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QUESTION 1

Which deployment action is performed using the vRealize Easy Installer?

A. Register vRealize Automation with VMware Identity Manager
B. Install vCenter Server
C. Register vRealize Automation with vCenter Single Sign-On
D. Install vRealize Operations
Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/8.1/installing-vrealize-automationeasyinstaller/GUID-77B713C5-0CD5-40C6-ADA0-9FAE84766661.html

QUESTION 2

Which vRealize Automation service allows an administrator to import released blueprints and Amazon Web Services
CloudFormation templates that users can deploy?

A. Orchestrator
B. Code Stream
C. Cloud Assembly
D. Service Broker
Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/8.0/Getting-Started-ServiceBroker/GUID8DDBB69B-6316-40FC-B584-C4F89643FA27.html

QUESTION 3

An administrator needs to import Cloud Assembly blueprints into Service Broker.
What are two pre-requisite steps that must be performed in Cloud Assembly? (Choose two.)

A. Clone the blueprint.
B. Test the blueprint.
C. Release the blueprint to Service Broker.
D. Version the blueprint.
E. Download the blueprint to Service Broker.
Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Service-Broker/services/Using-andManaging/GUID4D1352FD-5D19-4955-9CF3-9CB05063C401.html

QUESTION 4

Which command would an administrator run to access the logs for a specific service?
A. vracli logs -n prelude
B. kubectl logs -n prelude
C. docker logs –tail
D. kubectl -n prelude get pods
Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.stevenbright.com/2020/01/vmware-vrealize-automation-8-0-logs/

QUESTION 5

Which vRealize Automation service is only available through an external appliance in vRealize Automation Cloud?

A. Code Stream
B. Cloud Assembly
C. Service Broker
D. vRealize Orchestrator
Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/management/2019/10/vrealize-automation-new-install-andconfiguration.html

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

VMware 3v0-31.20 exam questions q6

The App-Dev team requests that IT provide them with a multi-cloud catalog where they can use self-service to deploy
their own development workloads without needing to raise a work order with the IT team. The company security policy
requires that users be granted the least privileges necessary to fulfill their role.

Within vRealize Automation (vRA), the administrator successfully updates the existing directory configuration to include the App-Dev-User group and then uses the Enterprise Groups feature to assign both organization and service roles to the App-Dev team.

The administrator then logs into vRA, creates a dedicated App-Dev project and adds the appropriate development cloud zones, synchronizes the standardized blueprints from GitHub and releases them to Service Broker, and configures the content sources so they show up in the service catalog.

The administrator checks and is able to see
the blueprints and requests that the App-Dev team leader login and access the catalog.

The App-Dev team leader
replies with the attached screenshot and requests more information about where to find the service catalog.

Which two actions should the administrator take within Identity and Access Management to resolve the access issue for the App-Dev team? (Choose two.)

A. Change the assigned organization role to Member.
B. Change the assigned organization role to Owner.
C. Assign the Service Broker Administrator service role.
D. Assign the Service Broker User service role.
E. Assign the Cloud Assembly User service role.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7

An administrator for vRealize Automation configures the cloud-config section of the machine definition in a blueprint. The templates to be used with the blueprint are properly configured to support cloud-init.

At which point in the provisioning process will the cloud-init code be executed?

A. Upon first boot and during any day 2 restart operation
B. Upon first boot and any time the blueprint is updated and re-applied to existing deployments
C. Upon first boot of the virtual machine only
D. Upon first boot and again after a reboot which occurs during the initial provisioning of the virtual machine
Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://vnuggets.com/2020/01/29/vra-with-cloud-init-and-static-networking/

QUESTION 8

An administrator is building a blueprint to allow users to select a cloud type.
The cloud type options are: Amazon Web Services vSphere

Where will the administrator configure capability tags so that the proper compute is selected at the time of deployment?

A. Projects
B. Cloud Accounts
C. Cloud Zones
D. Network Profile
Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/8.1/Using-and-Managing-Cloud-Assembly/
GUID-8E630DEA-4732-45FC-9655-6933D55818C1.html

QUESTION 9

In a vRealize Automation clustered deployment, how many Kubernetes master nodes are configured during the
installation?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Zero
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

After collecting a log bundle using the vracli CLI command, the resulting .tar file contains many paths and files.
Where will the administrator find the logs related specifically to the embedded vRealize Orchestrator?

A. //var/log/vco
B. /pods/prelude/extensibility-ui-app

C. /pods/kube-system/
D. /pods/prelude/vco-app

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/8.0/Administering/GUIDEB314825-845A4F31-8155-53F99F0B7B3C.html

QUESTION 11

While deploying a virtual machine blueprint, an administrator encounters the following error: Error:
com.vmware.xenon.common.LocalizableValidationException: Unable to find a valid subnet for network
\’Network_External\’ of type \’EXISTING\’ with constraints \'[dc:metro, tier:1]\’, reasons: [Network profile \’publicnet /
Metro\’ was skipped because [Network [Network_External] allocation: cannot allocate a network with static IP ranges
for profile \’public net / Metro\’.]]

Where should the administrator start to troubleshoot?

A. Cloud Zones
B. Projects
C. Network Profiles
D. Tags
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

An administrator creates a content source and would like to share all the imported blueprints dynamically with the
project members.

Which content sharing option should the administrator select to achieve this?

A. All Content
B. Static Content
C. Dynamic Content
D. Content Sources
Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/8.0/Using-and-Managing-Service-Broker/
GUID-4D1352FD-5D19-4955-9CF3-9CB05063C401.html

QUESTION 13

Does an administrator configure three different storage profiles? Gold Storage, Silver Storage, and Bronze Storage. When requesting a specific blueprint, a Service Broker user should be able to select either storage.

Which type of tag should the administrator add to the storage profile to support this requirement?

A. Constraint tag
B. Capability tag
C. Standard tag
D. Storage tag
Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/7.0/vmware-vsphere-withtanzu/GUID544286A2-A403-4CA5-9C73-8EFF261545E7.html

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QUESTION 1

An architect is helping an organization with the Physical Design of an NSX-T Data Center solution.
This information was gathered during a workshop about ESXi Host networking:
A total of 50 ESXi hosts are to be configured as Transport Nodes.
All ESXi hosts have a dedicated 2 × Intel 10Gbps Physical Network adapter for the Overlay Traffic.
To achieve low latency, high throughput, redundancy, and performance, which two NIC teaming policies
should the architect recommend? (Choose two.)

A. Load Balance Source MAC
B. Load Balance Port ID
C. Load Balance Source
D. Load Balance Source Port ID
E. Failover Order
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2

An architect is helping an organization with the Conceptual Design of an NSX-T Data Center solution.
Which three selections are requirements documented by an architect? (Choose three.)

A. Aggregate N-S throughput at any given time should be at least 10G.
B. All traffic should recover in the event of Host/Rack/ToR failure.
C. Hardware is 5 years old and new hardware is already purchased.
D. SAN storage has enough capacity to build the new infrastructure.
E. Business-critical applications should have an SLA of 99.99%.
F. The Development Team is heavy on API usage.
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 3

A customer deploying NSX-T Data Center requires role-based access controls to be enforced in NSX Manager with these requirements: identity platform must be highly available authentication must be performed by customer\’s existing SAML identity provider MFA must be performed by the administrator to gain access to NSX Manager
Which identity deployments would meet the customer\’s requirements? (Choose the best answer.)

A. NSX Manager OAuth 2.0 registered to a 3-node Active Directory Federation Services cluster.
B. NSX Manager OAuth 2.0 registered to a 2-node VMware Identity Manager cluster.
C. NSX Manager OAuth 2.0 registered to a 2-node Active Directory Federation Services cluster
D. NSX Manager OAuth 2.0 registered to a 3-node VMware Identity Manager cluster.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

A telecom company has purchased NSX-T as part of a Software-Defined Data Center (SDDC) initiative. The company
wants to ensure the highest performance for network traffic leaving the virtual environment.
Which two selections would an architect recommend to achieve the customer\’s goal? (Choose two.)

A. Configure Equal-Cost Multi-Pathing on the NSX Edges.
B. Configure SR-IOV for the virtual NSX Edges.
C. Use bare metal NSX Edges.
D. Select Network cards that support VXLAN Offload.
E. Set the “Latency Sensitive” option to High when deploying the virtual NSX Edges.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5

Which two protocols are typically used for multicast in an NSX-T Data Center environment? (Choose two.)

A. PIM Full Form
B. PIM Dense Mode
C. IGMPv2
D. PIM Sparse mode
E. IGMPv3
Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-T-Data-Center/3.0/administration/GUID-6AAC33604F79-4FBFBCC1-0D8C220B0621.html

QUESTION 6

An architect is helping an organization with the Physical Design of an NSX-T Data Center solution. This information was
gathered during a workshop: Some workloads should be moved to a Cloud Provider. Extend network\’s VLAN or VNI across sites on the same broadcast domain. Enable VM mobility use cases such as migration and disaster recovery without IP address changes. Support 1500 byte MTU between sites.
Which selection should the architect include in their design? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Create a vSphere Distributed Switch (vDS) for Management VMkernel traffic and assign one NIC. Also, create an
NSX-T Virtual Distributed Switch (N-VDS) for overlay traffic and assign one NIC.
B. Create an NSX-T Virtual Distributed Switch (N-VDS) for Management VMkernel traffic and assign one NIC. Also,
create an NSX-T Virtual Distributed Switch (N-VDS) for overlay traffic and assign one NIC.
C. Create an NSX-T Virtual Distributed Switch (N-VDS) for Management VMKernel and overlay traffic and assign both
NICs.
D. Create an NSX-T Virtual Distributed Switch (N-VDS) for Management VMkernel and overlay traffic and assign a new
virtual NIC.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Which is a family of solutions for data center designs that span computes, storage, networking, and management,
serving as a blueprint for a customer\’s Software-Defined Data Center (SDDC) implementations? (Choose the best
answer
.)

A. VMware SDDC Design
B. VMware Validated Design
C. VMware POC Design
D. VMware Cloud Foundation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

An architect is helping an organization with the Physical Design of an NSX-T Data Center solution.
This information was gathered during a workshop: Migrating existing data centers to KVM hosts. Redundancy and high availability are required. No component can be a single point of failure.

Which selection should the architect recommend? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Linux Bridge redundancy with Active/Active Mode and multiple NICs with necessary binding
B. Linux Bridge redundancy with Active/Active Mode and single pNIC with static binding
C. vSS/vDS in Active/Standby Mode with necessary binding
D. vSS/vDS in Active/Active Mode with necessary pNICS and required binding modes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

A Solutions Architect is assisting a service provider with designing an NSX-T Data Center solution for these
environments:
Virtual Data Center to Virtual Data Center connectivity Tenant workload onboarding to Virtual Data Centers.
These requirements must be met:
scalability across 5 data centers all sites have a latency of 180ms MTU between sites is 1800 bandwidth is 100Mbps
between sites multi-tenancy

Which two selections should the Solutions Architect propose to the service provider? (Choose two.)

D. Configure IPSec VPN for Tenant T1 ga

A. Configure Remote TEPs for stretching network services between Virtual Data Centers.
B. Utilize SSL VPN for workloads on-boarding from on-premises to Virtual Data Centers.
C. Configure IPSec VPN for Tenant T0 gateways for Virtual Data Centers connectivity.
D. Configure IPSec VPN for Tenant T1 gateways for Virtual Data Centers connectivity.
E. Utilize L2 VPN for workloads on-boarding from on-premises to Virtual Data Centers.

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10

An architect is helping an organization with the Physical Design of an NSX-T Data Center solution.
This information was gathered during a workshop: Any proposed solution must provide low latency. Any proposed solution must provide high throughput. The customer is running stock trading applications.

Which two selections should the architect recommend to meet high-performance workload requirements? (Choose
two
.)

A. Leverage ESXi as the compute host.
B. Use LACP for all uplink profiles.
C. Leverage KVM as the compute host.
D. Enable enhanced data path mode on the N-VDS.
E. Enable latency sensitivity mode on the N-VDS.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11

An architect is helping an organization with the Logical Design of an NSX-T Data Center solution. This information was gathered during the assessment: There must be a performance-based SLA for East-West traffic.

Which two key performance features should the architect recommend? (Choose two.)

A. Configure N-VDS enhanced Data Path
B. Install advanced Edge pNIC Features
C. Setup RSS to leverage multiple cores
D. Leverage DPDK drivers
E. Enable GENEVE Offload
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12

An architect is helping an organization with the Logical Design of an NSX-T Data Center solution. This information was gathered during the Assessment Phase:

The customer is concerned with the NSX Manager’s availability.

3 cabinets/racks are available in the data center.

No integration with 3rd party solution is required.

There is no budget for physical equipment acquisition.

The 3 cabinets/racks do not share the same L2 domain.

Which three selections should the architect include in their design to address the customer\’s concern with NSX Manager availability? (Choose three.)

A. Deploy 2 cold standby NSX Manager appliances in rack 2/3.
B. Use separate IP per NSX Manager appliance per rack.
C. Use another NSX Manager IP in case an appliance fails.
D. Deploy a single active NSX Manager appliance in rack 1.
E. Deploy an NSX Manager Appliance per rack and cluster them.
F. Use a physical/internal load-balancer with the cluster.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 13

Which selection must be taken into consideration when creating a Logical Design for a planned migration? (Choose the
best answer
.)

A. An N-VDS can only attach to a single Overlay transport zone.
B. An N-VDS can only attach to a single VLAN transport zone.
C. An N-VDS can attach to both an Overlay and a VLAN transport zone to an N-VDS having different name/s.
D. An N-VDS must be disabled before attaching both Overlay and VLAN transport zones.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A user is assigned these two roles in NSX Manager:
LB Admin Network Engineer What privileges does this user have in the system?
A. read permissions on all networking services and full access permissions on load balancing features
B. full access permissions on all networking services and full access permissions on load balancing features
C. full access permissions on all networking services and read permissions on load balancing features
D. read permissions on all networking services and read permissions on load balancing features
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which component does the hyperbus interface (vmk50) provide network connectivity to?
A. containers running on ESXi/KVM transport nodes
B. virtual machines and containers running across transport nodes
C. virtual machines running on the same hypervisor
D. virtual machines running in the same segment
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
What are the advantages of using a Tier-0 Gateway in ECMP mode? (Choose two.)
A. stateful services leveraged
B. Failover of services
C. traffic predictability
D. traffic load balancing
E. increased north/south bandwidth
Correct Answer: DE
From ICM manual:
Equal-cost multipath (ECMP) routing has several features and functions:
1.
ECMP routing increases the north-south communication bandwidth by combining multiple uplinks.
2.
ECMP routing performs traffic load balancing.
3.
ECMP routing provides fault tolerance for failed paths.
4.
A maximum of eight ECMP paths are supported.
5.
Hashing is based on 2-tuple IP source and destination addresses.
6.
ECMP routing is only available on Tier-0 gateways.

 

QUESTION 4
Which three services are compatible with VRF Lite? (Choose three.)
A. VPN
B. Intrusion Detection
C. NAT
D. Load Balancer
E. DHCP
Correct Answer: BCE
VRF Lite is not compatible with the following services:
1.
VPN
2.
Load Balancer
Taken from NSX-T ICM 3.0 Lecture Manual.


QUESTION 5
A customer is preparing to deploy VMware Kubernetes on an NSX-T Data Center.
What is the minimum MTU size for the UPLINK profile?
A. 1500
B. 1650
C. 1550
D. 1600
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
What are three NSX Manager roles? (Choose three.)
A. cloud
B. manager
C. zookeeper
D. policy
E. master
F. controller
Correct Answer: BDF

 

QUESTION 7
An NSX administrator has observed connectivity issues between the NSX Manager and the KVM Transport Node.
Which two log files could be used to troubleshoot the issue on the KVM Transport Node? (Choose two.)
A. /var/log/vmware/nsx-syslog
B. /usr/vmware/log/syslog
C. /var/log/nsx/syslog
D. /usr/vmware/nsx-syslog
E. /var/log/syslog
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 8
An NSX administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue with virtual machines running on an ESXi transport node.
Which feature in the NSX UI shows the mapping between the virtual NIC and the host\\’s physical adapter?
A. Switch Visualization
B. Port Mirroring
C. Activity Monitoring
D. IPFIX
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A DevOps user has deployed a Kubernetes Pod in vSphere.
What does the term ClusterIP represent within NSX-T?
A. Deployment of T1 with NLB service.
B. Deployment of Distributed Router.
C. Deployment of Distributed Load Balancing service.
D. Deployment of T0 and T1
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
Which CLI command would an administrator use to allow syslog on an ESXi transport node when using the esxcli
utility?
A. esxcli network firewall ruleset -e syslog
B. esxcli network firewall ruleset set -a -e false
C. esxcli network firewall ruleset set -r syslog -e true
D. esxcli network firewall ruleset set -r sysloq -e false
Correct Answer: C
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-T-Data-Center/2.2/nsxt_22_troubleshoot.pdf

 

QUESTION 11
Which two choices are prerequisites to configure NSX-T on VDS? (Choose two.)
A. MTU 1500
B. MTU 1400
C. vSphere Distributed Switch 6.5
D. vSphere Distributed Switch 7.0
E. MTU 1600
Correct Answer: DE
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-T-Data-Center/3.0/installation/GUIDBA34FB2A-6780-41C5B895-F37E5A7B7BAE.html

 

QUESTION 12
An NSX administrator would like to configure syslog for a KVM transport node.
Which host log files could be exported to a remote syslog server?
A. /var/log/vmware/nsx-syslog
B. /var/log/cfgAgent.log
C. /var/log/nsx-audit.log
D. /var/log/cloudnet/nsx-ccp.log
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
An NSX Administrator has created a segment named WEB-LS from the NSX UI and noticed the segment is not realized
on the KVM Transport node.
What are two possible causes for this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The KVM Transport node has hardware issues and will not realize the WEB-LS Segment.
B. Since the Compute Manager is disconnected in NSX UI, the WEB-LS segment will not be realized on the KVM
Transport Node.
C. The virtual machines running on the KVM Transport Node are connected to the WEB-LS segment, but are in
Powered Off state.
D. The virtual machines running on the KVM Transport Node are not connected to the VDS.
E. The virtual machines running on the KVM Transport Node are not connected to the WEB-LS Segment.
Correct Answer: BE

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Free one-part VMware 3V0-21.21 exam practice questions and answers

QUESTION 1
An architect is designing a new greenfield environment that will install ESXi on local disks. There is a requirement to
streamline initial and future installations of ESXi hosts.
Which configuration option should the architect recommend for installing ESXi hosts to meet these requirements?
A. Installation with kick start script
B. Auto Deploy with stateless caching mode
C. Manual installation using boot from SAN
D. Auto Deploy with stateful install mode
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
An architect is designing a new vSphere platform to meet a list of requirements from the security team.
Which two requirements would be classified as non-functional requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Migration of virtual machines between hosts must be encrypted
B. Log information must be verbose to support incident resolution
C. Critical events generated within the platform must be logged to an external Syslog service
D. Data integrity must be ensured
E. A common content library must be maintained across all data centers
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 3
An architect is designing a vSphere environment for a customer based on the following information:
The vSphere cluster will have three hosts only due to budget considerations.
A database cluster (node majority) consisting of three virtual machines will be running on the vSphere
cluster.
Which two recommendations can the architect make so that the customer achieves the highest level of
application availability while taking into consideration operational resiliency? (Choose two.)
A. Create VM-VM anti-affinity rules
B. Set das.respectvmvmantiaffinityrules to false
C. Create VM-Host anti-affinity rules
D. Disable vSphere HA during maintenance
E. Set das.ignoreinsufficienthbdatastore to true
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 4
An architect is designing a solution for an environment with two types of resource profiles that must be virtualized. The
first type consists of Tier 1 virtual machines that are disk I/O intensive, but do NOT require high CPU or memory. The
second type consists of Tier 2 virtual machines that require a lower CPU and memory allocation and have minimal disk
I/O.
Which design recommendation should the architect make for distributing the resource profiles?
A. Separate the two resource profiles into two clusters. The Tier 1 cluster will have fast storage while the Tier 2 cluster
will not.
B. Run both resource profiles on the same cluster with the same host hardware platform.
C. Separate the two resource profiles into two clusters. The Tier 2 cluster will have faster CPU and more memory while
the Tier 1 cluster will have slower CPU and less memory but more disk space.
D. Run both resource profiles on the same cluster with host hardware that has fast CPU, large amounts of memory, and
the fastest storage platform.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
There is a request for approved virtual machine applications through a new vSphere platform\\’s integrated
automation portal. The platform was built following all provided company security guidelines and has been
assessed against Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (SOX) regulations.
The platform has the following characteristics:
vRealize Operations is being used to monitor all clusters.
There is a dedicated ESXi cluster, supporting all management services.
-All network traffic is via distributed virtual switches (DVS).
There is a dedicated ESXi cluster for all line-of-business applications.

Network traffic is serviced by NSX-T.
There is a dedicated ESXi cluster for virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI).

Network traffic is serviced by NSX-T.
The application owner is requesting approval to install a new service that must be protected as per the Payment Card
Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard.
Which additional non-functional requirement should the architect include in the design to support the new service?
A. The vSphere hosting platform and all PCI application virtual machines must be assessed against Payment Card
Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard compliance.
B. The vSphere hosting platform and all PCI application virtual machines must be assessed for SOX compliance.
C. The vSphere hosting platform and all PCI application virtual machine network traffic must be routed via NSX-T.
D. The vSphere hosting platform and all PCI application virtual machines must be monitored using the vRealize
Operations Compliance Pack for Payment Card Industry.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
An architect is designing a new vSphere platform for a customer to meet the following requirements:
The platform must be deployed into five physically separate sites.
The sites are spread across multiple regions.
Some sites require more than one vCenter Server.
The platform must provide an administrator with the ability to access virtual infrastructure components
across all sites from a single management tool instance.
Which single sign-on (SSO) design recommendation will meet these requirements?
A. Use an SSO domain across all vCenter Server instances
B. Use an SSO domain per region
C. Use an SSO domain per vCenter Server instance
D. Use an SSO domain per site
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
The Chief Operating Officer (COO) at an organization raises concerns that their virtual infrastructure environment is
vulnerable. Recently, a security-related issue with a virtual machine caused all management services to become
unavailable. No budget is available in the short term for additional platform investment. An architect is asked to review
the current environment and make recommendations to mitigate concerns.
A virtualization administrator has provided the following details: There is a single four node cluster of ESXi servers
There are two, Layer 2, physical network switches connecting resources The data center network is presented as a
single /16 subnet
Given the information provided, which functional requirement should the architect include in the design to mitigate the
COOs concerns?
A. The virtual infrastructure environment must connect application virtual machines and management services to new
physical network switches
B. The virtual infrastructure environment must connect application virtual machines and management services to
separate distributed virtual switches (DVS)
C. The virtual infrastructure environment must connect application virtual machines and management services to
separate VLANs
D. The virtual infrastructure environment must connect management services to a vSphere standard switch (VSS)
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
In a meeting to discuss the minimum viable product (MVP) deployment of a new customer-facing application, the key
stakeholder shares details of the application components and the application administrators share details of
performance and integrity tests for the application.
The application will be made up of the following components: A web server

Steps to confirm the web server is operating correctly will take 15 minutes after the application server is online. An
application server

Steps to confirm application server integrity will take 15 minutes after the database is online. A database server
-The database server will be managed by a database administrator, with an agreed service-level agreement (SLA) to
restore and validate database services within one hour.
The existing VMware infrastructure offers a recovery point objective (RPO) of 5 minutes and recovery time objective
(RTO) of 15 minutes through a combination of backups and replication.
In the event of an outage impacting all three application components, how long will it take for the application to recover
and complete all checks?
A. 15 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 105 minutes
D. 90 minutes
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
An architect is tasked with expanding an existing VMware software-defined data center (SDDC) solution so that it can
be used to deliver a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) service off-shore development activities.
The production environment is currently delivered across two geographically dispersed data centers. The two data
centers are currently connected to each other through multiple diversely routed, high bandwidth and low latency links.
The current operations management components are deployed to a dedicated management cluster that is configured
with N+1 redundancy. The current VMware software-defined data center (SDDC) has a monthly availability target of
99.5%, which includes all management components.
The customer requires that the new solution scale to support the concurrent running of 500 persistent virtual desktops.
The virtual desktops must not share the same virtual infrastructure as existing virtual machines, but can be managed
using the same VMware operations management components. Any new VDI service management components must be
installed into the management cluster. There is no requirement to back up the virtual desktops because all relevant user
data is stored centrally. The VDI service is providing business critical services and must have an availability target of
99.9%.
Given the information from the customer, which two assumptions would the architect include in the design? (Choose
two.)
A. The existing virtual infrastructure has sufficient capacity to host the new VDI workloads
B. The existing operations monitoring tools have sufficient capacity to monitor the new VDI services
C. The existing management cluster has enough available capacity to host any VDI service management component
D. The management cluster has N+1 redundancy
E. The VDI service has a higher service-level agreement (SLA) than the operations management SLA
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 10
A new vSphere platform is being created. The platform will host virtual machines that will run management services and
line-of-business applications.
What should the architect consider when designing the number and type of clusters required?
A. Maximum tolerable downtime
B. Predicted platform growth
C. Auditing requirements for the virtual machines
D. The level of isolation required between virtual machine classifications
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
An architect is preparing a design for a company planning digital transformation. During the requirements
gathering workshop, the following requirements (REQ) and constraints (CON) are identified:
REQ01 The platform must host different types of workloads including applications that must be compliant
with internal security standard.
REQ02 The infrastructure must initially run 100 virtual machines.
REQ03 Ten of the virtual machines must be compliant with internal security standard.
REQ04 The internal security standard specifies logical network separation for in-scope applications.
CON01 The customer has already purchased the licenses as part of another project.
CON02 The customer has five physical servers that must be reused.
Additionally, based on resource requirements, four physical servers will be enough to run all workloads.
Which recommendation should the architect make to meet requirements while minimizing project costs?
A. Use Network I/O Control to ensure the internal security zone has higher share value
B. Purchase additional servers and plan separate, isolated clusters for workloads that must be compliant with internal
security
C. Use a single cluster and ensure that different security zones are separated at least with dedicated VLANs and
firewall
D. Use a single cluster and configure DRS anti-affinity rules to ensure internal security compliant virtual machines
cannot migrate between ESXi hosts.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
During a requirements gathering workshop, the architect shares the following diagram:VMware 3v0-21.21 exam questions q12

What should the architect recommend for guaranteed throughput for each service?
A. Use explicit failover order with pNIC0 as Active for ESXi Management and VM Network Use explicit failover order
with pNIC1 as Active for backup network Use explicit failover order with pNIC2 as Active for vMotion Use explicit failover
order with pNIC3 as Active for replication
B. Use the Route Based on IP Hash for ESXi management and VM network Use the Route Based on IP Hash for
backup network Use the Route Based on the Originating Virtual Port for vMotion Use failover with pNIC3 as Active for
replication
C. Create a link aggregation group (LAG) for vDS_01 Use the Route Based on Physical NIC Load for vMotion Use the
Route Based on Physical NIC Load for replication
D. Use the Route Based on IP Hash for ESXi management and VM network Use failover with pNIC1 as Active for
backup network Create a link aggregation group (LAG) for vDS_02
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
A customer provides the following list of requirements for their vSphere platform:
REQ01 The solution should utilize dual network connections to eliminate single points of failure.
REQ02 The solution should allow logs to be retained for a period of 30 days.
REQ03 All user access to the platform should be recorded for audit purposes.
REQ04 The solution should allow the management of multiple ESXi hosts.
REQ05 The solution should allow users to view the remote console of virtual machines.
Which two of the listed requirements would be classified as non-functional requirements? (Choose two.)
A. The solution should utilize dual network connections to eliminate single points of failure
B. The solution should allow the management of multiple ESXi hosts
C. The solution should allow users to view the remote console of virtual machines
D. All user access to the platform should be recorded for audit purposes
E. The solution should allow logs to be retained for a period of 30 days
Correct Answer: BE


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QUESTION 1
Which vSphere feature provides for continuous local data center availability? (Choose the best answer.)
A. vSphere Fault Tolerance
B. Cross vCenter Migration
C. vSphere Storage vMotion
D. vSphere Replication
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://virtualizationreview.com/articles/2015/03/09/vsphere-6-fault-tolerance.aspx

QUESTION 2
In a vSphere High Availability (vSphere HA) cluster, which condition can be detected by datastore heartbeating?
(Choose the best answer.)
A. Fault tolerance virtual machine (VM) failover
B. Network isolation
C. Virtual machine (VM) disk failure
D. Datastore All Paths Down (APD) event
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/vsphere-esxi-vcenter-server-65-availability-guide.pdf
(19)

QUESTION 3
Which solution can be used to automatically deploy a fully configured VMware software-defined data center (SDDC)?
(Choose the best answer.)
A. vCenter Server
B. vRealize Suite
C. vSphere Lifecycle Manager
D. VMware Cloud Foundation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What determines the default bandwidth share allocation for system traffic, such as vSphere Fault Tolerance and
vSphere vMotion? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Physical network adapter
B. Network I/O Control version
C. Virtual machine hardware version
D. Load-balancing
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMwarevSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.networking.doc/GUID26AAAFA4-BFD3-4D72-AEC8-55F4CF439DC0.html

QUESTION 5
How many vSphere Trust Authority Clusters can a Trusted Cluster reference? (Choose the best answer.)
A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 2
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/7.0/com.vmware.vsphere.security.doc/GUID-E4945A3BBCBE-42ADA00F-6A6957217041.html

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

VMware 2v0-21.20 exam questions q6

An administrator is consistently receiving an alarm regarding a CPU performance issue; however, there is NO CPU
issue identified.
What can the administrator do to make sure the alarm is triggered when there is an actual CPU performance issue?
(Choose the best answer.)
A. Change ‘VM CPU Ready Time’ to ‘VM Memory Usage.’
B. Change ‘Show as Critical’ to ‘Show as Warning.’
C. Change ‘VM CPU Ready Time’ to ‘VM CPU Usage.’
D. Change ‘is below’ to ‘is above.’
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A vSphere environment is configured with 1 Gigabit Ethernet for vSphere vMotion. The application team is complaining
that when they try to migrate a powered-on virtual machine, the progress is slow and unsuccessful the majority of the
time.
Which two recommendations should the administrator make to improve vSphere vMotion performance? (Choose two.)
A. Use at least two port groups.
B. Use vSphere Storage I/O Control (SIOC).
C. Use 10 Gigabit Ethernet or above.
D. Use Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) on the port group.
E. Disable vSphere Fault Tolerance.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
How does vSphere handle memory allocation during the instant clone process? (Choose the best answer.)
A. The first child virtual machine serves as a memory snapshot for any subsequent child virtual machines.
B. An identical clone of the parent virtual machine\\’s memory is created for each child virtual machine
C. Memory is shared among all child virtual machines using a delta disk.
D. A unique memory pool is created per child virtual machine using copy-on-write.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which VMware feature should an administrator configure to help manage and delegate CPU and memory resources?
(Choose the best answer.)
A. VMware Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC)
B. Resource pools
C. vSphere Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)
D. vSphere High Availability (HA)
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.0/vsphere-esxi-vcenter-server-601-resourcemanagementguide.pdf

QUESTION 10
An administrator wants to enable bandwidth allocation for workloads by using Network I/O Control.
What should the administrator configure to accomplish this? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Management traffic
B. Virtual machine traffic
C. Load-balancing
D. NIC teaming policy
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMwarevSphere/6.7/com.vmware.vsphere.networking.doc/GUIDE13CC2B0-5357-4261-8C0E-8BE5BD56BD20.html

QUESTION 11
An administrator is utilizing Network I/O Control (NIOC) to allocate bandwidth utilization on a physical 10 Gbps adapter.
What is the maximum amount of bandwidth that can be reserved? (Choose the best answer.)
A. 2.5 Gbps
B. 10 Gbps
C. 5.0 Gbps
D. 7.5 Gbps
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-T-DataCenter/2.4/installation/GUID-9A8FD62AF099-4329-8220-6D5853F9A62D.html (note)

QUESTION 12
What is the foundation of a software-defined data center (SDDC)? (Choose the best answer.)
A. vRealize Operations Manager
B. vSphere
C. vSAN
D. NSX
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/solutions/software-defined-datacenter.html#:~:text=as%2050%20percent.-,vSphere,point%20for%20building%20your%20SDDC

QUESTION 13
vCenter High Availability (HA) protects vCenter Server against host and hardware failures.
What is the minimum number of ESXi hosts required to enable this capability? (Choose the best answer.)
A. 5
B. 7
C. 1
D. 3
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/7.0/vsphere-esxi-vcenter-server-70-availability-guide.pdf
(73)


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QUESTION 1
Which DRS score indicates that the virtual machine (VM) is experiencing severe resource contention?
A. 50%
B. 95%
C. 70%
D. 15%
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A system administrator has to configure several virtual machines for different business units. The administrator needs to
enable features that allow overcommitment of resources while adhering to the business requirements and different
department performance SLAs.
Which two features should the administrator enable to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)
A. vSphere Distributed Power Management
B. vSphere Fault Tolerance
C. vSphere Resource Pools
D. vSphere High Availability
E. vSphere Storage I/O Control
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Which two storage protocols can a virtual infrastructure operator use to create a VMFS datastore? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel
B. NFS
C. iSCSI
D. CIFS
E. SMB
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
An administrator is working on a cloud migration project. The project has a requirement to check the EVC mode for
virtual machines (VMs) hosting an application.
How can the administrator find the FVC details for these VMs?
A. Select Host > VMs > Show/Hide Column > EVC Mode
B. Right click VM > Migrate > Change storage only > Select Datastore > Next > Finish
C. Power off VM > Configure > VMware EVC
D. Right click VM > Migrate > Change compute resource only > Select Host > Next > Finish
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An administrator has observed an alert message in the vSphere UI related to a host\\’s storage sensor hardware. Where
should the administrator look for more information related to this alert?
A. Menu > Lifecycle Manager > Baselines
B. Host > Monitor > Skyline Health
C. Host > Monitor > Hardware Health > Storage Sensors
D. Host > Monitor > Hardware Health > System Event Log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which IP storage is supported on vSphere?
A. SCSI
B. vSAN
C. SAN
D. ISCSI
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What is the default encrypted vSphere vMotion state for virtual machines that are not encrypted?
A. Disabled
B. Required
C. Opportunistic
D. Enabled
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
During a virtual machine migration, which VMkernel networking layer handles the traffic?
A. Fault Tolerance
B. IP storage
C. vSAN
D. vSphere vMotion
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit:VMware 1V0-21.20 exam questions q9

An administrator deletes the Service 1.5 snapshot. What is the result of this action?
A. Reversion to Service 1 snapshot, and Service 2 snapshot will remain.
B. Reversion to Service 1 snapshot, and Service 2 snapshot will be deleted.
C. Reversion to Service 2 snapshot, and Service 1 snapshot will be deleted.
D. Deletion of all snapshots.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A vSphere administrator needs to create an exact replica of a virtual machine as a safeguard prior to changing the
virtual machine configuration.
Which vSphere feature accomplishes this requirement?
A. vSphere Fault Tolerance
B. vSphere vMotlon
C. Cloning
D. Snapshots
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which hardware is required to support Fibre Channel storage?
A. ISCSI adapter
B. HBA
C. CNA
D. NIC
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
On a vSphere Standard Switch, which setting should an administrator configure to improve the networking efficiency by
increasing the amount of payload data transmitted with a single packet?
A. VLAN
B. LACP
C. MTU (Bytes)
D. NIC Teaming
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
An administrator is asked to copy a single hard disk from one datastore to another. Which virtual machine Hie type
should the administrator select?
A. vmdk
B. vswp
C. vmx
D. vmss
Correct Answer: A


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QUESTION 1
Which protocol allows an administrator to provide overlay networks on top of physical networks used in NSX-T
Datacenter?
A. Geneve Segments
B. Tier-0 Gateway
C. VXLAN
D. Distributed Firewall
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Validated-Design/5.1/sddc-architecture-and-design-for-vmware-nsxtworkload-domains/GUID-CF3C47CA-9BEB-4213-8F08-1494261BF3EC.html

QUESTION 2
Which plane in the NSX-T Data Center Architecture is used to create, read, update, and delete (CRUD) operations?
A. Local Control Plane (LCP)
B. Management Plane
C. Data Plane
D. Central Control Plane (CCP)
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-Data-Center-for-vSphere/6.4/com.vmware.nsx.troubleshooting.doc/GUID-88BA25EC-126B-41EE-9F06-BD6235C9EC77.html

QUESTION 3
An administrator is planning to upgrade hardware and needs to keep the virtual machines online during the process.
Which vSphere feature will allow this to occur?
A. vSphere Distributed Power Management
B. vSphere Distributed Resource Scheduler
C. vSphere High Availability
D. vSphere Motion
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which component needs to be available for the ESXi hosts to be able to enable vSphere High Availability?
A. 10Gbps network interfaces
B. Direct attached disks
C. Shared data storage
D. Dual CPU sockets
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.vladan.fr/how-to-configure-vmware-high-availability-ha-cluster/

QUESTION 5
How are NSX managed to compute endpoints called?
A. Transport Zone
B. vSphere Node
C. Transport Node
D. Compute Node
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.uk.insight.com/en-gb/content-and-resources/articles/cloud-hub/2018-02-12-hybridcloudnetworking-with-vmware-nsx-t

QUESTION 6
A customer is implementing a proof of concept for vSphere and wants to enable features such as HA, vMotion and
DRS.
Which component is required to enable these features?
A. vCenter Server
B. vSphere Client
C. SAN Storage
D. Distributed Switch
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.0/vsphere-esxi-vcenter-server-601-resourcemanagement-guide.pdf

QUESTION 7
How can NSX-T Distributed Firewall help customers achieve security for newly migrated containerized applications?
A. Quality of service
B. Micro-segmentation
C. Dynamic routing
D. Network I/O control
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/networkvirtualization/2020/04/nsx-t-3-0.html/

QUESTION 8
What is one way to access the NSX Manager?
A. vSphere Client with a supported browser
B. NSX UI with a supported browser
C. NSX Manager via Telnet
D. NSX Manager through a dedicated fat client
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-Data-Center-for-vSphere/6.4/com.vmware.nsx.admin.doc/GUIDCE5C4FD1-CFA7-49F3-B170-BC08CC15A9FB.html

QUESTION 9
A customer needs to secure its micro-services.
Which feature does NSX Data Center offer to help achieve this requirement?
A. Micro-segmentation enforcement at container level
B. Integration with third-party vendors
C. Service Insertion for Containers
D. Easy Operation of Containers
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.agilis.com.tr/vmware-nsx-data-center.html

QUESTION 10
A customer needs a solution to provide Layer 2 connectivity between vSphere and KVM hypervisors. Which VMware
the solution should the customer use?
A. NSX Service Mesh
B. NSX Cloud
C. NSX-T Data Center
D. NSX Intelligence
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-T-Data-Center/2.3/com.vmware.nsxt.install.doc/GUIDA1BBC650-CCE3-4AC3-A774-92B195183492.html

QUESTION 11
What is the benefit of connecting segments to Tier-1 Gateways?
A. Enhanced cloud consumption model
B. Enhanced micro-segmentation model
C. Enhanced East/West communication
D. Enhanced North/South communication
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.vgarethlewis.com/2019/12/17/vmware-nsx-t-logical-routing-part-1-tier-1-gateway/

QUESTION 12
A customer has experienced a disaster.
Which statement describes a recovery benefit of a vSphere Environment with NSX Data Center?
A. NSX Datacenter enables replication between sites.
B. Workload mobility is tied to the vCenter server.
C. It simplifies the DR by not requiring the change of the IP addresses of workloads.
D. It is a requirement to stretch a cluster to have a DR scenario.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-T-DataCenter/3.1/administration/GUID-5D7E3D436497-4273-99C1-77613C36AD75.html

QUESTION 13
Given this exhibit:vmware 1v0-41.20 certification exam q13

Which statement is true about the firewall rule?
A. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Servers, DB-Servers, and Web-Servers that rejects traffic on port 22.
B. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-1 gateway that rejects traffic on port 22.
C. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Servers, DB-Servers, and Web-Servers that drops traffic on port 22.
D. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that drops traffic on port 22.
Correct Answer: C

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Risk-and-Compliance

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QUESTION 1
UCF has a collection of what? Select all UCF terms. (Choose three.)
A. Control Indicators
B. Authority Documents
C. Policies
D. Citations
E. Controls
Correct Answer: BDE
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/orlando-governance-risk-compliance/page/product/grc-ucfimport/concept/c_UCF.html

 

QUESTION 2
The ServiceNow Platform requires which external components in order to ingest data from other systems?
A. The platform includes an SDK template that allows developers to enhance it using Java
B. A messaging bus needs to be developed
C. The platform allows XML to be ingested, and it required developers to leverage XSLT to map it properly
D. The platform has an Integration Service that allows users and developers to ingest data from a variety of sources
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Jim is an Audit Manager. In addition to the Audit Manager, which roles should be assigned to ensure he can manage the
audit process as well as other GRC functions related to audit? (Choose two.)
A. sn_grc.manager
B. sn_audit.user
C. sn_grc.user
D. sn_grc.reader
E. sn_grc.developer
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 4
Which table stored the links from Entity to Entity Types?
A. [sn_compliance_m2m_profile_profile_type]
B. [sn_risk_m2m_risk_profile]
C. [sn_compliance_m2m_policy_profile]
D. [sn_grc_m2m_profile_profile_type]
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements is true of a Risk Response task?
A. Only one Risk Response task can be related to a Risk at a time
B. Only users with the risk_manager role or higher can be assigned to a Risk Response task
C. The risk admin role is required to assign the Risk Response task
D. The Risk Response task is automatically progressed through the states using a workflow
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/orlando-governance-risk-compliance/page/product/grcrisk/reference/r_InstallWRisk.html

 

QUESTION 6
When calculating compliance scores, what is true about the weighting of Controls? (Choose two.)
A. Controls are not weighted equally by default
B. The weight cannot be changed
C. The default value is 10
D. The weight of the Control is set when the Control is created
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://community.servicenow.com/community?id=community_questionandsys_id=bc450789dbf393802be0a851ca961948

 

QUESTION 7
What would you leverage in order to provide users with an alternate user experience to view policies, create policy
exceptions, and search for controls?
A. Help Desk Portal
B. Catalog Portal
C. Access Portal
D. Service Portal
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements correctly describes the risk management lifecycle process?
A. Access, Identify and Plan, Control, Review
B. Control, Review, Assess, Identify, and Plan
C. Identify and Plan, Assess, Control, Review
D. Identify and Plan, Review, Assess, Control
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
The Tablename.config:
A. Displays the configuration list view of the table in the browser tab
B. Displays the table in a list view within the Content Frame
C. Displays the table in a list view within a separate browser tab
D. Displays the configuration list view of the table in the Content Frame
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/orlando-platform-user-interface/page/administer/navigation-andui/task/t_NavigateDirectlyToATable.html

 

QUESTION 10
What table, along with the Policy table, is linked to the Control Objective table by a many-to-many relationship?
A. Entity Class
B. Citation
C. Authority Documents
D. Risk Framework
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/orlando-governance-risk-compliance/page/product/grc-policy-andcompliance/reference/r_InstallWPolAndCompl.html

 

QUESTION 11
Which GRC application would you use to manage internal or external consultancy processes that aim to prove the
effectiveness of controls?
A. Audit Management
B. Risk Management
C. Vendor Risk Management
D. Policy and Compliance Management
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/orlando-governance-risk-compliance/page/product/grc-policy-andcompliance/reference/r_PolicyComplianceMgmt.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which of the following extends from items?
A. Citation
B. Controls
C. Issue
D. Policy
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
What are the Risk Scoring methods available in ServiceNow? (Choose two.)
A. Quantitative
B. Qualitative
C. Inherent
D. Residual
E. Calculated
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/helsinki-governance-risk-compliance/page/product/grcrisk/reference/r_RiskScoring.html

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QUESTION 1
Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which
document?
A. Business case
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requirements documentation
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are
examples of items that are established in the:
A. Cost management plan.
B. Work performance information.
C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the
industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly
concerned?
A. Customer request
B. Market demand
C. Technological advance
D. Strategic opportunity
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:
A. facilitated workshops.
B. observations.
C. questionnaires and surveys.
D. group creativity techniques.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?
A. Facilitated workshops
B. Interviews
C. Inspection
D. Meetings
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Status review meetings
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
In the Initiating Process Group, at what point does the project become officially authorized?
A. When the project charter is signed
B. When all the stakeholders agree on the scope of the project
C. When the project manager is appointed
D. When the necessary finance or funding is obtained
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be
performing them?
A. Project sponsor and project manager
B. Project sponsor and functional manager
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project team and functional manager
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?
A. Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates
B. Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates
C. Resource calendars and project management plan updates
D. Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
Assigned risk ratings are based upon:
A. Root cause analysis.
B. Risk probability and impact assessment.
C. Expert judgment.
D. Revised stakeholders\\’ tolerances.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
A. Organizational process assets and the project charter,
B. Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.
C. Time tables and Pareto diagrams.
D. Activity attributes and resource calendars.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?
A. Project Time Management
B. Project Cost Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Human Resource Management
Correct Answer: A

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Microsoft DP-201 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated Microsoft DP-201 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
You are planning a big data solution in Azure.
You need to recommend a technology that meets the following requirements:
1.
Be optimized for batch processing.
2.
Support autoscaling.
3.
Support per-cluster scaling. Which technology should you recommend?
A. Azure Data Warehouse
B. Azure HDInsight with Spark
C. Azure Analysis Services
D. Azure Databricks
Correct Answer: D
Azure Databricks is an Apache Spark-based analytics platform. Azure Databricks supports autoscaling and manages
the Spark cluster for you.
Incorrect Answers: A, B:[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q1

 

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You are designing an Azure SQL Database that will use elastic pools. You plan to store data about customers in a table.
Each record uses a value for CustomerID.
You need to recommend a strategy to partition data based on values in CustomerID.
Proposed Solution: Separate data into customer regions by using vertical partitioning.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Vertical partitioning is used for cross-database queries. Instead, we should use Horizontal Partitioning, which also is
called charging.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-query-overview

 

QUESTION 3
You plan to use an Azure SQL data warehouse to store the customer data. You need to recommend a disaster recovery
solution for the data warehouse. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. AzCopy
B. Read-only replicas
C. AdICopy
D. Geo-Redundant backups
Correct Answer: D
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/backup-and-restore

 

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that emergency road response vehicles are dispatched automatically.
How should you design the processing system? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:

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Explanation: Box1: API App

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q4-2

Events generated from the IoT data sources are sent to the stream ingestion layer through Azure HDInsight Kafka as a
stream of messages. HDInsight Kafka stores a stream of data in topics for a configurable of time.
Kafka consumer, Azure Databricks, picks up the message in real-time from the Kafka topic, to process the data based
on the business logic and can then send it to the Serving layer for storage.
Downstream storage services, like Azure Cosmos DB, Azure SQL Data warehouse, or Azure SQL DB, will then be a
data source for presentation and action layer.
Business analysts can use Microsoft Power BI to analyze warehoused data. Other applications can be built upon the
serving layer as well. For example, we can expose APIs based on the service layer data for third party uses.
Box 2: Cosmos DB Change Feed
Change feed support in Azure Cosmos DB works by listening to an Azure Cosmos DB container for any changes. It
then outputs the sorted list of documents that were changed in the order in which they were modified.
The change feed in Azure Cosmos DB enables you to build efficient and scalable solutions for each of these patterns,
as shown in the following image:

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q4-3

 

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You are designing a new application that uses Azure Cosmos DB. The application will support a variety of data patterns
including log records and social media mentions.
You need to recommend which Cosmos DB API to use for each data pattern. The solution must minimize resource
utilization.
Which API should you recommend for each data pattern? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q5-1

Log records: SQL
Social media mentions: Gremlin You can store the actual graph of followers using Azure Cosmos DB Gremlin API to
create vertexes for each user and edges that maintain the “A-follows-B” relationships. With the Gremlin API, you can get
the followers of a certain user and create more complex queries to suggest people in common. If you add to the graph
the Content Categories that people like or enjoy, you can start weaving experiences that include smart content
discovery, suggesting content that those people you follow like, or finding people that you might have much in common
with.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/social-media-apps

 

QUESTION 6
You need to design the SensorData collection.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q6-1

Box 1: Eventual
Traffic data insertion rate must be maximized.
Sensor data must be stored in a Cosmos DB named try data in a collection named SensorData
With Azure Cosmos DB, developers can choose from five well-defined consistency models on the consistency
spectrum. From strongest to more relaxed, the models include strong, bounded staleness, session, consistent prefix,
and eventual
consistency.
Box 2: License plate
This solution reports on all data related to a specific vehicle license plate. The report must use data from the
SensorData collection.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/consistency-levels

 

QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a solution for storing the image tagging data. What should you recommend?
A. Azure File Storage
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure Blob Storage
D. Azure SQL Database
E. Azure SQL Data Warehouse
Correct Answer: C
Image data must be stored in a single data store at a minimum cost.
Note: Azure Blob storage is Microsoft\\’s object storage solution for the cloud. Blob storage is optimized for storing
massive amounts of unstructured data. Unstructured data is data that does not adhere to a particular data model or
definition,
such as text or binary data.
Blob storage is designed for:
1.
Serving images or documents directly to a browser.
2.
Storing files for distributed access.
3.
Streaming video and audio.
4.
Writing to log files.
5.
Storing data for backup and restore disaster recovery, and archiving.
6.
Storing data for analysis by an on-premises or Azure-hosted service.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blobs-introduction

 

QUESTION 8
You need to design a telemetry data solution that supports the analysis of log files in real-time.
Which two Azure services should you include in the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Databricks
B. Azure Data Factory
C. Azure Event Hubs
D. Azure Data Lake Storage Gent 2
E. Azure IoT Hub
Correct Answer: AC
You connect a data ingestion system with Azure Databricks to stream data into an Apache Spark cluster in near realtime. You set up a data ingestion system using Azure Event Hubs and then connect it to Azure Databricks to process the
messages coming through.
Note: Azure Event Hubs is a highly scalable data streaming platform and event ingestion service, capable of receiving
and processing millions of events per second. Event Hubs can process and store events, data, or telemetry produced by
distributed software and devices. Data sent to an event hub can be transformed and stored using any real-time analytics
provider or batching/storage adapters.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-databricks/databricks-stream-from-eventhubs

 

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You plan to store delimited text files in an Azure Data Lake Storage account that will be organized into the department
folders.
You need to configure data access so that users see only the files in their respective department folders.
Solution: From the storage account, you disable a hierarchical namespace, and you use access control lists (ACLs).
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Azure Data Lake Storage implements an access control model that derives from HDFS, which in turn derives from the
POSIX access control model.
Blob container ACLs do not support the hierarchical namespace, so it must be disabled.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/data-lake-storage-known-issues
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-lake-store/data-lake-store-access-control

 

QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a storage solution for a sales system that will receive thousands of small files per minute. The
files will be in JSON, text, and CSV formats. The files will be processed and transformed before they are loaded into an
Azure data warehouse. The files must be stored and secured in folders.
Which storage solution should you recommend?
A. Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure SQL Database
D. Azure Blob storage
Correct Answer: A
Azure provides several solutions for working with CSV and JSON files, depending on your needs. The primary landing
place for these files is either Azure Storage or Azure Data Lake Store.1
Azure Data Lake Storage is optimized storage for big data analytics workloads.
Incorrect Answers:
D: Azure Blob Storage containers is a general-purpose object store for a wide variety of storage scenarios. Blobs are
stored in containers, which are similar to folders.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/scenarios/csv-and-json

 

QUESTION 11
You need to design the Planning Assistance database.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

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Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass dp-201 exam questions q11-1

Box 1: No
Data used for Planning Assistance must be stored in a sharded Azure SQL Database.
Box 2: Yes
Box 3: Yes
Planning Assistance database will include reports tracking the travel of a single-vehicle


QUESTION 12
What should you recommend using to secure sensitive customer contact information?
A. data labels
B. column-level security
C. row-level security
D. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
Correct Answer: B
Scenario: All cloud data must be encrypted at rest and in transit.
Always Encrypted is a feature designed to protect sensitive data stored in specific database columns from access (for
example, credit card numbers, national identification numbers, or data on a need to know basis). This includes database
administrators or other privileged users who are authorized to access the database to perform management tasks but
have no business need to access the particular data in the encrypted columns. The data is always encrypted, which
means the encrypted data is decrypted only for processing by client applications with access to the encryption key.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) encrypts SQL Server, Azure SQL Database, and Azure SQL Data Warehouse
data files, known as encrypting data at rest. TDE does not provide encryption across communication channels.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-security-overview

 

QUESTION 13
You need to design the unauthorized data usage detection system. What Azure service should you include in the
design?
A. Azure Analysis Services
B. Azure SQL Data Warehouse
C. Azure Databricks
D. Azure Data Factory
Correct Answer: B
SQL Database and SQL Data Warehouse
SQL threat detection identifies anomalous activities indicating unusual and potentially harmful attempts to access or
exploit databases.
Advanced Threat Protection for Azure SQL Database and SQL Data Warehouse detects anomalous activities indicating
unusual and potentially harmful attempts to access or exploit databases.
Scenario:
Requirements. Security
The solution must meet the following security requirements:
Unauthorized usage of data must be detected in real-time. Unauthorized usage is determined by looking for unusual
usage patterns.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-threat-detection-overview

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