that runs Microsoft Office Outlook 2007. You install Microsoft Outlook 2010 on the client computer of Test5. Test5 reports that the new retention tags are unavailable from Outlook 2010.
You verify that other users can use the new retention tags. You need to ensure that the new retention tags are available to Test5 from Outlook 2010.
What should you do?
A. Instruct Test5 to repair the Outlook profile.
B. Modify the retention policy tags.
C. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. Force directory synchronization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Contoso, Ltd. plans to use Office 365 for email services and Lync Online. Contoso has four unique domain names.
You need to migrate domain names to Office 365.
Which two domain names should you exclude from the migration? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. contoso.us
B. contoso
C. contoso.local
D. contoso.co
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 12
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company synchronizes the local Active Directory objects with a central identity management system.
The environment has the following characteristics:
– Each department has its own organizational unit (OU).
– The company has OU hierarchies for partner user accounts.
– All user accounts are maintained by the identity management system.
You need to ensure that partner accounts are NOT synchronized with Office 365.
What should you do? 70-346 dumps
A. Configure OU-based filtering by using the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
B. In the Windows Azure Active Directory portal, configure OU-based filtering.
C. Configure user attribute-based filtering by using the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
D. In the Windows Azure Active Directory portal, configure user attribute-based filtering.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A company plans to use Office 365 to provide email services for users.
You need to ensure that a custom domain name is used.
What should you do first?
A. Add the custom domain name to Office 365 and then verify it.
B. Verify the existing domain name.
C. Create an MX record in DNS.
D. Create a CNAME record in DNS.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An organization prepares to implement Office 365.
You have the following requirements:
– Gather information about the requirements for the Office 365 implementation.
– Use a supported tool that provides the most comprehensive information about the current environment.
You need to determine the organization’s readiness for the Office 365 implementation.
What should you do?
A. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Get-MsolCompanylnformation.
B. Run the OnRamp for Office 365 tool.
C. Install the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
D. Run the Office 365 Deployment Readiness Tool.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Contoso Ltd. uses Office 365 for collaboration. You are implementing Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) for single sign-on (SSO) with Office 365 services. The environment contains an Active Directory domain and an AD FS federation server.
You need to ensure that the environment is prepared for the AD FS setup.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure Active Directory to use the domain contoso.com.
B. Configure Active Directory to use the domain contoso.local.
C. Create a server authentication certificate for the federation server by using fs.contoso.com as the subject name and subject alternative name.
D. Create a server authentication certificate for the federation server by using fs.contoso.local as the subject name and subject alternative name.
Correct Answer: A,C

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1Y0-201 dumps
QUESTION 1
Accessing Desktop OS machines in the morning sometimes takes up to 15 minutes from the initial launch attempt up to the point where the Desktop OS machinesare ready for use.
What could a Citrix Administrator do to resolve this issue?
A. Add more Delivery Controllers to balance the load.
B. Execute the Set-BrokerPrivateDesktop PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Add more hosting resources to support the Desktop OS machine load.
D. Configure Power Management to start all Desktop OS machines before the morning shift starts.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which component CANNOT be co-located with Delivery Controller on the same server?
A. SQL Server
B. License Server
C. StoreFront Server
D. Domain Controller
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A Citrix Administrator needs to retrieve a license from a user who has left the organization. Which command should the administrator execute on the License Server to complete this task without retrieving licenses from other users?
A. lmutil
B. lmdown
C. net stop
D. udadmin
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure email alerts on performance threshold events for a XenServer resource pool. 1Y0-201 dumps
Which three types of XenServer alerts could the administrator set in XenCenter? (Choose three.)
A. Disk usage
B. CPU usage
C. Memory usage
D. Network usage
E. Storage I/O usage
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A high number of Desktop OS machines are displaying as \’Unregistered\’ in Citrix Studio. However, Desktop OS machines that are registered are functioning as expected.
What is the likely cause of this issue?
A. The Delivery Controller is unable to register with DNS.
B. The Delivery Controller is NOT configured to trust XML requests.
C. A Digital certificate is NOT installed on the Desktop OS machines.
D. The affected Desktop OS machines are unable to register with DNS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Scenario: Users of the Finance group lost access to their local drive through their desktop-hosted applications. Due to this issue, those users missed a critical deadline. Now management has requested that a Citrix Administrator provide a report of recent changes to the environment.
Which tool could the administrator use to generate a report of recent changes to the environment?
A. Event logs
B. StoreFront
C. Citrix Studio
D. Citrix Director
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Scenario: Users in an environment access hosted applications from thin clients connected to overhead projectors. Some of these users have complained about delays and interruptions in the video playing when viewing videos that require Adobe Flash player.
Where could a Citrix Administrator gather information to resolve this issue?
A. Logging node in Citrix Studio
B. Session Detail in Citrix Director
C. Activity Manager in Citrix Director
D. Event logs on the Delivery Controller
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to add a new application to an existing XenDesktop Delivery Group. The application must only be available to the Human Resources (HR) user group. How could the administrator meet the requirements of the scenario?
A. By creating a new Group Policy Object and setting security to the HR user group
B. By editing the application in Citrix Studio and limiting the visibility to the HR user group
C. By creating a new Citrix HDX Policy in Citrix Studio and filtering the policy to allow access to the HR user group only
D. By creating a new application folder in Citrix Studio for the HR user group and moving the application to the new folder
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator implemented pooled-random Desktop OS machines with Personal vDisk for the executive staff. 1Y0-201 dumps The CIO is concerned about the retention of his vDisk. Which tool should the administrator use to implement vDisk retention?
A. ctxpvd.exe
B. PowerShell
C. Citrix Studio
D. Citrix Director
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator uses Provisioning Services to deploy a Windows 7 image in Standard mode. After updating the hosting infrastructure to the latest version, the XenServer tools within the vDisk need to be updated. Which method could the administrator use to update the XenServer tools?
A. Reverse the image and install tools.
B. Clone the master target device and install tools.
C. Place the vDisk in Private image mode and install tools.
D. Enable maintenance mode on the Delivery Group and install tools.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator who works for a hospital receives a request to set the display quality settings to the maximum possible quality for reviewing MRI scans. The hospital is using HDX 3D Pro within a XenDesktop 7.6 deployment.
What should the administrator do to enhance the display quality as required in the scenario?
A. Enable the Lossless policy
B. Enable the HDX3DPro Quality Settings policy
C. Apply the CLI command xevgpu-create vm-uuid=andlt;uuidandgt;
D. Create a new catalog for the HDX 3D Pro Desktop OS machines
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Scenario: An employee attempts to log in to a Desktop OS machine and receives the following error: Startup Failed Personal vDisk failed to start Status Code: 15 How could a Citrix Administrator resolve this issue?
A. Change the startup order.
B. Restart the Desktop OS machine.
C. Run an inventory update on the Desktop OS machine.
D. Reconfigure the Virtual Delivery Agent of the affected Desktop OS machine.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
In which node within Citrix Studio could a Citrix Administrator modify the operating system type for Machine Creation Services?
A. Hosting
B. Policies
C. Controllers
D. Machine Catalogs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Scenario: Due to changes in the network infrastructure, the IP addresses of the Delivery Controllers will be changing.
There are 2000 Desktop OS machines in the environment.
What should a Citrix Administrator do to reduce the impact of the IP address changes on the environment?
A. Update the beacons in StoreFront to reflect the updated IP addresses.
B. Change the DNS entries for the Delivery Controllers to the new IP addresses.
C. Run the Provisioning Services Configuration Wizard and update the IP addresses of the Delivery Controllers.
D. Remove the Delivery Controller from the site, change the host file entries, and add the Delivery Controller back to the site.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which report could a Citrix Administrator run to determine the number of users that have used Microsoft Visio in the last two months?
A. Logon Performance
B. ConcurrentSessions
C. Hosted Application Usage
D. Failed Server OS Machines
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Scenario: A user\’s Desktop OS machine with Personal vDisk (PvD) is unresponsive. The user needs to access applications installed on the PvD urgently, due to an important deadline. 1Y0-201 dumps
How could a Citrix Administrator resolve this issue?
A. Use Citrix Director to reset the PvD
B. Use Citrix Studio to restore the user\’s initial settings.
C. Run the ctxpvd.exe command on the user\’s system.
D. Run a PowerShell cmdlet to restore the user\’s PvD to a new virtual machine.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Where in Citrix Director could a Citrix Administrator validate that Flash Redirection is enabled?
A. User Details
B. Activity Monitor
C. The Network tab
D. The Sessions tab
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Scenario: An application that renders locally and creates a large number of temporary files on the local drive is installed on the Desktop OS machines. A Citrix Administrator creates a vDisk in Private mode with this application installed. The administrator is in the process of updating a vDisk from Private mode to Standard mode and needs to determine the write cache type.
Which cache type would provide the best performance?
A. Cache on server
B. Cache on device hard drive
C. Cache on device hard drive encrypted
D. Cache in device RAM with overflow on hard disk
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to reduce power consumption during off-peak hours. With the current configuration, the Desktop OS machines will remain powered-on when users disconnect at the end of the workday. How could the administratorreduce power consumption during off-peak hours?
A. Use the PowerShell cmdlet: Set-BrokerDesktopGroup.
B. Set the Reboot Schedule policy from within Citrix Studio.
C. Create a shutdown scheduled task on the Desktop OS machines.
D. Configure Power Management settings in an Active Directory Group Policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Scenario: When remote users attempt to log on through NetScaler Gateway, they are presented with the following error message:
\’Cannot Complete your Request.\’
When the same users are in the office, they are able to log on successfully. What should a Citrix Administrator change to resolve this issue?
A. The Callback URL to match the external URL of the NetScaler Gateway.
B. The NetScaler Gateway Authentication method to \’Enable Pass-through\’.
C. The StoreFront URL to match the external URL of the NetScaler Gateway.
D. The External Beacon address to match the external URL of the NetScaler Gateway.
Correct Answer: B

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