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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 070-417
Total Questions: 427 Q&As
070-417 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server 1. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to collect the error events from all of the servers on Server1. The solution must ensure that when new servers are added to the domain, their error events are collected automatically on Server1.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. On Server1, create a collector initiated subscription.
B. On Server1, create a source computer initiated subscription.
C. From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the Configure target Subscription Manager setting.
D. From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the Configure forwarder resource usage setting.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
You need to log the amount of system resources used by each virtual machine.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Enable-VMResourceMeteringcmdlet.
B. From Windows System Resource Manager, enable Accounting.
C. From Windows System Resource Manager, add a resource allocation policy.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Measure-VM cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Certificate Services server role installed and is configured as a standalone certification authority (CA).
You install a second server named Server2. You install the Online Responder role service on Server2. 070-417 dumps
You need to ensure that Server1 can issue an Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) Response Signing certificate to Server2.
What should you run on Server1?
A. The certreq.exe command and specify the -policy parameter
B. The certutil.exe command and specify the -getkey parameter
C. The certutil.exe command and specify the -setreg parameter
D. The certreq.exe command and specify the -retrieve parameter
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a new server named Server1 and you join Server1 to the domain.
You need to ensure that you can view processor usage and memory usage information in Server Manager.
What should you do?
A. From Server Manager, click Configure Performance Alerts.
B. From Performance Monitor, create a Data Collector Set (DCS).
C. From Performance Monitor, start the System Performance Data Collector Set (DCS).
D. From Server Manager, click Start Performance Counters.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You have a file server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 has a volume named D that contains user data. Server1 has a volume named E that is empty.
Server1 is configured to create a shadow copy of volume D every hour.
You need to configure the shadow copies of volume D to be stored on volume E.
What should you run?
A. The Set-Volume cmdlet with the -driveletter parameter
B. The Set-Volume cmdlet with the -path parameter
C. The vssadmin.exe add shadowstorage command
D. The vssadmin.exe create shadow command
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server3 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
DHCP is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-417 dumps
You need to ensure that only Scope1, Scope3, and Scope5 assign the same DNS servers to DHCP clients. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a superscope and a filter.
B. Create a superscope and scope-level policies.
C. Configure the Server Options.
D. Configure the Scope Options.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to enable Hyper-V Network Virtualization on Server1. 070-417 dumps
You need to install the Windows Network Virtualization Filter Driver on Server1.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-NetVirtualizationGlobal
B. Enable-NetAdapterBinding
C. Add – WindowsFeature
D. Set-NetAdapterVmq
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DNS Server server role installed.
Server1 has a zone named contoso.com. The zone is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-417 dumps
You need to assign a user named User1 permission to add and delete records from the contoso.com zone only.
What should you do first?
A. Enable the Advanced view from DNS Manager.
B. Add User1 to the DnsUpdateProxy group.
C. Run the New Delegation Wizard.
D. Configure the zone to be Active Directory-integrated.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named File1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
File1 has a volume named D that contains home folders. File1 creates a shadow copy of volume D twice a day.
You discover that volume D is almost full.
You add a new volume named H to File1.
You need to ensure that the shadow copies of volume D are stored on volume H.
Which command should you run?
A. The Set-Volume cmdlet with the -driveletter parameter
B. The vssadmin.exe create shadow command
C. The Set-Volume cmdlet with the -path parameter
D. The vssadmin.exe add shadowstorage command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 has three physical network adapters named NIC1, NIC2, and NIC3. On Server1, you create a NIC team named Team1 by using NIC1 and NIC2. You configure Team1 to accept network traffic on VLAN 10.
You need to ensure that Server1 can accept network traffic on VLAN 10 and VLAN 11. The solution must ensure that the network traffic can be received on both VLANs if a network adapter fails.
What should you do?
A. From Server Manager, change the load balancing mode of Team1.
B. Run the New-NetLbfoTeamcmdlet.
C. From Server Manager, add an interface to Team1.
D. Run the Add-NetLbfoTeamMembercmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server named CA1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. CA1 has the Active Directory Certificate Services server role installed and is configured to support key archival and recovery. 070-417 dumps
You need to ensure that a user named User1 can decrypt private keys archived in the Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) database. The solution must prevent User1 from retrieving the private keys from the AD CS database.
What should you do?
A. Assign User1 the Issue and Manage Certificates permission to CA1.
B. Assign User1 the Read permission and the Write permission to all certificate templates.
C. Provide User1 with access to a Key Recovery Agent certificate and a private key.
D. Assign User1 the Manage CA permission to CA1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is an enterprise root certification authority (CA) for contoso.com.
Your user account is assigned the certificate manager role and the auditor role on the contoso.com CA.
Your account is a member of the local Administrators group on Server1.
You enable CA role separation on Server1.
You need to ensure that you can manage the certificates on the CA.
What should you do?
A. Remove your user account from the local Administrators group.
B. Assign the CA administrator role to your user account.
C. Assign your user account the Bypass traverse checking user right.
D. Remove your user account from the Manage auditing and security log user right.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge
Exam Name: SMB Specialization for Engineers
Exam Code: 700-501
Total Questions: 50 Q&As
700-501 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which three competitive advantages does the Cisco Unified Computing System provide? (Choose three.)
A. Ease of planning via the CSIM capacity modeling tool.
B. Supports only rack server models to reduce cost.
C. Greater virtual desktop density without performance impact.
D. Supports only blade server models to reduce system complexity.
E. Lower cost for compute plus network infrastructure.
F. Simple operation; start in minutes, scale in seconds.
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 2
Which three customer challenges do Cisco architectures help to solve? (Choose three.)
A. Increase ROI
B. Reduce independence
C. Provide creative solutions
D. Lower costs
E. Boost productivity
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
When LAN connectivity is designed which option increases high availability and minimizes network administration?
A. integrated switch in WAN router
B. stacked switch design
C. multiple switch design
D. single external switch design
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two IT solution characteristics do small and midsize business customers prefer? 700-501 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Solutions that will increase employee morale.
B. Flexibility; devices can be added easily in the future.
C. Enterprisegrade functionality; complexity is not a concern.
D. Simple devices that work well together right out of the box.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which three options are features of the Cisco Validated Design Program? (Choose three.)
A. Onsite consulting from Cisco Advanced Services engineers.
B. Design guides organized by solution, technology, and architecture.
C. Details on guidelines and practices for different customer scenarios.
D. Specific guidance based on your customer’s current environment.
E. System and solution designs that are documented and tested.
F. 24×7 phone support on network design questions.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
Which two options are advantages of Cisco Data Center solutions over the competition? (Choose two.)
A. Embedded self service
B. Endtoend optimization
C. Scalability without complexity
D. Seamless installation
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
How many virtual machines can VSPEX preconfigured solutions can scale to?
A. 125
B. 150
C. 50
D. 100
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS ESeries Servers
B. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 5000
D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
E. Cisco UCS CSeries Servers
F. Cisco Nexus 3048
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which two benefits are delivered by Cisco Telepresence? 700-501 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Experience is integrated.
B. Large files can be delivered between locations.
C. User experiences are unified.
D. Any endpoint can be used.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which two benefits does the Cisco FlexPod Design Guide provide? (Choose two.)
A. Provides guidance on EMC VNXe storage sizing.
B. Provides a onesizefitsall solution for ease of configuration and deployment.
C. Helps customers mitigate the risk and uncertainty involved in planning designing, and implementing virtualization.
D. Documents stepbystep instructions for installing and configuring all components, including thirdparty applications.
E. Provides a more predictive and adaptable architecture capable of meeting and exceeding customers’ IT demands.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 11
Which design practice is the best to reduce wireless CCI?
A. Place adjacent access points on different channels.
B. Place adjacent access points on the same channel.
C. Eliminate all signal overlap between access points.
D. Configure access points with the lowest supported data rate.
E. Place adjacent access points on nonoverlapping channels.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Which three options are competitive advantages of Cisco wireless solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Improved WLAN reliability is provided
B. Integrated security with wireless threat detection and mitigation is provided.
C. Access points support only the centralized deployment model.
D. Simplified and intuitive WLAN management and troubleshooting are provided.
E. Access points support only the distributed deployment model
F. Management and administration via Cisco SIO make deployment easy.
Correct Answer: ABD

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Specialist: Microsoft Azure
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Exam Code: 70-534
Total Questions: 249 Q&As
70-534 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are designing an Azure web application.
All users must authenticate by using Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) credentials. You need to recommend an approach to enable single sign-on to the application for domain-authenticated users. Which two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use Forms authentication to generate claims.
B. Use the SQL membership provider in the web application.
C. Use Windows Identity Foundation in the web application.
D. Use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to generate claims.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You need to prepare the implementation of data storage for the contractor information app.
What should you?
A. Create a storage account and implement multiple data partitions.
B. Create a Cloud Service and a Mobile Service. Implement Entity Group transactions.
C. Create a Cloud Service and a Deployment group. Implement Entity Group transactions.
D. Create a Deployment group and a Mobile Service. Implement multiple data partitions.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are planning an upgrade strategy for an existing Azure application. Multiple instances of the application run in Azure. 70-534 dumps The management team is concerned about application downtime due to a business service level agreement (SLA).
You are evaluating which change in your environment will require downtime. You need to identify the changes to the environment that will force downtime.
Which change always requires downtime?
A. Adding an HTTPS endpoint to a web role
B. Upgrading the hosted service by deploying a new package
C. Changing the value of a configuration setting
D. Changing the virtual machine size
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are running a Linux guest in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). You must run a daily maintenance task. The maintenance task requires native BASH commands.
You need to configure Azure Automation to perform this task.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an automation account.
B. Create an Orchestrator runbook.
C. Create an asset credential.
D. Run the Invoke-Workflow Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
E. Import the SSH PowerShell Module.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 5
You need to design the system that alerts project managers to data changes in the contractor information app.
Which service should you use?
A. Azure Mobile Service
B. Azure Service Bus Message Queueing
C. Azure Queue Messaging
D. Azure Notification Hub
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend data storage mechanisms for the solution.
What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate data storage mechanism to the correct information type. Each data storage mechanism may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-534 dumps
QUESTION 7
You are designing an Azure application. The application includes services hosted in different geographic locations. The service locations may change.
You must minimize the cost of communication between services.
You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure services.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Table storage
B. Service Bus
C. Service Management API
D. Azure Queue storage
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You are designing a plan to deploy a new application to Azure. The solution must provide a single sign-on experience for users.
You need to recommend an authentication type.
Which authentication type should you recommend?
A. SAML credential tokens
B. Azure managed access keys
C. Windows Authentication
D. MS-CHAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are designing an Azure development environment. Team members learn Azure development techniques by training in the development environment.
The development environment must auto scale and load balance additional virtual machine (VM) instances. 70-534 dumps You need to recommend the most cost-effective compute-instance size that allows team members to work with Azure in the development environment.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Al standardVM Instance
B. Azure A2 basic VM Instance
C. Azure A3 basic VM Instance
D. Azure A9 standard VM Instance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An application currently resides on an on-premises virtual machine that has 2 CPU cores 4 GB of RAM 20 GB of hard disk space and a 10 megabit/second network connection.
You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You have the following requirements:
You must not make changes to the application.
You must minimize the costs for hosting the application.
You need to recommend the appropriate virtual machine instance type.
Which virtual machine tier should you recommend?
A. Network Optimized (A Series)
B. General Purpose Compute Basic Tier (A Series)
C. General Purpose Compute Standard Tier (A Series)
D. Optimized Compute (D Series)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a solution that allows partners to authenticate.
Which solution should you recommend?
A. Configure the federation provider to trust social identity providers.
B. Configure the federation provider to use the Azure Access Control service.
C. Create a new directory in Azure Active Directory and create a user account for the partner.
D. Create an account on the VanArsdel domain for the partner and send an email message that contains the password to the partner.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You need to ensure that users do not need to re-enter their passwords after they authenticate to cloud applications for the first time.
What should you do?
A. Enable Microsoft Account authentication.
B. Set up a virtual private network (VPN) connection between the VanArsdel premises and Azure datacenter. Set up a Windows Active Directory domain controller in Azure VM. Implement Integrated Windows authentication.
C. Deploy ExpressRoute.
D. Configure Azure Active Directory Sync to use single sign-on (SSO).
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Exam Code: 300-160
Total Questions: 402 Q&As
300-160 dumps
QUESTION 1
Endpoints are configured for both H.323 and SIP using the same URI and Cisco VCS settings, but the endpoints register only as H.323 endpoints. What is causing this issue?
A. A firewall is blocking all traffic from the endpoints to the Cisco VCS.
B. The Cisco VCS has no SIP domains configured.
C. The Cisco VCS is blocking the endpoints because of duplicate ID entries.
D. The endpoints do not have the SIP option key installed.
E. SIP does not work, because SIP is used for Cisco Unified Communications Manager registration only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are troubleshooting video quality issues on a Cisco TelePresence TX9000 Series system. Which CLI command shows the total number of lost video packets and the received jitter during a call in progress?
A. show call statistics video
B. show call statistics all
C. show call statistics detail
D. show call statistics video detail
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
URI dialing is enabled between two clusters with the default options. The engineer that set up the URI dialing verified that all was working properly. 300-160 dumps However, a user from one of the clusters cannot dial using URI to a user in the same cluster. What do you do to resolve this issue?
A. Verify the password that is used by the authentication under Intercluster Lookup Service configuration.
B. Find out if the URI address of the called user has a capital letter in the URI string.
C. Verify that Intercluster Lookup Service is set up correctly.
D. Verify USN Data Synchronization Status.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which alarm string purges all learned patterns from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. DuplicateLearnedPattern
B. SAFForwarderError
C. CCDIPReachableTimeOUT
D. CCDPSTNFailOverDurationTimeOUT
E. CCDLearnedPatternLimitReached
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager tool can you use to troubleshoot issues with international calling?
A. Cisco Prime
B. Cisco Deployment Tool
C. RTMT
D. Dialed Number Analyzer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which alarm string purges all learned patterns from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. DuplicateLearnedPattern
B. SAFForwarderError
C. CCDIPReachableTimeOUT
D. CCDPSTNFailOverDurationTimeOUT
E. CCDLearnedPatternLimitReached
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Refer to topology and Exhibits below:
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
What is the reason that this MGCP gateway is not registered with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. The primary server address is incorrect.
B. The MGCP domain name is incorrect on either the Cisco Unified Communications Manager or the router.
C. Backhaul/Redundant link port is incorrect
D. This MGCP gateway is not down; it is operational.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You implement multiple registrars for SIP trunks for the Cisco Unified Border Element to ensure redundant PSTN access, you fee receive an error that indicates that the registration server is invalid. 300-160 dumps Which two commands correct the problem? (Choose two.)
A. registrar 2 ipv4:1.1.1.1 expires 360
B. CUSP registrar 9 dns:cisco.com expires 60
C. no registrar 2 dns:cisco.com expires 60
D. registrar 20 dns:cisco.com
E. registrar 1 dns:cisco.com expires 180
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
What is a common reason that an IP Phone cannot get its configuration from Cisco Unified Communications Manager after it obtains the correct IP address information?
A. The DHCP scope is exhausted.
B. The DHCP server is not reachable.
C. The DHCP scope is on the wrong subnet.
D. The DHCP scope has the incorrect Option 150 or 66 defined.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command do you use to confirm that a router interlace is enabled for SAP?
A. show eigrp service-family ipv4 client details.
B. show ip interface details
C. show ip saf-service-family interface
D. show run
E. show eigrp service -family interface
F. show eigrp service-family lpv4 Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Users on your network report fast busy signals when they atlempt to place calls. While troubleshooting,you verify that the codecs are configured correctly and determine that the network carries up to 200 concurrent calls at different times of the day. Which two actions correct the problem? (Choose two).
A. Add more Cisco Unified Communications Managers to the cluster.
B. Add more DSPs to the NM-HD
C. Increase the number of sessions to the maximum allowed by system resources.
D. Implement an SRST-CMF gateway to improve resource allocation.
E. Add a Cisco Catalyst switch to the environment to increase port density
F. Bind the network PRIs to add additional bandwidth
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 12
Cisco Unified Mobile Connect has been enabled, but users are not able to switch an in-progress call from their mobile phone to their desk phone. You find out that the Resume softkey option does not appear on the desk phone after users hang up the call on their mobile phone. What do you do to resolve this issue?
A. Issue the progress_ind progress disable command in the gateway.
B. Issue the voice call disc-pi-off command in the gateway.
C. Enable mobile connect on the user profile.
D. Assign Resume softkey on the desk phone.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Office 365 Project Portfolio Management
Exam Name: Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM (beta)
Exam Code: 70-348
Total Questions: 48 Q&As
70-348 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are evaluating the implementation of database availability groups (DAGs). You need to recommend a DAG implementation that meets the redundancy requirements of A.
Datum. What should you recommend?
A. Add two Mailbox servers to each site. Create one DAG for each site. Add the Mailbox servers for each site to their respective DAG.
B. Add one Mailbox server to each site. Create one DAG that contains both Mailbox servers.
C. Add one Mailbox server to each site. Create two DAGs. Add one Mailbox server to each DAG.
D. Add two Mailbox servers to each site. Create two DAGs. Add one Mailbox server from each site to each DAG.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend changes to the Active Directory infrastructure of Litware. The changes must ensure that users in all of the offices can access their local mailbox if a WAN link fails. What should you recommend?
A. Enable universal group membership caching in the Tokyo site.
B. Deploy a read-only global catalog server to the Bangkok site.
C. Enable the global catalog on Server3.
D. Disable the global catalog on Server2.
E. Enable universal group membership caching in the Bangkok site.
F. Deploy a read-only global catalog server to the Tokyo site.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are evaluating the implementation of Exchange Server 2010 SP1 Edge Transport servers and Hub Transport servers in adatum.com. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the Exchange Server 2010 SP1 servers can queue email messages for humongousinsurance.com. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. an authoritative domain
B. a retention policy
C. a remote domain
D. an external relay domain
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend changes to the existing Active Directory infrastructure to support the planned Exchange Server 2010 SP1 deployment. 70-348 dumps The solution must meet the business goals of A. Datum. What should you include in the recommendation? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Upgrade one global catalog server in each site to Windows Server 2008 R2.
B. Raise the functional level of the domain.
C. Raise the functional level of the forest.
D. Upgrade all of the global catalog servers to Windows Server 2003 x64 Edition.
E. Upgrade all of the domain controllers to Windows Server 2003 x64 Edition.
Correct Answer: B, C

QUESTION 5
You are designing the Exchange Server 2010 SP1 organization for A. Datum. You need to ensure that all of the email sent to the Internet by the A. Datum users has a return email address in the required format. What should you include in the design?
A. an Edge Transport server, three Edge Transport rules, and an email address policy.
B. an Edge Transport server and address rewrite entries.
C. a Hub Transport server and address rewrite entries.
D. a Hub Transport server, three Hub Transport rules, and an email address policy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend an administrative solution for the human resources teams. The solution must meet the security requirements of A. Datum. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a split permissions model
B. built-in security groups and distribution groups
C. management role groups
D. direct role assignments
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You have a SharePoint Server 2010 server farm. You need to enable trace logging for the Search service. What should you configure?
A. diagnostic logging
B. the Health Analyzer rule definitions
C. the Search service Application
D. usage and health data collection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution that meets the archiving requirements of A. Datum.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. recovery databases and Personal Archives
B. single item recovery and recovery databases
C. single item recovery and litigation holds
D. Personal Archives and retention policies
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a routing group configuration that meets the business requirements of A. Datum. 70-348 dumps What should you include in the recommendation?
A. one routing group for each office that contains all of the Exchange servers in that office
B. one routing group that contains all of the Exchange Server 2003 servers and all of the Exchange Server 2010 SP1 servers
C. one routing group for each office that contains only the Exchange Server 2003 servers in that office and one routing group for each office that contains only the Exchange Server 2010 SP1 servers in that office
D. one routing group for each office that contains only the Exchange Server 2003 servers in that office and one routing group that contains all of the Exchange Server 2010 SP1 servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You need to recommend changes to the mailboxes to meet the user requirements of the portable computers. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. disabled Cached Exchange Mode
B. disabled Outlook Anywhere
C. Personal Archives
D. deleted Mailbox retention
E. message size limits
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a message routing design for the period during which A. Datum transitions from Exchange Server 2003 to Exchange Server 2010 SP1. The solution must meet the business goals of A. Datum. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. an Exchange hub site for each site and a Send connector that uses TOK-HUB1 and BAN- HUB1 as the source servers
B. a scoped Send connector that uses TOK-BE-1 as the source server and a scoped Send connector that uses BAN-BE-1 as the source server
C. an Exchange hub site for each site and Exchange-specific site link costs
D. a scoped Send connector that uses TOK-HUB-1 as the source server and a scoped Send connector that uses BAN-HUB-1 as the source server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the number of remote SMTP hosts that identify email messages sent by A. Datum users as spam. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a service location (SRV) record in the public DNS zone of the liware.com domain
B. a sender policy framework (SPF) record in the internal DNS zone of the litwareinc.com domain
C. a sender policy framework (SPF) record in the public DNS zone of the adatum.com domain
D. a sender policy framework (SPF) record in the internal DNS zone of the adatum.com domain
E. a sender policy framework (SPF) record in the public DNS zone of the litwareinc.com domain F. a service location (SRV) record in the public DNS zone of the adatum.com domain
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Fortinet
Certifications: NSE
Exam Name: Fortinet Network Security Expert 8 Written (800)
Exam Code: NSE8
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
NSE8 dumps
QUESTION 1
A System Administrator is concerned by the amount of disk space being used to store quarantine email messages for non-existent accounts. Which of the following techniques can be used on a FortiMail unit to PREVENT email messages from being quarantined for non-existent accounts?
A. Greylist Scanning
B. Recipient Address Verification
C. Sender Reputation
D. Automatic Removal of Invalid Quarantine Accounts
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is true regarding Session-based antispam techniques?
A. The entire mail content is inspected.
B. They are enabled in the session profile only.
C. SMTP commands, sender domain and IP address are checked.
D. They are checked after application-based antispam techniques.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements regarding the FortiMail unit’s Greylisting feature is NOT correct?
A. The FortiMail unit tracks the /32 bit host address of the sender.
B. When an email is received from a new sender IP address, envelope sender and envelope recipient addresses, the FortiMail unit will initially send a temporary failure message.
C. After the initial temporary fail message is sent, the message must be retransmitted between the Greylisting period expiry and initial expiry time periods.
D. Pass-through is allowed until the configured TTL expires.
E. An ACL with action Relay bypasses Greylisting.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements is true regarding oversized emails? NSE8 dumps
A. The default maximum message size defined on the FortiMail unit is 10 MB.
B. By default there is no maximum message size value defined on the FortiMail unit.
C. The session profile parameter “Cap message size” can be used to increase the maximum message size.
D. By default oversized emails are delivered at 0.00 local time.
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 5
What is the best explanation for why a FortiMail unit would issue the error message indicated in the exhibit?

A. The recipient domain external1.lab is not defined.
B. This traffic comes from an authenticated sender.
C. Recipient verification is not working properly.
D. The session is matching an Access Control Rule with action “Reject”.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is one reason for deploying a FortiMail unit in Transparent Mode?
A. DNS records do not necessarily have to be modified.
B. Mail is not queued thereby expediting mail delivery.
C. Mail is not inspected unless a policy explicitly matches the traffic.
D. No user information needs to be stored on the FortiMail unit when operating in Transparent Mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following features can be used to expand a single recipient address into a group of one or many email addresses?
A. User Alias
B. Address Map
C. User Group
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
NSE8 dumps Two access control rules are configured on a FortiMail unit as illustrated in the exhibit.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the COMBINED action of these two access control rules?
A. Email messages from senders at external1.lab will be rejected.
B. Email messages from external1.lab to internal1.lab from host IP 172.16.78.8 are relayed.
C. Email messages from external1.lab to internal1.lab from any host IP address are relayed.
D. Email messages from external1.lab to internal1.lab are restricted by the return DNS pattern.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following FortiMail profile types apply to IP-based policies only?
A. Session profile
B. Content profile
C. IP pool
D. Antispam profile
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is an advantage of using Banned Word scanning instead of Dictionary scanning?
A. Mail Headers are inspected.
B. It is easier to configure.
C. Regular Expressions can be used.
D. Non-ASCII characters are supported.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When using Sender Reputation on a FortiMail unit, NSE8 dumps which of the following actions can be taken against a source IP address generating spam or invalid email messages?
A. Delay the email messages from that source IP address with a temporary fail.
B. Reject the email messages from that source IP address with a permanent fail.
C. Quarantine all the email messages from that source IP address.
D. Limit the number of email messages allowed from that source IP address.
Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 12
On a FortiMail unit, access control rules specify actions to be taken against matching email messages. Which of the following statements correctly describes the Bypass action?
A. Accept the email message but skip the MX record lookup. This mail message will be delivered using the configured relay server.
B. Do not deliver the email message.
C. Accept the email message and skip all message scanning, such as antispam and antivirus.
D. Accept the email message and delete it immediately without delivery.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 437 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server.
What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
After the implementation of several different types of switches from different vendors, a network engineer notices that directly connected devices that use Cisco Discovery Protocol are not visible. 300-115 dumps
Which vendor-neutral protocol could be used to resolve this issue?
A. Local Area Mobility
B. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
C. NetFlow
D. Directed Response Protocol
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch.
Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch C receives VLAN information from the VTP server Switch A, but Switch B does not receive any VLAN information.
What is the most probable cause of this behavior?
A. Switch B is configured in transparent mode.
B. Switch B is configured with an access port to Switch A, while Switch C is configured with a trunk port to Switch B.
C. The VTP revision number of the Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Several new switches have been added to the existing network as VTP clients. All of the new switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. However, VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients.
What must be done to fix this?
A. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with “null” and then replace it with the new domain name.
B. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients.
C. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the existing network.
D. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. 300-115 dumps Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1 port?
A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
After implementing VTP, the extended VLANs are not being propagated to other VTP switches.
What should be configured for extended VLANs?
A. VTP does not support extended VLANs and should be manually added to all switches.
B. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.
C. VTP authentication is required when using extended VLANs because of their ability to cause network instability.
D. Ensure that all switches run the same Cisco IOS version. Extended VLANs will not propagate to different IOS versions when extended VLANs are in use.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate” and “backup.” 300-115 dumps
What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs. This command is configured globally: monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 8, 39, 52
What is the result of the implemented command?
A. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
B. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
C. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
D. The trunk’s native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
E. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships.
What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?
A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 3
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. 200-105 dumps Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client? 200-105 dumps
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. 200-105 dumps The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B. Router# show ip eigrp topology
C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Exam Code: 70-412
Total Questions: 424 Q&As
70-412 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains one domain. Adatum.com contains a child domain named child.adatum.- com.
Contoso.com has a one-way forest trust to adatum.com. Selective authentication is enabled on the forest trust.
Several user accounts are migrated from child.adatum.com to adatum.com. Users report that after the migration, they fail to access resources in contoso.com. The users suc- cessfully accessed the resources in contoso.com before the accounts were migrated.
You need to ensure that the migrated users can access the resources in contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. Replace the existing forest trust with an external trust.
B. Run netdom and specify the /quarantine attribute.
C. Disable SID filtering on the existing forest trust.
D. Disable selective authentication on the existing forest trust.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains three domains.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The forest has a two-way realm trust to a Kerberos realm named adatum.com.
You discover that users in adatum.com can only access resources in the root domain of contoso.- com.
You need to ensure that the adatum.com users can access the resources in all of the domains in the forest.
What should you do in the forest?
A. Delete the realm trust and create a forest trust.
B. Delete the realm trust and create three external trusts.
C. Modify the incoming realm trust.
D. Modify the outgoing realm trust.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The forest contains a sin- gle domain. 70-412 dumps The domain contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the fol- lowing table.
70-412 dumps
You need to update the schema to support a domain controller that will run Windows Server 2012 R2.
On which server should you run adprep.exe?
A. Server1
B. DC3
C. DC2
D. DC1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A previous administrator implemented a Proof of Concept installation of Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS).
After the proof of concept was complete, the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role was removed.
You attempt to deploy AD RMS.
During the configuration of AD RMS, you receive an error message indicating that an existing AD RMS Service Connection Point (SCP) was found.
You need to remove the existing AD RMS SCP.
Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Users and Computers
B. Authorization Manager
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
E: Active Directory Rights Management Services
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your company recently deployed a new Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The first domain controller in the forest runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to identify the time-to-live (TTL) value for domain referrals to the NETLOGON and SYSVOL shared folders.
Which tool should you use?
A. Ultrasound
B. Replmon
C. Dfsdiag
D. Frsutil
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your network contains two Web servers named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster. The NLB cluster contains an application named App1 that is accessed by using the URL http://app1.contoso.com.
You plan to perform maintenance on Server1.
You need to ensure that all new connections to App1 are directed to Server2. The solution must not disconnect the existing connections to Server1.
What should you run?
A. The Set-NlbCluster cmdlet
B. The Set-NlbClusterNode cmdlet
C. The Stop-NlbCluster cmdlet
D. The Stop-NlbClusterNode cmdlet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and childl.contoso.com. The domains contain three domain con- trollers. 70-412 dumps
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-412 dumps
You need to ensure that the KDC support for claims, compound authentication, and kerberos ar- moring setting is enforced in the child1.contoso.com domain.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
B. Upgrade DC11 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
C. Raise the domain functional level of childl.contoso.com.
D. Raise the domain functional level of contoso.com.
E. Raise the forest functional level of contoso.com.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two child domains named east.contoso.com and west.contoso.com.
You install an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster in each child domain.
You discover that all of the users in the contoso.com forest are directed to the AD RMS cluster in east.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the users in west.contoso.com are directed to the AD RMS cluster in west.contoso.com and that the users in east.contoso.com are directed to the AD RMS cluster in east.contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Service Connection Point (SCP).
B. Configure the Group Policy object (GPO) settings of the users in the west.contoso.com do- main.
C. Configure the Group Policy object (GPO) settings of the users in the east.contoso.com do- main.
D. Modify the properties of the AD RMS cluster in west.contoso.com.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Your network contains a perimeter network and an internal network. The internal network con- tains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.1 infrastructure. The infrastructure uses Active Directory as the attribute store.
You plan to deploy a federation server proxy to a server named Server2 in the perimeter net- work.
You need to identify which value must be included in the certificate that is deployed to Server2.
What should you identify?
A. The FQDN of the AD FS server
B. The name of the Federation Service
C. The name of the Active Directory domain
D. The public IP address of Server2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Failover Clustering feature installed. The servers are configured as nodes in a failover cluster named Cluster1. Cluster1 contains a cluster disk resource.
A developer creates an application named App1. App1 is NOT a cluster-aware application. App1 runs as a service. App1 stores date on the cluster disk resource.
You need to ensure that App1 runs in Cluster1. The solution must minimize development effort.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-ClusterGenericServiceRole
B. Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole
C. Add-ClusterScaleOutFileServerRole
D. Add-ClusterServerRole
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your network contains two servers named HV1 and HV2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed.
HV1 hosts 25 virtual machines. 70-412 dumps The virtual machine configuration files and the virtual hard disks are stored in D:\VM.
You shut down all of the virtual machines on HV1.
You copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2.
You need to start all of the virtual machines on HV2. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Import-VMInitialReplication cmdlet.
B. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the Import Virtual Machine wizard.
C. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the New Virtual Machine wizard.
D. Run the Import-VM cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your company has offices in Montreal, New York, and Amsterdam. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. An Active Directory site exists for each office. All of the sites connect to each other by using the DEFAULTIPSITELINK site link.
You need to ensure that only between 20:00 and 08:00, the domain controllers in the Montreal office replicate the Active Directory changes to the domain controllers in the Amsterdam office.
The solution must ensure that the domain controllers in the Montreal and the New York offices can replicate the Active Directory changes any time of day.
What should you do?
A. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DEFAULTIPSITE1INK. Modify the schedule of DEFAULTIPSITE1INK.
B. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of DEFAU LTIPSITE1INK.
C. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DEFAULTIPSITELINK. Modify the schedule of the new site link.
D. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of the new site link.
Correct Answer: C

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[New Cisco Exam Dumps] Latest Cisco 200-125 Dumps Exam Materials And Youtube Free Update

Latest Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps exam training materials and study guides download free try from lead4pass. High quality Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps pdf files and dumps vce youtube update free demo. https://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html dumps exam training resources. Get the best Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps pdf practice questions and answers from lead4pass, pass Cisco 200-125 exam test easily at the first time.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. 200-125 dumps Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting 200-125 dumps
A. packet-loss detection
B. congestion detection
C. hop-by-hop response time
D. one way jitter measurement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit:
200-125 dumps
What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Correct Answer: A,C,F

QUESTION 10
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 12
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

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