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  • Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-365 exam exercise questions, 300-365 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

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  • Easy to learn, you’ll pass the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 exam! Free 300-135 dumps

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Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-365 exam exercise questions, 300-365 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDEPLOY)” Exam 300-365. Here you can get the latest free 300-365 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

300-365 exam

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing wireless networks based on the applicable Cisco controller and Unified switching architectures that support high availability, QoS, multicast, and mobility services. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/300-365.html exam.

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300-365 WIDEPLOY – Cisco:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/wideploy.html

Free Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-365 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

What is the default NMSP echo interval between a Mobility Services Engine and Wireless LAN Controller? 

A. 30 Seconds 

B. 15 Seconds 

C. 10 Seconds 

D. 60 Seconds 

Correct Answer: B 

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/wireless/mse/3350/6.0/CAS/configuration/guide/msecg_ch4_CAS.html 

 

QUESTION 2

A customer has limited staff to manage a wireless network. The customer wants a solution that requires minimum

hardware. Which type of architecture do you propose? 

A. centralized 

B. distributed 

C. cloud-based 

D. unified 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 3

A customer called into the support center with a problem ticket that involves wireless clients having to reauthenticate

when they are walking around their office. After further investigation, it was discovered that the customer has two

controllers in an N+1 deployment. Which action must the engineer take to troubleshoot the issue? 

A. Verify that the wireless controllers are in the same mobility group and that the access points are all on the primary

controller. 

B. Under the SSID, make sure that 802.11r is configured and running for the clients. 

C. Make sure that the SSID has the authentication set to 802.1x with Cisco Centralized Key Management so the data

clients can roam seamlessly. 

D. Verify the access points are spread out between the primary and secondary controller and that the controllers are in

the same mobility group. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 4

A customer wants to restrict the number of SSIDs being offered in a specific location, but with a single WLC enterprise

wide. The customer is enabled to delete the SSIDs globally without impacting users at other sites. Which action fulfills

this requirement? 

A. Configure a FlexConnect group for the specified location and add the location APs to the group. 

B. Add an AP group for the specified location and add the location APs to the group. 

C. Change the WLAN ID of the desired SSIDs to greater than 16 and then disable them. 

D. Apply an access control list to restrict access at the specified location. 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 5

A customer is implementing a massively scaled guest wireless network to support approximately 32,000 clients. For

ease of administration, they have required implementing multiple interfaces defined on the WLC and mapped to a single

interface group. Which configuration meets this need? 

A. 264 interfaces of /25 sized networks 

B. 132 interfaces of /24 sized networks 

C. 66 interfaces of /23 sized networks 

D. 33 interfaces of /22 sized networks 

Correct Answer: D 

References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/8500-series-wireless-controllers/113695-8500-dg-00.html 

 

QUESTION 6

Branch wireless users report that they can no longer access services from head office but can access services locally at

the site. New wireless users can associate to the wireless while the WAN is down. Which three options (Cisco

FlexConnect state, operation mode, and authentication method) are seen in this scenario? (Choose three.) 

A. authentication-central/switch-local 

B. standalone mode 

C. authentication-central/switch-central 

D. WPA2 personal 

E. authentication-local/switch-local 

F. WPA2 enterprise 

Correct Answer: BDE 

 

QUESTION 7

What devices can be tracked with the Cisco Context Aware Services? 

A. Only wired devices. 

B. Both wired and wireless devices. 

C. Only Cisco certified wireless devices. 

D. Only wireless devices. 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 8

On which AP radio or radios is Cisco WGB association and public safety supported? 

A. 5 GHz only 

B. 2.4 GHz only 

C. 2.4, 5, or 4.9 GHz 

D. 2.4 or 5 GHz only 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 9

CMX Facebook WiFi can allow access to the network before authentication. Which two of the following options are

available? (Choose two) 

A. Allow all the traffic before authentication and intercept HTTPs only. 

B. Allow HTTP traffic only before authentication and block all the traffic. 

C. Allow SNMP traffic only before authentication and block all the traffic. 

D. Allow all the traffic before authentication and intercept HTTP only. 

E. Allow HTTPs traffic only before authentication and block all other traffic. 

Correct Answer: BD 

 

QUESTION 10

An engineer needs to address roaming issues with sticky clients in high-density areas on a campus. Which feature must

the engineer configure? 

A. Layer 3 roaming 

B. load balancing and band select 

C. optimized roaming 

D. Layer 2 roaming 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 11

A network engineer is debugging issues with the mDNS gateway. Which type of reply should be seen in the Wireshark

capture when querying for a mDNS service in the Bonjour Cache? 

A. unicast from Prime Infrastructure 

B. unicast from controller 

C. multicast from devices 

D. multicast from controller 

E. unicast from devices 

F. multicast from Prime Infrastructure 

Correct Answer: B 

References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/bonjour/Bonjour74/Bonjour_Deployment.html 

 

QUESTION 12

An engineer must implement WLC features that enhance roaming. Which two technologies fulfill this requirement?

(Choose two.) 

A. 802.11v 

B. WPA2 

C. Cisco Centralized Key Management 

D. 802.1X 

E. 802.11r 

Correct Answer: AE 

 

QUESTION 13

Which two parameters must be considered when conducting an outdoor mesh site survey? (Choose two.) 

A. weather 

B. traffic lights 

C. throughput 

D. Fresnel zone 

E. near-far effect 

Correct Answer: AD 

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Easy to learn, you’ll pass the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 exam! Free 300-135 dumps

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Test your Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 exam level

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements concerning IGMP are correct? (Choose all that apply.)
A. With IGMPvl, queries are sent to a specific group.
B. Hosts issuing IGMPvl requests will be correctly interpreted by IGMPv2 hosts due to backward compatibility.
C. An IGMPv2 router will ignore IGMPv2 leave messages when IGMFVl hosts are present.
D. With IGMFV2, a leave message is supported.
E. An IGMPv2 host will send an IGMFVl report on an IGMFVl router.
F. An IGMPv2 router can only allow IGMPv2 hosts to execute a join request.
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 2
In what situation would the command ip helper-address be required? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Only when there is a duplicate IP address caused by a combination of static and dynamic IP address allocations
B. On each router that exists between the client and the server
C. Only when a router separates the client from the server
D. Only if the DHCP sever issues a DHCPNAK to the initial request
E. Only when the client is on the same subnet as the server
F. Only when the DHCP pool is out of IP addresses
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which are valid AAA authentications methods?
A. Line
B. Local
C. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
D. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 4
Which of the following are valid methods of providing a router with information concerning the location of the RP?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Statically defined RP
B. Bootstrap Router
C. Auto-RP
D. RP Discovery Protocol (RDP)
E. RP Helios
F. RPARP(RARP)
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 5
Examine the output from R1. Interface FastEthernet0/0 is used for all management of the device. A client is able to
connect to R1 on port 22, however, they are unable to connect on port 23. What is the cause of the problem?lead4pass 300-135 exam question q5

A. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled, which only allows SSH.
B. Telnet and SSH are not allowed at the same time.
C. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled on the wrong interface.
D. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled, however telnet is not allowed.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
I—fa0/0—router branch 1—–S0/2—–Core—S0/1—Router HQ———fa2/1 Branch 1 : Tu 1 =192.168.10.2/28 L1 =
10.20.1.1/32 S0/2 = 172.18.10.2/30 Fa0/0 = 192.168.200.1/24
HQ : TU 1 = 192.168.10.1/28 L1 = 10.30.1.1/32 S0/1 = 172.18.10.1/30 Fa2/1 = 192.168.100.1/24
Refer to exhibit. which Ip Address shold be configured as the tunnel source on the HQ router for maximum resiliency ?
A. 10.20.1.1
B. 10.30.1.1
C. 172.18.10.2
D. 192.168.10.1
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Using the divide and conquer approach, drag the troubleshooting steps on the left onto the corresponding description on
the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-135 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-135 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-135 exam question q8

The administrator has successfully logged into R1 but is unable to access privileged mode commands Which
configuration is causing the problem?
A. The password on the VTY lines does not match the username password.
B. The username command uses password, not secret
C. Enable secret or enable password must be configured
D. The aaa authorization reverse-access command is missing.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#logging console warnings
Which alerts will be seen on the console?
A. Warnings only
B. debugging, informational, notifications, warnings
C. warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D. notifications, warnings, errors
E. warnings, errors, critical, alerts
Correct Answer: C
Cisco routers prioritize log messages into 8 levels (0-7), as shown below:
LevelLevel NameDescription 0 Emergencies System is unusable 1 Alerts Immediate action needed 2 Critical Critical
conditions 3 Errors Error conditions 4 Warnings Warning conditions 5 Notifications Informational messages 6
Informational Normal but significant conditions 7 Debugging Debugging messages
When you enable logging for a specific level, all logs of that severity and greater (numerically less) will be logged. In this
case, when you enable console logging of warning messages (level 4), it will log levels 0-4, making the correct answer
warnings, errors, critical, alerts, and emergencies.

 

QUESTION 10
A new router is added to an existing HSRP standby group. One of the existing routers is in an active state, the other is
in a standby state. Under what circumstance will the new router become the active router?
A. The new router will become active immediately because it\\’s the newest router introduced into the group.
B. The new router can become active only when the existing active router and the existing standby router become
unavailable.
C. The new router has a lower priority value.
D. The new router will never become active unless the existing active router becomes unavailable.
E. The new router has preempt configured and a higher priority
F. The new router has a higher priority value.
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 11
A question about restrict access for device on management plane? (Choose two.)
A. Enable Cisco Express Forward (CEF) globally.
B. Add authentication for routing protocols.
C. Restrict physical access.
D. Add ACLs for Telnet.
E. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 12
An exhibit with three routers A, B and C. Router A is connected to Router B. Router B is connected to Router C.lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12

The output of “show interface Tunnel 1” on Router C shows that the tunnel is in “up/ down” state. The question asks
what is the reason for this.
A. Router C does not have a route to the loopback interface of Router A
B. The tunnel mode should be changed to “gre mode multipoint”
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D. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
You must add encryption to a GRE tunnel. Which IPsec configuration is recommended for a VPN with NAT
transversal?
A. Enable SHA on the tunnel
B. Implement IPsec transport mode
C. Enable MD5 on the tunnel
D. Implement IPsec tunnel mode
Correct Answer: D

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Exam 70-414: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-414.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Manage and maintain a server infrastructure (25–30%)
  • Plan and implement a highly available enterprise infrastructure (25–30%)
  • Plan and implement a server virtualization infrastructure (25–30%)
  • Design and implement identity and access solutions (20–25%)

Who should take this exam?

This exam is part two of a series of two exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to design, implement, and maintain a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an enterprise scaled, highly virtualized environment. Passing this exam validates a candidate’s ability to the plan, configure, and manage the Windows Server 2012 services,
such as identity and access, high availability, and the server infrastructure. Passing this exam along with the other exam confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge necessary for designing, deploying, and maintaining services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment.

Test your Microsoft MCSE 70-414 exam level

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains multiple servers that are
configured as Hyper-V hosts. You plan to implement four virtual machines. The virtual machines will be configured as
shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-414 exam question q1

You need to identify which network must be added to each virtual machine.
Which network types should you identify?
To answer, drag the appropriate Network Type to the correct virtual machine in the answer area. Each Network Type
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag
the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-414 exam question q1-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-414 exam question q1-2

 

QUESTION 2
You plan to configure Windows Network Load Balancing (NLB) for a company. You display following Network Load
Balancing Manager window:lead4pass 70-414 exam question q2

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the graphic.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-414 exam question q2-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-414 exam question q2-2

 

QUESTION 3
You are planning the deployment of System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You need to identify which
additional System Center 2012 product is required to meet the virtualization requirements. What should you include in
the recommendation?
A. App Controller
B. Operations Manager
C. Configuration Manager
D. Service Manager
Correct Answer: Blead4pass 70-414 exam question q3

http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj656649.aspx

 

QUESTION 4
Your network contains five physical servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-414 exam question q4

All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
During the setup of VMM, you configure distributed key management.
You need to ensure that the entire VMM infrastructure can be restored.
What should you include in the backup plan? To answer, select the appropriate server to back up for each backup
content type in the answer.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-414 exam question q4-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-414 exam question q4-2

 

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains several domain
controllers. The domain controllers run either Windows Server 2012 or Windows Server 2008 R2.
The domain functional level is Windows Server 2008 R2. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2008.
The corporate compliance policy states that all items deleted from Active Directory must be recoverable from a Recycle
Bin.
You need to recommend changes to the current environment to meet the compliance policy.
Which changes should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2008 R2.
B. Run the Enable-ADOptionalFeature cmdlet.
C. Run the New-ADObject cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-Server cmdlet
E. Raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: AB
You can enable Active Directory Recycle Bin only if the forest functional level of your environment is set to Windows
Server 2008 R2.
B: Enabling Active Directory Recycle Bin
After the forest functional level of your environment is set to Windows Server 2008 R2, you can enable Active Directory
Recycle Bin by using the following methods:
Enable-ADOptionalFeature Active Directory module cmdlet (This is the recommended method.)
Ldp.exe
Note: By default, Active Directory Recycle Bin in Windows Server 2008 R2 is disabled.

 

QUESTION 6
You have a small Hyper-V cluster built on two hosts that run Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V. You manage the virtual
infrastructure by using System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2012. Distributed Key Management is not installed. You
have the following servers in the environment:lead4pass 70-414 exam question q6

You have the following requirements:
You must back up virtual machines at the host level.
You must be able to back up virtual machines that are configured for live migration.
You must be able to restore the entire VMM infrastructure.
You need to design and implement the backup plan.
What should you do?
A. Run the following Windows PowerShell command: Get-VM VMM1 | Checkpoint-VM-SnapshotName “VMM backup”
B. Run the following Windows PowerShell command: Set-DPMGlobalProperty-DPMServerName
DPM1-KnownVMMServers VMM1
C. Configure System State Backup for DCL.
D. Configure backup for all disk volumes on FILESERVER1
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Your company has data centers in Seattle and New York. A high-speed link connects the data centers. Each data
center runs a virtualization infrastructure that uses Hyper-V Server 2012 and Hyper-V Server 2012 R2. Administrative
users
from the Seattle and New York offices are members of Active Directory Domain Services groups named SeattleAdmins
and NewYorkAdmins, respectively.
You deploy one System Center Virtual Machine Manager (SCVMM) in the Seattle data center. You create two private
clouds named SeattleCloud and NewYorkCloud in the Seattle and New York data centers, respectively.
You have the following requirements:
Administrators from each data center must be able to manage the virtual machines and services from their location by
using a web portal.
Administrators must not apply new resource quotas or change resource quotas.
You must manage public clouds by using the existing SCVMM server.
You must use the minimum permissions required to perform the administrative tasks.
You need to configure the environment.
What should you do?
A. For both the Seattle and New York admin groups, create a User Role and assign it to the Application Administrator
profile. Add the Seattle and New York private clouds to the corresponding User Role.
B. For both the Seattle and New York admin groups, create a User Role and assign it to the Tennant Administrator
profile. Add the Seattle and New York private clouds to the corresponding User Role.
C. Add both SeattleAdmins and NewYorkAdmins to the Local Administrators group of each Hyper-V host in Seattle and
New York, respectively.
D. Add both SeattleAdmins and NewYorkAdmins to the Local Administrators group of the SCVMM server.
Correct Answer: A
Members of the Application Administrator (Self-Service User) ole can create, deploy, and manage their own virtual
machines and services by using the VMM console or a Web portal.

 

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the PII requirement. What should you
recommend?
A. Establish a two-way, forest trust. Create an AD RMS cluster in Proseware and Fabrikam, and then establish
Fabrikam as a trusted user domain.
B. Create an AD RMS cluster in Proseware, and then provision the user accounts in Proseware for the Proseware
users.
C. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from ProsewareCA.
D. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from FabrikamCA.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
Your company has an enterprise root certification authority (CA) named CA1.
You plan to deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to a server named Server1.
The company purchases a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.
You plan to register the company\\’s SMTP domain for Office 365 and to configure single sign-on for all users.
You need to identify which certificate is required for the planned deployment.
Which certificate should you identify?
A. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted third-party root CA and that contains the subject name
server1.contoso.com
B. a self-signed server authentication certificate for server1.contoso.com
C. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted third-party root CA and that contains the subject name
Server1
D. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CA1 and that contains the subject name Server1
E. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CA1 and that contains the subject name server1.contoso.com
Correct Answer: A
Prepare Your Server and Install ADFS
You can install ADFS on a domain controller or another server. You\\’ll first need to configure a few prerequisites. The
following steps assume you\\’re installing to Windows Server 2008 R2.
Using Server Manager, install the IIS role and the Microsoft .NET Framework. Then purchase and install a server-
authentication certificate from a public certificate authority. Make sure you match the certificate\\’s subject name with the
Fully
Qualified Domain Name of the server. Launch IIS Manager and import that certificate to the default Web site.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/jj631606.aspx


QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a solution that meets the AD RMS requirements of Customer1 and Customer2.
Which actions should you recommend performing for each customer? To answer, select the appropriate customer for
each action in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-414 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 11
This question consists of two statements: One is named Assertion and the other is named Reason. Both of these
statements may be true; both may be false; or one may be true, while the other may be false.
To answer this question, you must first evaluate whether each statement is true on its own. If both statements are true,
then you must evaluate whether the Reason (the second statement) correctly explains the Assertion (the first
statement).
You will then select the answer from the list of answer choices that matches your evaluation of the two statements.
Assertion:
You can manage VMware ESX hosts and virtual machines by using a System Center Virtual Machine Manager
(SCVMM) server.
Reason:
SCVMM automatically imports ESX hosts and virtual machines when you add the corresponding VMware vCenter to the
SCVMM server.
Evaluate the Assertion and Reason statements and choose the correct answer option.
A. Both the Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion.
B. Both the Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation for the Assertion.
C. The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
D. The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.
E. Both the Assertion and the Reason are false.
Correct Answer: C
Assertion: true
Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) enables you to deploy and manage virtual machines and services across multiple
hypervisor platforms, including VMware ESX and ESXi hosts.
Reason: False
When you add a vCenter Server, VMM no longer imports, merges and synchronizes the VMware tree structure with
VMM. Instead, after you add a vCenter Server, you can add selected ESX servers and hosts to any VMM host group.
Therefore, there are fewer issues with synchronization.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg610683.aspx

 

QUESTION 12
You manage a Hyper-V 2012 cluster by using System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2012 SP1. You need to ensure
high availability for business-critical virtual machines (VMs) that host business-critical SQL Server databases. Solution:
You set the memory-weight threshold value to High for each business-critical VM. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System
Center 2012 infrastructure.
All client computers have a custom application named App1 installed. App1 generates an Event ID 42 every time the
application runs out of memory.
Users report that when App1 runs out of memory, their client computer runs slowly until they manually restart App1.
You need to recommend a solution that automatically restarts App1 when the application runs out of memory. The
solution must use the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. From Configurations Manager, create a desired configuration management baseline.
B. From Windows System Resource Manager, create a resource allocation policy.
C. From Event Viewer, attach a task to the event.
D. From Operations Manager, create an alert.
Correct Answer: D

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Test your EMC Specialist E20-594 exam level

QUESTION 1

An EMC Avamar customer is deploying a backup solution consisting of two EMC Avamar servers (server A and server

B) with replication. 

Which configuration provides seamless server failover capability? 

A. All clients back up to Avamar server A and backup data is replicated to Avamar server B using root-to-root

replication. 

B. Clients of server A replicate to Avamar server B and clients of Avamar server B replicate to Avamar server A using

Normal replication. 

C. Using root-to-root replication, clients of Avamar server A replicate to Avamar server B and clients of Avamar server B

replicate to Avamar server A. 

D. All clients back up to Avamar server A and backup data is replicated to Avamar server B using Normal replication. 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 2

What are the various severity levels contained in each Dell EMC Avamar log? 

A. Info, Warn, Error, and Fatal 

B. Info, Problem, Warn, and Fatal 

C. Info, Problem, Warning, and Fail 

D. Info, Warning, Error, and Fail 

Correct Answer: D 

Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu91834.pdf 

 

QUESTION 3

Which component should be stopped and started, before and after specifying the e-mail home smtp server? 

A. MCS 

B. gsan 

C. EMS 

D. dtlt 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 4

Which port must be open on an EMC Avamar utility node to be able to browse a client file system? 

A. 26000 

B. 27000 

C. 28001 

D. 28002 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 5

What is the default duration of the Backup window in EMC Avamar? 

A. 6 hours 

B. 8 hours 

C. 10 hours 

D. 12 hours 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 6

After completing the initial root-to-root system migration, you are ready to switch over to the new target system. You

have been performing some critical backups of key systems during this initial replication phase. Which key step must be

done prior to the final switchover to ensure all backups are present on the target? 

A. Perform a final catchup replication 

B. Perform all required DNS changes 

C. Run an MCS flush on the target 

D. Run an MCS flush on the source 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 7

On a Dell EMC Avamar server, what is the file extension of stripes that contain backup chunks? 

A. dat 

B. wlg 

C. tab 

D. chd 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 8

A company has requested that a Dell EMC Avamar Administrator console be installed on a server so that an Avamar

server can be managed in a high security environment. Since firewalls are in use, which port will require a rule so that

the Avamar server and Administrator console can communicate? 

A. 443 

B. 5555 

C. 7778 

D. 28002 

Correct Answer: C 

Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu89848.pdf 

 

QUESTION 9

You have correctly executed the EMC Avamar network definition utility and rebooted all of the nodes in your Avamar

server. To check that the nodes have been defined correctly, you execute the command mapall –all –user=root date. 

Which nodes should respond by displaying the output of the command? 

A. Utility node and active data nodes only 

B. Utility node, active data nodes, and spare node 

C. Active data nodes and spare node only 

D. Active data nodes only 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 10

How many hours does the benchmark test run in an AVE install? 

A. 6 

B. 12 

C. 24 

D. 36 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 11

Which is the last step in the hardware installation portion of an EMC Avamar multinode deployment? 

A. Connecting to the customer network 

B. Cabling the nodes to the switch 

C. Powering on the nodes 

D. Placing nodes in the rack 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 12

What is the minimum physical RAM requirement for a 0.5 TB installation of EMC AVE? 

A. 1024 MB 

B. 2048 MB 

C. 3072 MB 

D. 4096 MB 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 13

Which command is used to discover and list physical node numbers and IP addresses on a multi-node Dell EMC

Avamar server? 

A. status.dpn 

B. rebuild.node 

C. asktime 

D. mapall 

Correct Answer: D

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Latest updates Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 dumps and pdf, 300-160 Practice Questions and Answers

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Latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access
and aggregation layers in the data canter?
A. vPC
B. PAgP
C. LACP
D. host vPC
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Access layer switches are located as which type of design to provide network connectivity to servers that are installed in
rack?
A. ToR design
B. MoR design
C. EoR design
D. ILR
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-160 exam question q3

You are evaluating a proposed topology design. Which technology can you recommend to provide high availability for
the topology?
A. OTV
B. STP
C. LLDP
D. vPC
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which two resources can be VDC-dedicated resources? (Choose two.)
A. QoS hardware queues
B. physical interfaces
C. A table spaces
D. fabric modules
E. management interfaces
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 5
The client\\’s data center manager has requested the physical weights of the equipment in your Cisco UCS design along
with the power and cooling requirements. Where in cisco.com can you find this information?
A. the product datasheets
B. the Cisco UCS power calculator
C. the Cisco UCS GUI Configuration Guide
D. the Cisco UCS Hardware Installation Guide
E. the Hardware and Software Interoperability Matrix Utility Tool
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which two features are supported by VXLAN on the Cisco NX-OS platform? (Choose two)
A. MP-BGP EVPN
B. DHCP snooping
C. PIM-SM
D. OTV
E. L2TP
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 7
Which two licenses must you have to enable OTV on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. Transport Services Package
B. Advanced Services Package
C. MPLS Services Package
D. Enterprise Services Package
E. Enhanced Layer 2 Package
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 8
Which two characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose two)
A. voice, data, and wireless convergence
B. no packet manipulation
C. QoS–policing
D. routing manipulation and filtering
E. QoS – classification and queuing
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 9
What introduces unique implications into the overall Data Center aggregation layer design? (Choose Three.)
A. High-speed switching fabric with a high forwarding rate
B. Over-subscription values
C. Service Modules
D. IP routing
E. WAN
F. Internet Edge
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 10
Which option is a characteristic of the data center aggregation layer?
A. segments groups of applications and isolates problems
B. provides access for IP multicast applications
C. offers QoS services, such as the classification and marking of traffic
D. is a high-speed backbone of the data center
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
You plan to use Cisco FEX and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches. Which deployment model is valid?
A. straight-through connections that use static pinning
B. active/active fabric extenders that use vPC
C. straight-through connections that use dynamic pinning
D. active/active fabric extenders that use straight-through connections
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12 lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12-1 lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12-2

Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 4. Which of the items is true regarding the activation of a Management Extension
update?
A. Adds support for new management access protocols
B. Adds support for new SAN protocols
C. Adds support for new LAN protocols
D. Adds support for new hardware
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Exhibit 4 shown below:

lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12-3

Management Extensions enable you to add support for previously unsupported servers and other hardware to Cisco
UCS Manager. For example, you may need to activate a Management Extension if you want to add a new, previously
unsupported server to an existing Cisco UCS domain.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/firmware-
mgmt/gui/2-2/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_22/
b_GUI_Firmware_Management_22_chapter_01001.html#task_AAF21C05F1754D30B2CBFFA4642840E3

 

QUESTION 13
After a recent acquisition, you have been asked to merge two SANs into one. Which SAN topology is Cisco
recommended?
A. Core-Edge
B. Edge-Core-Edge
C. Core Access
D. Collapsed Core
E. Collapsed Core-Edge
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit. lead4pass 300-135 exam question q1

Which two statements are correct? (Choose Two)
A. The source device has name resolution configured.
B. The source device is using two routes for the destination, learned from different protocols.
C. A device on the path is introducing considerable delay.
D. The source device is loading balancing traffic.
Correct Answer: AD
Router traces domain name (cisco.com) and it gets ICMP answers, so name resolution has happened. Per hop output
shows 2 lines, hence 2 active paths exist.

 

QUESTION 2
How to check MTU of interface using ping? / How can you check the links mtu size with ping command?
A. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1501
B. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1500 df-bit
C. ping 10.1.1.1
D. ping 10.1.1.1 no-size
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which two statements about IPv6 traffic filtering are true? (choose two)
A. it performs virtual fragmentation reassembly after checking engress ACLs
B. it performs virtual fragmentation after checking ingress ACLs
C. it requires IPv6 neighbor discovery to be enabled on the interface
D. it requires configuration to be done at the engress interface
E. it is configured at the interface level
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 4
===============================================================================lead4pass 300-135 exam question q4 lead4pass 300-135 exam question q4-1

Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
Solution
Steps need to follow as below:
When we check on client 1 and Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 Ipconfig —– Client will be
receiving IP address 10.2.1.3
IP 10.2.1.3 will be able to ping from R4 , R3, R2 but not from R1
Check for neighborship of ospf sh ip ospf nei —– Only one neighborship is forming with R2 and i.e. with R3 Since R2 is
connected to R1 and R3 with routing protocol ospf than there should be 2 neighbors seen but only one is seen
Need to check running config of R2 and R3 for interface Sh run ————————– Interface Serial0/0/0/0.12 on R2
Sh run ————————– Interface Serial0/0/0/0 on R1lead4pass 300-135 exam question q4-2

Change required: On R1, for IPV4 authentication of OSPF command is missing and required to configure—— ip ospf
authentication message-digest The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that
requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a
trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the
209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NTP
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Correct Answer: D
On R1, for IPV4 authentication of OSPF the command is missing and required to configure—— ip ospf authentication
message-digest The problem in this situation is with OSPF on router 1. It is missing the “ip ospf authentication
messagedigest” command on the Serial0/0/0/0.12 interface. The problem statement tells us that the two routers are not
able to become OSPF neighbors.

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. PC-2 failed to establish a Telnet connection to the Terminal Server. Which solution allows PC-2 to
establish the Telnet connection?lead4pass 300-135 exam question q5

A. Gateway-Router(config)#ipv6 access-list Default_Access Gateway-Router(config-ipv6-acl)#no sequence 20 Gateway-
Router(config-ipv6-acl)#sequence 5 permit tcp host 2018:DB1:A:B::2 host 2018:DB1:A:C::1 eq telnet
B. Gateway-Router(config)#ipv6 access-list Default_Access Gateway-Router(config-ipv6-acl)#permit tcp host
2018:DB1:A:B::2 host 2018:DB1:A:C::1 eq telnet
C. Gateway-Router(config)#ipv6 access-list Default_Access Gateway-Router(config-ipv6-acl)#sequence 15 permit tcp
host 2018:DB1:A:B::2 host 2018:DB1:A:C::1 eq telnet
D. Gateway-Router(config)#ipv6 access-list Default_Access Gateway-Router(config-ipv6-acl)#sequence 25 permit tcp
host 2018:DB1:A:B::2 host 2018:DB1:A:C::1 eq telnet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Which of the following is not an essential prerequisite for AutoQoS to be correctly applied to an interface? (Choose all
that apply.)
A. The interface must be configured as a Multilink PPP interface.
B. The correct bandwidth should be configured on the interface.
C. A QoS policy must not be currently attached to the interface.
D. CEF must be enabled.
E. AutoQoS must be enabled globally before it can be enabled on the interface.
F. An IP address must be configured on the interface if its speed is equal to or less than 768 kbps.
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 7
Which of the following characteristics describe the Root Guard feature? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The port must be put into forwarding state manually after root-inconsistent state has been corrected.
B. A Root Guard port receiving superior BPDU goes into a root-inconsistent state.
C. A Root Guard port receiving inferior BPDU goes into a root-inconsistent state.
D. While the port is in a root-inconsistent state no user data is sent across that port.
E. The port returns to a forwarding state if inferior BPDUs stop.
F. It should be applied to all switch ports.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: Spanning Tree Protocol Root Guard
Enhancement http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00800ae96b.shtml

 


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow the administrator to log in using the device database authentication?lead4pass 300-135 exam question q8

A. aaa authentication login default local
B. aaa authorization network default local
C. aaa authentication login default enable
D. aaa authorization exec default local
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which protocol does mGRE use to determine where packets are sent?
A. CEF
B. EIGRP
C. NHRP
D. DMVPN
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/ipsec-negotiation-ike-protocols/41940-dmvpn.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is an unlikely reason for the ARP process to fail?
A. CEF switching is disabled on the switch
B. The source device and destination device are in different VLANs
C. The VLAN is excluded from the trunk
D. The host is connected to the switch through an IP phone
E. A faulty cable from host to switch or between switches
F. The trunking encapsulation type is inconsistent on the two ends of the link
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 11
Given the multicast IP address of 224.193.5.10, what would the corresponding multicast MAC address be?
A. 00-00-0c-c0-05-0a
B. 00-00-0c-cl-05-0a
C. 01-00-5e-00-00-0c
D. 01-00-5e-41-05-0a
E. 00-00-0c-01-00-5e
F. 01-00-5e-cl-05-0a
Correct Answer: F
First three octets are 01-00-05e for every single multicast address.Las three octets are the hexadecimal version of the
las three octets of the IP address, in this case 193.5.10 is translated to c1-05-0a.

 

QUESTION 12
=============================================================================== Solutionlead4pass 300-135 exam question q12 lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12-1

Steps need to follow as below:
Since the problem is raised that DSW1 will not become active router for HSRP group 10
we will check for the HSRP configuration…
DSW1lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12-2

DSW2lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12-3

From snapshot we see that the track command given needs to be changed under active VLAN10 router
Change Required: On DSW1, related to HSRP, under vlan 10 change the given track 1 command to instead use the
track 10 command.
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client
2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241.
After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity,
FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened DSW1 will not become the active router for
HSRP
group 10.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. HSRP
C. IP DHCP Helper
D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing
E. IPv6 RIP Routing
F. IPv4 layer 3 security
G. Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
H. Loop Prevention
I. Access Vlans
J. Port Security
K. VLAN ACL/Port ACL
L. Switch Virtual Interface
Correct Answer: B
On DSW1, related to HSRP, under VLAN 10 change the given track 1 command to instead use the track 10 command.
The problem in this case is that DSW1 will not become the active standby router, which is an HSRP problem.

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following pieces of information will the command show interface provide? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Layer 1 status
B. Output queue drops
C. Interface CPU utilization
D. Cable type connected to interface
E. Layer 2 status
F. Input queue drops
Correct Answer: ABEF

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QUESTION 1
Which type of expenditure is the purchase of heavy equipment considered?
A. consumption
B. chargeback
C. show back 
D. operational
E. capital
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
During a business lead engagement, which role of the aspiring Cisco Business Architect is true?
A. to be more business focused
B. dedicated to running proof of value
C. to be more technology focused
D. to promote the business lead approach with other lines of business
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which options are the two features of business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Business requirements are managed by stakeholders.
B. Business requirements support specific business objectives.
C. Business requirements are prioritized in compliance with influence dynamics.
D. Business requirements are dynamic in nature and change over time.
E. Business requirements are always defined inside a line of business.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 4
KPIs are a quantitative measurement of progress against the tactical goals of an organization. Which are three
characteristics of KPIs? (Choose three.)
A. KPIs must be strategic and tactical in nature
B. KPIs can be financial, managerial, or operational
C. KPIs measure progress against goals
D. KPIs are set according to priorities: magnitude and urgency
E. KPIs define what needs to happen to achieve desired results in the time, budget, and level of the expected quality
Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the manufacturing industry?
A. Remote Expert
B. Advanced Routing
C. Service Provider Network Infrastructure
D. Plant Floor Control Network
E. Multilayer Switching
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which type of engagement occurs at the business solutions maturity level?
A. multidomain technology engagement
B. single-domain technology engagement
C. partial business engagement
D. business-first engagement
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
During a business solutions engagement, which item is nonessential for the Systems Engineers and Sales leadership to
be aware of?
A. maturity levels discussed during the business solution engagement
B. ability to support the business solution engagement
C. tools used during the business solution engagement
D. engagement type reviewed during the business solution engagement
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which building a block of business model canvas addresses the customer\\’s willingness to pay?
A. revenue streams
B. cost structure
C. customer segments
D. customer channels
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Which two examples are indirect financial benefits? (Choose two.)
A. increased customer satisfaction
B. increased operational expenditures
C. increased process efficiency
D. decreased capital expenditures
E. decreased total cost of ownership
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 10
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business
outcomes.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
IP addressing can be assigned in either a static or dynamic method.
Which two devices would likely be assigned dynamic IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. email server
B. IP phone network
C. printer
D. personal laptop
E. switch
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 12
Which two functions of the technology specialists in a Cisco Business Architecture engagement are true? (Choose
two.)
A. Own the customer relationship.
B. Focus on specific technical solutions.
C. Define business capabilities.
D. Support the engagement that is led by the business architect.
E. Identify customer business priorities.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 13
Which four options are components of the Seven Elements framework? (Choose four.)
A. Commitment
B. Relationship and Distribution
C. Relationship and Communications
D. Best Alternative
E. Interests, Agenda and Normative
F. Interests, Options, and Legitimacy
G. Alternatives, Opportunities, and Legitimacy
Correct Answer: ACDF

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about the wireless security technologies is true?\\’
A. WPA2-PSK mode provides better security by having the same passphrase across the network
B. WPA2 provides message integrity using AES
C. WPA2-PSK mode does not allow a passphrase? to be stored lo~cally on the device
D. WPA2 is more secure than WPA because it uses TKIP for encryption
E. WEP is more secure than WPA2 because it uses AES for encryption
F. WPA2-ENT mode does not require RADIUS for authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Drag each IP transmission and fragmentation term on the left to the matching statement on the right?
Select and Place:lead4pass 400-251 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-251 exam question q2

QUESTION 3
A hosted service provider is planning to use firewall contexts in its multitenant environment and will manage these
firewalls on behalf of its customers and allow them access to it for monitoring. For management purposes, the lead
architect of the service provider has decided to connect this management interface to a single shared management
zone VLAN (901) and allocate each context a unique IP form the assigned range of this VLAN. Which three statements
about this design are true? (Choose three)
A. Though this design is valid, a physical interface cannot be allocated to multiple contexts due to ASA traffic classifier
restrictions; this is only possible with subinterfaces.
B. This design concept is valid and requires some modifications. However, it would be more secure to only allow
customer management access from the data VLANs in their hosted environment to ensure adequate Layer 2/ Layer 3
separation between tenants
C. The ASA multi-context traffic classifier works differently for shared interfaces that exist on the same VLAN and have
the same MAC address when NAT is in use, other rules are applied when NAT is not in use.
D. The ASA classifier works only for data interfaces and not for management interfaces. The No Management-only
the command must be applied for this concept to work.
E. This design concept is not valid because it is not possible to allocate a physical interface to all contexts due to ASA
traffic classifier restrictions, this is only possible with subinterfaces.
F. Subinterfaces of the interface can be allocated only to contexts and not the actual management physical interface
G. The design for the management zone does not work unless unique MAC addresses are assigned
Correct Answer: CDG

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about the keying methods used by MACSec are true? (Choose three)
A. SAP is not supported on switch SVls.
B. SAP is supported on SPAN destination ports.
C. MKA is implemented as an EAPoL packet exchange.
D. Key management for host-to-switch and switch-to-switch MACSec sessions is provided by MKA.
E. SAP is enabled by default for Cisco TrustSec in manual configuration mode.
F. A valid mode for SAP is NULL.
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 5
Which three EAP protocols are supported in WPA and WPA2? (Choose three)
A. EAP-PSK
B. EAP-EKE
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-AKA
E. EAP-SIM
F. EAP-EEE
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 6
Which statement about Dynamic ARP inspection is true?
A. It requires that DHCP snooping be disabled to build a valid binding database
B. It validates ARP requests and responses on untrusted ports using the MAC address table
C. It drops invalid ARP responses and requests on the switch untrusted ports
D. It validates ARP requests and responses on trusted ports using IP-to-MAC address binding
E. It is supported only in DHCP environments to detect invalid ARP requests and responses
F. It forwards invalid ARP responses and requests on switch untrusted ports
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7lead4pass 400-251 exam question q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two)
A. The BGP neighbor session between R1 and R2 re-establishes after 100 minutes.
B. A warning message is displayed on R2 after it receives 50 prefixes.
C. A warning message is displayed on R2 after it receives 100 prefixes from neighbor 1.1.1.1.
D. The BGP neighbor session between R1 and R2 re-establishes after 50 minutes.
E. The BGP neighbor session tears down after R1 receive 100 prefixes from neighbor 1.1.1.1.
F. The BGP neighbor session tears down after R1 receive 200 prefixes from neighbor 2.2.2.2.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about VRF-lite implementation in a service provider network?
A. It requires multiple links between CE and PE for each VPN connection to enable privacy
B. It uses the source address to differentiate routes for different VPNs on the CE device
C. It can only support one VRF instance per CE device
D. It can have multiple VRF instances associated with a single interface on a CE device
E. It supports multiple VPNs at a CE device but their address spaces should not overlap
F. It enables the sharing of one CE device among multiple customers
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 9
A user attempts to browse the internet through a CWS-integrated router, and the HTTP 403 Forbidden error message is
returned. Which reason for the problem is the most likely?
A. The connection timed out
B. The CWS license has expired
C. The user attempted to access a web site that is blocked by CWS policy
D. User authentication failed
E. The user is not logged in to CWS
F. The CWS connector is down
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

lead4pass 400-251 exam question q10 lead4pass 400-251 exam question q10-1

Refer to the exhibit. RlS is building a Site-To-Site IPSec certificate based VPN tunnel with a peer at 20.1.7.16. TheCA is
running at port 80 on address 172.16.100.18. R15 has a BGP peer at 20.1.6.18 doing an authenticated session to
establish reachability with the VPN remote site. The VPN tunnel secures traffic between 192.168.15.0/24 and
192.168.16.0/24 network. It has been reported that a VPN tunnel is not coming up with the remote site. Which two
possible issues are true? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect trustpoint configuration
B. Incorrect BGP peer configuration
C. Incorrect static route
D. Incorrect transform set configuration
E. Incorrect crypto map configuration
F. Incorrect ISAKMP policy configuration
G. Incorrect ACL defined for the traffic encryption
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 11lead4pass 400-251 exam question q11

Refer to the exhibit, you issued the show crypt isakmp SA command to troubleshoot connection failure on IPsec VPN.
What possible issue does the given output indicate?
A. The peer is failing to respond
B. The crypto ACLs are mismatched
C. The pre-shared keys are mismatched
D. The transform sets are mismatched
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Drag and drop the desktop-security terms from the left onto their right definitions on the right?
Select and Place:lead4pass 400-251 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-251 exam question q12-1

QUESTION 13
Which statement is correct regarding the SenderBase functionality?
A. ESA sees a high negative score from SenderBase as very unlikely that the sender is sending spam.
B. SenderBase uses the DNS-based blacklist as one of the sources of information to define the reputation score of the sender\\’s IP
address.
C. WSA uses SenderBase information to configure URL filtering policies.
D. ESA uses destination address reputation information from SenderBase to configure mail policies.
E. SenderBase uses spam complaints as one of the sources of information to define the reputation score of the receiver IP
address.
F. ESA sees a high positive score from SenderBase as very likely that the sender is sending spam.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You develop software solutions for a web services company. You have the following code. (Line numbers are for
reference only.)
You need to implement an immediate response customer support solution for the company\\’s website. For each of
thefollowing statements, select Yesif the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass az-201 exam question q1Correct Answer: lead4pass az-201 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
You need to add code at line EG15 in EventGridControHer.es to ensure that the Log policy applies to all services.
Allow should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each
code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass az-201 exam question q2Correct Answer: lead4pass az-201 exam question q2-1

 

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You need to tool code at line LE03 of Login Event to ensure that all authentication events are processed correctly. How
should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass az-201 exam question q3 lead4pass az-201 exam question q3-1

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You have an application that provides weather forecasting data to external partners. You use Azure API Management to
publish APIs.
You must change the behavior of the API to meet the following requirements:
Support alternative inputparameters.
Remove formatting text from responses.
Provide additional context to back-end services.
Which types of polices should you implement? To answer, drag the policy types to the correct scenarios. Each policy
type maybe used once, more than once, or not at all. Youmayneed to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
Select and Place:lead4pass az-201 exam question q4Correct Answer: lead4pass az-201 exam question q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
Note:Thisquestionispartof aseriesofquestionsthatpresentthesamescenario.Eachquestionin the series contains a unique
solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others
might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You use ASP.NET Core MVC with ADO.NET to develop an application. You implement database sharding for the
application by using Azure SQL Database. You establish communication links between the sharddatabases.
Youneed to implement a strategy that allows a group of operations that are performed on multiple Azure databases to
be rolled back on all databases if any of the operations fail.
Solution:
In the .NET method, define a new transaction in a using block.
Within the using block, establish connections to each Azure SQL Database instance.
Run the SQL operations on each connection. If no exception occurs, commit the transaction.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
A company has an app that records and processes videos. New videos are recorded daily. The videos are displayed on
the companywebsite the dayafter theyare recorded. The companyruns several servers that process data andencode
the
videos. The processing servers use FFmpeg and proprietary software to encode and convert the videos.
The company plans to migrate the app to Azure. Azure Batch must be used to process videos. Each task must run a
command and output the result to a file on a destination storage account.
You create and assign values to the following variables:lead4pass az-201 exam question q6YouarereviewingcodetocreatetasksinAzureBatch.(Linenumbersareincludedforreferenceonly.) lead4pass az-201 exam question q6-1For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true.
Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You need to secure the access to the Delivery API.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass az-201 exam question q7Correct Answer: lead4pass az-201 exam question q7-1

QUESTION 8
Member of the finance department for a company review and make changes to a Microsoft Excel workbook that is
hosted on OneDrive. The workbook contains projected costs and revenue for a project.
You need to develop an Azure Function that ingests data from the modified workbook and place it into a Microsoft Word
document.
Which two objects should you implement? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. An auth token input binding
B. A group subscription
C. An Excel table output binding
D. A group conversationsubscription
E. An Excel table input binding
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
Note:this question is partof a series of questionsthat presentthe samescenario. Each questionin the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You use ASP.NET Core MVC with ADO.NET to develop an application. You implement database sharding for the
application by using Azure SQL Database. You establish communication to implement a strategy that allows a group of
operations that are performed on multiple Azure
databases to be rolled back on all database if any of the operations fail.
Solution
Create stored procedures in each Azure SQL database instance to perform operations for each respective database.
Invoke anamedtransaction and usethe same namefor thetransactionin each stored procedure.
Establish a new transaction scope in a using block. Within the block, establish connections to each Azure SQL
Database instance and run the stored procedure.
If no exception occurs, commit the scoped transaction.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Note:Thisquestionispartof aseriesofquestionsthatpresentthesamescenario.Eachquestionin the series contains a unique
solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others
might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Margie\\’s Travel is an international travel and bookings management service. The company is expanding into
restaurant bookings. You are tasked with implementing Azure Search for the restaurants listed in their solution.
You create the index in Azure Search.
You need to import the restaurant data into the Azure Search service by using the Azure Search .NET SDK.
Solution:
1.
Create a SearchlndexClient object to connect to the search index.
2.
Create a DataContainer that contains the documents which must be added.
3.
Create a DataSource instance and set its Container property to the DataContainer.
4.
Call the Documents.Suggest method of the SearchlndexClient and pass the DataSource. Does the solution meet the
goal?
A. No
B. Yes
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
Note:Thisquestionispartof aseriesofquestionsthatpresentthesamescenario. Eachquestionin the seriescontainsa unique
solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement
Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a cloud based email service.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
A construction company creates three-dimensional models from photographs and design diagrams of buildings. The
company plans to store high-resolution photographs and blueprint files in Azure Blob Storage. The files are currently
stored
in the construction company\\’s office.
You are developing a tool to connect to Azure Storage,create containers,and then upload the files.
The tool must remain responsive to the end user while it is running and performing remote I/O operations. It must also
wait for methods to complete before continuing.
You need to complete the configuration.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct solution is worth one point.
Hot Area:

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QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
Youare developing a solution that requires serverless code execution in Azure.
The solution has two functions that must run in a specific order.
You need to ensure that the second function can use the output from the first function,
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area,
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Latest effective Cisco 400-201 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which protocol provides fast link failure detection for all type of encapsulation?
A. Prefix Independent Convergence
B. Carrier delay
C. Non stop forwarding
D. Bidirectional forwarding detection
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which three counters from a show interface output indicate that data packets were dropped on that interface? (Choose
three.)
A. pause input
B. collisions
C. lost carrier
D. frame
E. runts
F. input error
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 3lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q3Refer to the exhibit Which PW type is negotiated?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5
F. Type 6
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 4
A network engineer observes increasing output drops on the serial interface. Which two solutions can be implemented
to minimize these drops? (Choose two.)
A. Increase the MTU size on the link.
B. Replace the serial cable between the connecting devices.
C. Turn on fast switching.
D. Increase the output hold queue size.
E. Implement priority queuing on slower serial links by configuring priority lists.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 5
Which two statements best describe the functionality of the BGP graceful restart capability? (Choose two.)
A. The peer router sends an end-of RIB message to the restarting router.
B. The peer router immediately removes the BGP routes that it learned from the restarting router from its BGP routing
table.
C. The restarting router does not remove any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires.
D. The router establishes BGP sessions with other routers and relearns the BGP routes from other routers that are also
capable of graceful restart. The restarting router waits to receive updates from the neighboring routers. When the
neighboring routers send end-of- RIB messages to indicate that they are done sending updates, the restarting router
starts sending its own updates.
E. The restarting router removes any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 6
The SP core supports PIM-SM for multicast traffic, but one of these routers is not able to see one of its PIM neighbors.
What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The router is an RP with high priority.
B. IGMP snooping is not enabled.
C. PIM sparse mode is not enabled on a participating multicast interface.
D. PIM protocols are not enabled in global configuration mode.
E. Auto-RP is not enabled on this network.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Which two statements about spanning tree path cost are true? (Choose two.)
A. The path cost can be changed for an interface using the spanning-tree cost command.
B. The path cost can be changed for an interface using the stp path-cost command.
C. The STP default path cost depends on the interface speed.
D. The STP default path cost is similar for all interface.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 8
Which BGP feature protects the external BGP peering session from CPU utilization-based attacks that use forged IP
packets?
A. BGP multihop
B. TTL security check
C. BGP FlowSpec
D. Secure BGP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
On Cisco IOS devices, which IS-IS feature reduces the convergence time for prefixes designated as high priority?
A. iSPF
B. advertise passive only
C. prefix prioritization
D. Fast-Forwarding
E. Route tagging
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 10lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q10Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has a requirement to enable MPLS TE tunnels on the network to be L3VPN
customers. Which MPLS TE feature allow the network engineer to configure MPLS TE LSPs by using a few CLI
commands?
A. AutoTunnel Mesh Groups on all P and PE routers
B. AutoTunnel Primary and Backup on all PE routers
C. AutoTunnel Primary and Backup on all P and PE routers
D. AutoTunnel Mesh Groups on all PE routers
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which type of IPv6 address does OSPFv3 use to communicate with OSPFv3 neighbors?
A. link-local
B. site-local
C. global
D. unique local
E. anycast
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q12Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct?
A. If the labeled packet arrives with the bottom label of 27, the label is replaced with label 38 and the packet is sent out
on the Gigabitethernet 0/0
B. If the labeled packet arrives with the bottom label of 27, all of the labels are replaced with label 38 and the packet is
sent out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface
C. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 27,the label is replaced with the label 38 and the packet is sent
out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface
D. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 27, all of the labels are replaced with label 38 and the packet is
sent out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface.
E. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 38,the label is replaced with label 27 and the packet is sent out
on the GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface
F. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 38, all labels are replaced with the label 27 and the packet is
sent out on the GogabitEthernet 0/0/ interface.
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 13
Which three are optional extensions of the Frame Relay Local Management Interface specification? (Choose three) A.
Switched virtual circuit
B. Virtual circuit status
C. Simple flow control
D. Multicasting
E. Permanent virtual circuit
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation: Optional LMI Extensions:
The LMI specification also defines several optional extensions:
*
Global addressing convention
*
Multicast capability
*
A simple flow control mechanism
*
Ability for the network to communicate a PVC\\’s CIR to the subscriber in a Status message
*
A new message type that allows the network to announce PVC status changes without prompting from the subscriber
Implementors may build any, all, or none of these features into their networks.


QUESTION 14
During the modem boot process, how does the modem acquire the downstream channel?
A. The modem is commanded by the CMTS to set to the specific channel.
B. The modem uses the default value in the broadcom chipset.
C. The modem tuner sets a level as defined by the DOCSIS specification.
D. The modem tuner scans the downstream spectrum until digital QAM modulated signal is encountered
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 15
Which two features prevent routing loops between the OSPF sites of a customer when the sites are multihomed or a
backdoor link is used between the sites? (Choose two.)
A. sham link
B. down bit
C. virtual link
D. Site of Origin
E. domain tag
Correct Answer: BE
If a route sent from a PE router to a CE router could then be received by another PE router from one of its own CE
router, there are chances of routing loops. This situation is possible when a “backdoor link” connects two CE routers
connected to two different PE routers. To prevent this, the PE sets the DN bit in any LSA that it sends to the CE router.
If the PE router receives any LSA with DN bit set, it ignores the LSA.
1) DN bit:
When a PE router sends a Type-3 LSA to a CE router, the DN bit in LSA Options field must be set. Now if the CE router
sends the Type-3 LSA to other PE router(s), the PE router will not redistribute it further.
When a PE router needs to distribute a route to a CE router which comes from the outside of CE router\\’s OSPF
domain, the PE router presents itself as an ASBR and distributes the route in Type-5 LSA. The DN bit must be set in the
LSA.
The Options field is present in all LSAs. The Options field is 1-byte long as follows- DN O DC EA N/P MC E MT
2) Route Tags (Domain Tags):
In some implementations (where DN bit is not set), Domain Tags (named by Cisco) are used to ensure Type-5
LSAs generated by a PE router will be ignored by other PE routers that may receive it. The value of Domain tag is
configurable and arbitrary if not set. Hence must be distinct from other OSPF tags


QUESTION 16
In the context of GMPLS, LMP stands for:
A. Load Management Protocol
B. Label Management Protocol
C. Loop Management Protocol
D. Link Management Protocol
Correct Answer: D
The Generalized Multi-Protocol Label Switching (GMPLS)[1] is a protocol suite extending MPLS to manage further
classes of interfaces and switching technologies other than packet interfaces and switching, such as time division
multiplex,
layer-2 switch, wavelength switch and fiber-switch.
GMPLS is composed of three main protocols:
Resource Reservation Protocol with Traffic Engineering extensions (RSVP-TE) signaling protocol.[5][6]Open Shortest
Path First with Traffic Engineering extensions (OSPF-TE) routing protocol.[7][8] Link Management Protocol (LMP).[9]


QUESTION 17
IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS
domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6
multicast traffic only to those ports that want to receive it?
A. IGMP snooping
B. MLD snooping
C. MLD querier
D. IGMP version 3 E. MLD version 2
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
Which SONET protocol layer is in charge of clock synchronization and timing issues?
A. Photonic
B. Section
C. Path
D. Line
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Which option propagates SRLG membership information to the network?
A. BGP attribute
B. IGP extension
C. RSVP extension
D. LDP extension
E. PIM extension
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 20
A service provider is using point-to-multipoint TE to forward MPLS traffic from one source to multiple destinations, what
is a restriction of using this method?
A. Destinations must be manually added and removed on the TE tail-end router
B. Multicast traffic must be implemented using PIM sparse mode
C. Point-to-multipoint TE does not support policy-based routing
D. Only node protection is supported on point-to-multipoint TE LSPs
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q21Inbound Infrastructure ACLs are configured to protect the SP network. Which three types of traffic should be filtered in
the infrastructure ACLs? (Choose three.)
A. traffic from a source with an IP address that is within 239.255.0.0/16
B. FTP traffic destined for internal routers
C. IPsec traffic that at an internal router
D. traffic from a source with an IP address that is within 162.238.0.0/16
E. EBGP traffic that peers with edge routers
Correct Answer: ABD
With the use of the protocols and addresses identified, the infrastructure ACL can be built to permit the protocols and
protect the addresses. In addition to direct protection, the ACL also provides a first line of defense against certain types
of invalid traffic on the Internet:
-RFC 1918 space must be denied. (RFC1918 describes a set of network ranges set aside for so-called “private” use.)
-Packets with a source address that fall under special-use address space, as defined in RFC 3330, must be denied.
-Anti-spoof filters must be applied. (Your address space must never be the source of packets from outside your AS.)


QUESTION 22
The layer 2 protocol used by POS technology offers a standardized way for mapping IP packets into SONET/ SDH
payloads. Select the correct sequence of POS operation:
1) Data is scrambled and synchronous mapping takes place by octet into the SONET/SDH frame.
2) Encapsulated via Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) takes place framing information is added with High-level
Data Link Control (HDLC).
3) Gaps between frames are filled with flags, set to value 7E.
4) Octet stuffing occurs if any flags or resultant escape characters (of value 7D) are found in the data.
5) Data is segmented into an IP datagram with its 20-byte IP header.
A. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
C. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
D. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Correct Answer: D
The proper order of operation of PoS is:
When transmitting:
IP -> PPP -> FCS generation -> Byte stuffing -> Scrambling -> SONET/SDH framing When receiving:
SONET/SDH framing -> Descrambling -> Byte destuffing -> FCS detection -> PPP -> IP Remote


QUESTION 23
Which descriptions of Netflow is correct? (Choose three.)
A. By default,Netflow records bidirectional IP traffic flow.
B. Netflow answers questions regarding IP traffiC. who, what, where, when, and how
C. Netflow accounts for both transit traffic and traffic destined for the router.
D. Netflow returns the subinterface information in the flow records.
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 24
Which option describes a benefits of IPv6 VPN Provider Edge?
A. Provider support for intra-AS and CSC scenarios
B. Uses separate signaling plane, which provides more security than IPv4
C. BGP is the preferred routing protocol for connecting two SPs.
D. No requirement for a separate signaling plane
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 25
Which of the following descriptions about IP spoofing is correct?
A. IP destination address is forged
B. IP source address is forged
C. IP TCP destination port is forged
D. None of above
E. IP TCP source port is forged
Correct Answer: B
1.13. Security in core


QUESTION 26
Which option is the SONET frame format of the STM-4 SDH circuit?
A. STS-1
B. STS-192
C. STS-12
D. STS-3
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q27Inbound infrastructure ACLs are configured to protect the SP network. Which two types of traffic should be permitted in
the infrastructure ACL? (Choose two.)
A. traffic destined for network of 172.30.0.0/16
B. traffic source from network of 172.30.0.0/16
C. traffic destined for network of 162.238.0.0/16
D. traffic source from network of 162.238.0.0/16
E. traffic destined for network of 232.16.0.0/16
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 28
In an infrastructure As a service cloud deployment model, which two components are managed by the customer?
(Choose two)
A. hardware (server)
B. Network storage
C. Virtualization
D. Operating System
E. Runtime application
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 29lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q29Refer to the exhibit Customer ABC is peering with two service providers for internet access. In order to prevent the AS
100 from becoming a transit AS between ISP_1 and ISP_2. Which BGP configuration must be applied to achieve this
goal?
A. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY
permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor
1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
B. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
C. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
D. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit
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10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor
1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
E. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 30
In the Inter-AS VPN deployment shown in the diagram, what is the Next Hop address of MP-IBGP Update for CE4
network received at PE-R2?lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q30A. ASBR-2 50.0.0.3
B. PE-R2 50.0.0.2
C. PE-R4 50.0.0.4
D. ASBR-1 50.0.0.1
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 31
In which way does the DS-Lite IPv6 transitioning mechanism differ from IPv6 Dual-Stack?
A. DS-Lite is a combination of tunnel and translation technologies.
B. DS-Lite is a transition technology that gives full IPv6 connectivity for IPv6 capable hosts that are on the IPv4 Internet
but have no native connection to an IPv6 network.
C. DS-Lite is an automatic tunnel where the tunnel destination is determined by the IPv4 address extracted from the
IPv6 address that starts with the prefix 2002::/16.
D. DS-Lite is a stateless tunneling mechanism with a lightweight and secure manner without requiring upgrades to
existing IPv4 access network infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 32
A service provider is offering VoIP services level agreement to customers. Which configuration provides validation that
the service level agreement has been honored?
A. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
B. ipsla 999 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forerver start-time now
C. ipsla 99 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
D. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever start-time now
E. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
F. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever stat-time now
Correct Answer: F


QUESTION 33
Which two Any Transport over MPLS (AToM) traffic encapsulations require the use of a control word? (Choose two)
A. HDLC
B. ATM AAL5
C. PPP
D. Ethernet VLAN
E. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: BE
AToM Header
The AToM header is 4 bytes (control word). The control word is optional for Ethernet, PPP, HDLC, and cell relay
transport types. However, the control word is required for Frame Relay, and ATM AAL5 transport types.


QUESTION 34
Which statement about IPv6 security is true?
A. Reconnaissance attacks are easier to do in IPv6 compared to IPv4.
B. IPv6 amplification attacks can happen using IPv6 broadcast address.
C. RA-guard feature is used to block rogue RAs.
D. ICMP policies on firewalls do not need to be changed for IPv6 because ICMP is Layer 3 agnostic.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 35
Which command will display the MPLS label binding for IP prefix 1.1.1.0 on the router?
A. All of the above.
B. show tag-switching tdp binding 1.1.1.0/24
C. show tag-switching tdp bindings neighbor 1.1.1.0
D. A and B both will show the binding.
E. show tag-switching interface e0/0
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 36
What Cisco IOS feature examines packets received to make sure that the source address and interface are in the
routing table and match the interface that the packet was received on?
A. MPLS Traffic Engineering
B. Receive ACL
C. Unicast RPF
D. Authentication
E. Dynamic access-lists
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q37An MPLS VPN service has been provisioned for an ABC customer. Based on the output from the VRF BGP
configuration of PE1 and PE2, which statement describes the route exchange between ABC site 1 and site 2?
A. Only CE1 will be able to install CE2 BGP updates in its BGP table.
B. Only CE2 will be able to install CE1 BGP updates in its BGP table.
C. CE1 can install the CE2 subnets in its BGP table and CE2 can install the CE1 subnets its BGP table.
D. CE1 cannot install the CE2 subnets in its BGP table and CE2 cannot install the CE1 subnets its BGP table.
E. “as-override” feature cannot be used in this scenario.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 38
A network engineer is responsible for provisioning LDP and IGP over the IP core network to maintain the MPLS
functionality as a day-to-day task. The IP engineer is looking for automation opportunities. Which feature allows the LDP
protocol to be automatically enabled on interfaces that run IGP on the routers?
A. MPLS LDP autoconfiguration
B. MPLS LDP discovery
C. MPLS LDP-IGP synchronization
D. MPLS LDP session protection
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. Why is router 1 unable to ping 10.10.100.2 from vrf cust1?
A. Because Multi-VRF support is not enabled
B. Because address-family ipv4 is missing from the VRF statement
C. Because of an incorrect interface configuration
D. Because of a missing BGP configuration
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
What is a limitation of implementing uRPF?
A. Domain name must be defined.
B. MPLS LDP must be enabled.
C. BGP routing protocol must be running.
D. Symmetrical routing is required.
E. Named access-lists must be configured.
Correct Answer: D

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