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CAS-002 dumps
QUESTION 1
A company has issued a new mobile device policy permitting BYOD and company-issued devices. The company-issued device has a managed middleware client that restricts the applications allowed on company devices and provides those that are approved. The middleware client provides configuration standardization for both company owned and BYOD to secure data and communication to the device according to industry best practices. The policy states that, andquot;BYOD clients must meet the company\’s infrastructure requirements to permit a connection.andquot; The company also issues a memorandum separate from the policy, which provides instructions for the purchase, installation, and use of the middleware client on BYOD. Which of the following is being described?
A. Asset management
B. IT governance
C. Change management
D. Transference of risk
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An organization would like to allow employees to use their network username and password to access a third-party service. The company is using Active Directory Federated Services for their directory service. Which of the following should the company ensure is supported by the third-party? (Select TWO).
A. LDAP/S
B. SAML
C. NTLM
D. OAUTH
E. Kerberos
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3
A sensitive database needs its cryptographic integrity upheld. Which of the following controls meets this goal? (Select TWO).
A. Data signing
B. Encryption
C. Perfect forward secrecy
D. Steganography
E. Data vaulting
F. RBAC
G. Lock and key
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 4
The risk manager is reviewing a report which identifies a requirement to keep a business critical legacy system operational for the next two years. The legacy system is out of support because the vendor and security patches are no longer released. Additionally, this is a proprietary embedded system and little is documented and known about it. Which of the following should the Information Technology department implement to reduce the security risk from a compromise of this system?
A. Virtualize the system and migrate it to a cloud provider.
B. Segment the device on its own secure network.
C. Install an antivirus and HIDS on the system.
D. Hire developers to reduce vulnerabilities in the code.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A security code reviewer has been engaged to manually review a legacy application. A number of systemic issues have been uncovered relating to buffer overflows and format string vulnerabilities.
The reviewer has advised that future software projects utilize managed code platforms if at all possible.
Which of the following languages would suit this recommendation? (Select TWO).
A. C
B. C#
C. C++
D. Perl
E. Java
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
The lead systems architect on a software development project developed a design which is optimized for a distributed computing environment. The security architect assigned to the project has concerns about the integrity of the system, if it is deployed in a commercial cloud. Due to poor communication within the team, the security risks of the proposed design are not being given any attention. A network engineer on the project has a security background and is concerned about the overall success of the project. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the network engineer to take?
A. Address the security concerns through the network design and security controls.
B. Implement mitigations to the security risks and address the poor communications on the team with the project manager.
C. Document mitigations to the security concerns and facilitate a meeting between the architects and the project manager.
D. Develop a proposal for an alternative architecture that does not leverage cloud computing and present it to the lead architect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A company has a single subnet in a small office. The administrator wants to limit non-web related traffic to the corporate intranet server as well as prevent abnormal HTTP requests and HTTP protocol anomalies from causing problems with the web server. Which of the following is the MOST likely solution?
A. Application firewall and NIPS
B. Edge firewall and HIDS
C. ACLs and anti-virus
D. Host firewall and WAF
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
In order to reduce costs and improve employee satisfaction, a large corporation is creating a BYOD policy. It will allow access to email and remote connections to the corporate enterprise from personal devices; provided they are on an approved device list. Which of the following security measures would be MOST effective in securing the enterprise under the new policy? (Select TWO).
A. Provide free email software for personal devices.
B. Encrypt data in transit for remote access.
C. Require smart card authentication for all devices.
D. Implement NAC to limit insecure devices access.
E. Enable time of day restrictions for personal devices.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
A large hospital has implemented BYOD to allow doctors and specialists the ability to access patient medical records on their tablets. The doctors and specialists access patient records over the hospital\’s guest WiFi network which is isolated from the internal network with appropriate security controls. The patient records management system can be accessed from the guest network and requires two factor authentication. Using a remote desktop type interface, the doctors and specialists can interact with the hospital\’s system. Cut and paste and printing functions are disabled to prevent the copying of data to BYOD devices. Which of the following are of MOST concern? (Select TWO).
A. Privacy could be compromised as patient records can be viewed in uncontrolled areas.
B. Device encryption has not been enabled and will result in a greater likelihood of data loss.
C. The guest WiFi may be exploited allowing non-authorized individuals access to confidential patient data.
D. Malware may be on BYOD devices which can extract data via key logging and screen scrapes.
E. Remote wiping of devices should be enabled to ensure any lost device is rendered inoperable.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
When attending the latest security conference, an information security administrator noticed only a few people carrying a laptop around. Most other attendees only carried their smartphones.
Which of the following would impact the security of conference\’s resources?
A. Wireless network security may need to be increased to decrease access of mobile devices.
B. Physical security may need to be increased to deter or prevent theft of mobile devices.
C. Network security may need to be increased by reducing the number of available physical network jacks.
D. Wireless network security may need to be decreased to allow for increased access of mobile devices.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Company A needs to export sensitive data from its financial system to company B\’s database, using company B\’s API in an automated manner. Company A\’s policy prohibits the use of any intermediary external systems to transfer or store its sensitive data, therefore the transfer must occur directly between company A\’s financial system and company B\’s destination server using the supplied API. Additionally, company A\’s legacy financial software does not support encryption, while company B\’s API supports encryption. Which of the following will provide end-to-end encryption for the data transfer while adhering to these requirements?
A. Company A must install an SSL tunneling software on the financial system.
B. Company A\’s security administrator should use an HTTPS capable browser to transfer the data.
C. Company A should use a dedicated MPLS circuit to transfer the sensitive data to company B.
D. Company A and B must create a site-to-site IPSec VPN on their respective firewalls.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The security administrator has just installed an active\passive cluster of two firewalls for enterprise perimeter defense of the corporate network. Stateful firewall inspection is being used in the firewall implementation. There have been numerous reports of dropped connections with external clients.
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this problem?
A. TCP sessions are traversing one firewall and return traffic is being sent through the secondary firewall and sessions are being dropped.
B. TCP and UDP sessions are being balanced across both firewalls and connections are being dropped because the session IDs are not recognized by the secondary firewall.
C. Prioritize UDP traffic and associated stateful UDP session information is traversing the passive firewall causing the connections to be dropped.
D. The firewall administrator connected a dedicated communication cable between the firewalls in order to share a single state table across the cluster causing the sessions to be dropped.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A security analyst has been asked to develop a quantitative risk analysis and risk assessment for the company\’s online shopping application. Based on heuristic information from the Security Operations Center (SOC), a Denial of Service Attack (DoS) has been successfully executed 5 times a year. The Business Operations department has determined the loss associated to each attack is $40,000. After implementing application caching, the number of DoS attacks was reduced to one time a year. The cost of the countermeasures was $100,000. Which of the following is the monetary value earned during the first year of operation?
A. $60,000
B. $100,000
C. $140,000
D. $200,000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A bank now has a major initiative to virtualize as many servers as possible, due to power and rack space capacity at both data centers. The bank has prioritized by virtualizing older servers first as the hardware is nearing end-of-life.
The two initial migrations include:
Windows 2000 hosts: domain controllers and front-facing web servers RHEL3 hosts: front-facing web servers
Which of the following should the security consultant recommend based on best practices?
A. One data center should host virtualized web servers and the second data center should host the virtualized domain controllers.
B. One virtual environment should be present at each data center, each housing a combination of the converted Windows 2000 and RHEL3 virtual machines.
C. Each data center should contain one virtual environment for the web servers and another virtual environment for the domain controllers.
D. Each data center should contain one virtual environment housing converted Windows 2000 virtual machines and converted RHEL3 virtual machines.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A large bank deployed a DLP solution to detect and block customer and credit card data from leaving the organization via email. A disgruntled employee was able to successfully exfiltrate data through the corporate email gateway by embedding a word processing document containing sensitive data as an object in a CAD file. Which of the following BEST explains why it was not detected and blocked by the DLP solution? (Select TWO).
A. The product does not understand how to decode embedded objects.
B. The embedding of objects in other documents enables document encryption by default.
C. The process of embedding an object obfuscates the data.
D. The mail client used to send the email is not compatible with the DLP product.
E. The DLP product cannot scan multiple email attachments at the same time.
Correct Answer: AC

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N10-006 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following 802.11g antennas broadcast an RF signal in a specific direction with a narrow path?
A. Omni-direction
B. Unidirectional
C. Patch
D. Yagi
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A network engineer needs to set up a topology that will not fail if there is an outage on a single piece of the topology.
However, the computers need to wait to talk on the network to avoid congestions. Which of the following topologies would the engineer implement?
A. Star
B. Bus
C. Ring
D. Mesh
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A network technician must allow use of HTTP from the internet to an internal resource running HTTP. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Dynamic DNS
B. Virtual Private networking (VPN)
C. Dynamic NAT
D. Port Forwarding
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following broadband WAN technologies would MOST likely be used to connect several remote branches that have no fiber or satellite connections? N10-006 dumps
A. OC12
B. POTS
C. WiMax
D. OC3
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Users connecting to an SSID appear to be unable to authenticate to the captive portal. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?
A. WPA2 security key
B. SSL certificates
C. CSMAjCA
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is MOST likely to use an RJ-11 connector to connect a computer to an ISP using a POTS line?
A. Multilayer switch
B. Access point
C. Analog modem
D. DOCSIS modem
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A company is installing several APs for a new wireless system that requires users to authenticate to the domain. The network technician would like to authenticate to a central point. Which of the following would work BEST to achieve these results?
A. A TACACS+ device and a RADIUS server
B. A TACACS and a proxy server
C. A RADIUS server and an access point
D. A RADIUS server and a network controller
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following helps prevent routing loops?
A. Routing table
B. Default gateway
C. Routesummarization
D. Split horizon
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following would be used in an IP-based video conferencing deployment? N10-006 dumps (Select TWO).
A. RS-232
B. 56k modem
C. Bluetooth
D. Codec
E. SIP
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
A technician needs to set aside addresses in a DHCP pool so that certain servers always receive the same address.
Which of the following should be configured?
A. Leases
B. Helper addresses
C. Scopes
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following ports is used to provide secure sessions over the web by default?
A. 22
B. 25
C. 80
D. 5004
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A company has implemented the capability to send all log files to a central location by utilizing an encrypted channel.
The log files are sent to this location in order to be reviewed. A recent exploit has caused the company\’s encryption to become unsecure. Which of the following would be required to resolve the exploit?
A. Utilize a FTP service
B. Install recommended updates
C. Send all log files through SMTP
D. Configure the firewall to block port 22
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A malicious student is blocking mobile devices from connecting to the internet when other students are in the classroom. N10-006 dumps
Which of the following is the malicious student implementing?
A. Removing the AP from the classroom
B. ACL
C. Jamming
D. Firewall
E. IPS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
While troubleshooting a network outage, a technician finds a 100-meter fiber cable with a small service loop and suspects it might be the cause of the outage. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?
A. Maximum cable length exceeded
B. Dirty connectors
C. RF interference caused by impedance mismatch
D. Bend radius exceeded
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
While implementing wireless access points into the network, one building is having connectivity issues due to light fixtures being replaced in the ceiling, while all other buildings\’ connectivity is performing as expected. Which of the following should be exchanged on the access points installed in the building with connectivity issues?
A. UTP patch cables
B. Antenna
C. Power adapter
D. Security standard
Correct Answer: B

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98-365 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which RAID level mirrors a set of disks and then stripes across the disks?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two locations can a Windows Server be backed up to? (Choose two)
A. Network router
B. Local drive
C. Local DFS root share
D. Remote share folder
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which file extension indicates a Hyper-V virtual disk file?
A. . xml
B. . vhd
C. ,vud
D. . vsd
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two specifications are included in Microsoft’s hardware requirements for Windows Server? (Choose two)
A. USB ports
B. RAM
C. Processor speed
D. Disk I/O
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
You create a new domain. 98-365 dumps Which two Active Directory objects will be available by default? (Choose two)
A. Computer
B. Employee
C. User
D. Device
E. Server
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which snap-in is used to create files that contain information about the state of your server’s resources at a given time?
A. Reliability and Performance Monitor
B. Event Viewer
C. Services
D. System Monitor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Match each troubleshooting utility to its description. (To answer, drag the appropriate utility from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each utility may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.)
Select and Place:
98-365 dumps
Correct Answer:
98-365 dumps
QUESTION 8
You turn on a computer.
What happens first?
A. The operating system is loaded.
B. The boot sector is accessed.
C. The BIOS is loaded.
D. The Master Boot Record (MBR) is accessed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are logged in as an administrator- You need to recover company documents created by a person who has left the company. You get an “Access Denied” message when you try to access the folder. 98-365 dumps
What is the first step you should take to access the documents?
A. Disable inheritance
B. Take ownership
C. Enable sharing
D. Remove the “Read-Only” Attribute
E. Enable offline files
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What should you use to prevent power spikes from harming a server?
A. Power supply unit
B. Hot-swappable power supply
C. Dedicated surge protector
D. Line conditioner
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
The Security log in Event Viewer shows information regarding server reboots.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select ‘No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Application
B. Setup
C. System
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Active Directory Distribution groups can only be assigned permissions to resources within the same domain but can have members from other domains.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select ‘No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Global groups
B. Universal groups
C. Domain local groups
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 070-417
Total Questions: 427 Q&As
070-417 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server 1. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to collect the error events from all of the servers on Server1. The solution must ensure that when new servers are added to the domain, their error events are collected automatically on Server1.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. On Server1, create a collector initiated subscription.
B. On Server1, create a source computer initiated subscription.
C. From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the Configure target Subscription Manager setting.
D. From a Group Policy object (GPO), configure the Configure forwarder resource usage setting.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
You need to log the amount of system resources used by each virtual machine.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Enable-VMResourceMeteringcmdlet.
B. From Windows System Resource Manager, enable Accounting.
C. From Windows System Resource Manager, add a resource allocation policy.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Measure-VM cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Certificate Services server role installed and is configured as a standalone certification authority (CA).
You install a second server named Server2. You install the Online Responder role service on Server2. 070-417 dumps
You need to ensure that Server1 can issue an Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) Response Signing certificate to Server2.
What should you run on Server1?
A. The certreq.exe command and specify the -policy parameter
B. The certutil.exe command and specify the -getkey parameter
C. The certutil.exe command and specify the -setreg parameter
D. The certreq.exe command and specify the -retrieve parameter
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a new server named Server1 and you join Server1 to the domain.
You need to ensure that you can view processor usage and memory usage information in Server Manager.
What should you do?
A. From Server Manager, click Configure Performance Alerts.
B. From Performance Monitor, create a Data Collector Set (DCS).
C. From Performance Monitor, start the System Performance Data Collector Set (DCS).
D. From Server Manager, click Start Performance Counters.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You have a file server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 has a volume named D that contains user data. Server1 has a volume named E that is empty.
Server1 is configured to create a shadow copy of volume D every hour.
You need to configure the shadow copies of volume D to be stored on volume E.
What should you run?
A. The Set-Volume cmdlet with the -driveletter parameter
B. The Set-Volume cmdlet with the -path parameter
C. The vssadmin.exe add shadowstorage command
D. The vssadmin.exe create shadow command
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server3 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
DHCP is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-417 dumps
You need to ensure that only Scope1, Scope3, and Scope5 assign the same DNS servers to DHCP clients. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a superscope and a filter.
B. Create a superscope and scope-level policies.
C. Configure the Server Options.
D. Configure the Scope Options.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to enable Hyper-V Network Virtualization on Server1. 070-417 dumps
You need to install the Windows Network Virtualization Filter Driver on Server1.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-NetVirtualizationGlobal
B. Enable-NetAdapterBinding
C. Add – WindowsFeature
D. Set-NetAdapterVmq
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DNS Server server role installed.
Server1 has a zone named contoso.com. The zone is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-417 dumps
You need to assign a user named User1 permission to add and delete records from the contoso.com zone only.
What should you do first?
A. Enable the Advanced view from DNS Manager.
B. Add User1 to the DnsUpdateProxy group.
C. Run the New Delegation Wizard.
D. Configure the zone to be Active Directory-integrated.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named File1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
File1 has a volume named D that contains home folders. File1 creates a shadow copy of volume D twice a day.
You discover that volume D is almost full.
You add a new volume named H to File1.
You need to ensure that the shadow copies of volume D are stored on volume H.
Which command should you run?
A. The Set-Volume cmdlet with the -driveletter parameter
B. The vssadmin.exe create shadow command
C. The Set-Volume cmdlet with the -path parameter
D. The vssadmin.exe add shadowstorage command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 has three physical network adapters named NIC1, NIC2, and NIC3. On Server1, you create a NIC team named Team1 by using NIC1 and NIC2. You configure Team1 to accept network traffic on VLAN 10.
You need to ensure that Server1 can accept network traffic on VLAN 10 and VLAN 11. The solution must ensure that the network traffic can be received on both VLANs if a network adapter fails.
What should you do?
A. From Server Manager, change the load balancing mode of Team1.
B. Run the New-NetLbfoTeamcmdlet.
C. From Server Manager, add an interface to Team1.
D. Run the Add-NetLbfoTeamMembercmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server named CA1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. CA1 has the Active Directory Certificate Services server role installed and is configured to support key archival and recovery. 070-417 dumps
You need to ensure that a user named User1 can decrypt private keys archived in the Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) database. The solution must prevent User1 from retrieving the private keys from the AD CS database.
What should you do?
A. Assign User1 the Issue and Manage Certificates permission to CA1.
B. Assign User1 the Read permission and the Write permission to all certificate templates.
C. Provide User1 with access to a Key Recovery Agent certificate and a private key.
D. Assign User1 the Manage CA permission to CA1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is an enterprise root certification authority (CA) for contoso.com.
Your user account is assigned the certificate manager role and the auditor role on the contoso.com CA.
Your account is a member of the local Administrators group on Server1.
You enable CA role separation on Server1.
You need to ensure that you can manage the certificates on the CA.
What should you do?
A. Remove your user account from the local Administrators group.
B. Assign the CA administrator role to your user account.
C. Assign your user account the Bypass traverse checking user right.
D. Remove your user account from the Manage auditing and security log user right.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge
Exam Name: SMB Specialization for Engineers
Exam Code: 700-501
Total Questions: 50 Q&As
700-501 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which three competitive advantages does the Cisco Unified Computing System provide? (Choose three.)
A. Ease of planning via the CSIM capacity modeling tool.
B. Supports only rack server models to reduce cost.
C. Greater virtual desktop density without performance impact.
D. Supports only blade server models to reduce system complexity.
E. Lower cost for compute plus network infrastructure.
F. Simple operation; start in minutes, scale in seconds.
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 2
Which three customer challenges do Cisco architectures help to solve? (Choose three.)
A. Increase ROI
B. Reduce independence
C. Provide creative solutions
D. Lower costs
E. Boost productivity
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
When LAN connectivity is designed which option increases high availability and minimizes network administration?
A. integrated switch in WAN router
B. stacked switch design
C. multiple switch design
D. single external switch design
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two IT solution characteristics do small and midsize business customers prefer? 700-501 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Solutions that will increase employee morale.
B. Flexibility; devices can be added easily in the future.
C. Enterprisegrade functionality; complexity is not a concern.
D. Simple devices that work well together right out of the box.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which three options are features of the Cisco Validated Design Program? (Choose three.)
A. Onsite consulting from Cisco Advanced Services engineers.
B. Design guides organized by solution, technology, and architecture.
C. Details on guidelines and practices for different customer scenarios.
D. Specific guidance based on your customer’s current environment.
E. System and solution designs that are documented and tested.
F. 24×7 phone support on network design questions.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
Which two options are advantages of Cisco Data Center solutions over the competition? (Choose two.)
A. Embedded self service
B. Endtoend optimization
C. Scalability without complexity
D. Seamless installation
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
How many virtual machines can VSPEX preconfigured solutions can scale to?
A. 125
B. 150
C. 50
D. 100
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS ESeries Servers
B. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 5000
D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
E. Cisco UCS CSeries Servers
F. Cisco Nexus 3048
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which two benefits are delivered by Cisco Telepresence? 700-501 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Experience is integrated.
B. Large files can be delivered between locations.
C. User experiences are unified.
D. Any endpoint can be used.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which two benefits does the Cisco FlexPod Design Guide provide? (Choose two.)
A. Provides guidance on EMC VNXe storage sizing.
B. Provides a onesizefitsall solution for ease of configuration and deployment.
C. Helps customers mitigate the risk and uncertainty involved in planning designing, and implementing virtualization.
D. Documents stepbystep instructions for installing and configuring all components, including thirdparty applications.
E. Provides a more predictive and adaptable architecture capable of meeting and exceeding customers’ IT demands.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 11
Which design practice is the best to reduce wireless CCI?
A. Place adjacent access points on different channels.
B. Place adjacent access points on the same channel.
C. Eliminate all signal overlap between access points.
D. Configure access points with the lowest supported data rate.
E. Place adjacent access points on nonoverlapping channels.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Which three options are competitive advantages of Cisco wireless solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Improved WLAN reliability is provided
B. Integrated security with wireless threat detection and mitigation is provided.
C. Access points support only the centralized deployment model.
D. Simplified and intuitive WLAN management and troubleshooting are provided.
E. Access points support only the distributed deployment model
F. Management and administration via Cisco SIO make deployment easy.
Correct Answer: ABD

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Specialist: Microsoft Azure
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Exam Code: 70-534
Total Questions: 249 Q&As
70-534 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are designing an Azure web application.
All users must authenticate by using Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) credentials. You need to recommend an approach to enable single sign-on to the application for domain-authenticated users. Which two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use Forms authentication to generate claims.
B. Use the SQL membership provider in the web application.
C. Use Windows Identity Foundation in the web application.
D. Use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to generate claims.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You need to prepare the implementation of data storage for the contractor information app.
What should you?
A. Create a storage account and implement multiple data partitions.
B. Create a Cloud Service and a Mobile Service. Implement Entity Group transactions.
C. Create a Cloud Service and a Deployment group. Implement Entity Group transactions.
D. Create a Deployment group and a Mobile Service. Implement multiple data partitions.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are planning an upgrade strategy for an existing Azure application. Multiple instances of the application run in Azure. 70-534 dumps The management team is concerned about application downtime due to a business service level agreement (SLA).
You are evaluating which change in your environment will require downtime. You need to identify the changes to the environment that will force downtime.
Which change always requires downtime?
A. Adding an HTTPS endpoint to a web role
B. Upgrading the hosted service by deploying a new package
C. Changing the value of a configuration setting
D. Changing the virtual machine size
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are running a Linux guest in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). You must run a daily maintenance task. The maintenance task requires native BASH commands.
You need to configure Azure Automation to perform this task.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an automation account.
B. Create an Orchestrator runbook.
C. Create an asset credential.
D. Run the Invoke-Workflow Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
E. Import the SSH PowerShell Module.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 5
You need to design the system that alerts project managers to data changes in the contractor information app.
Which service should you use?
A. Azure Mobile Service
B. Azure Service Bus Message Queueing
C. Azure Queue Messaging
D. Azure Notification Hub
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend data storage mechanisms for the solution.
What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate data storage mechanism to the correct information type. Each data storage mechanism may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-534 dumps
QUESTION 7
You are designing an Azure application. The application includes services hosted in different geographic locations. The service locations may change.
You must minimize the cost of communication between services.
You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure services.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Table storage
B. Service Bus
C. Service Management API
D. Azure Queue storage
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You are designing a plan to deploy a new application to Azure. The solution must provide a single sign-on experience for users.
You need to recommend an authentication type.
Which authentication type should you recommend?
A. SAML credential tokens
B. Azure managed access keys
C. Windows Authentication
D. MS-CHAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are designing an Azure development environment. Team members learn Azure development techniques by training in the development environment.
The development environment must auto scale and load balance additional virtual machine (VM) instances. 70-534 dumps You need to recommend the most cost-effective compute-instance size that allows team members to work with Azure in the development environment.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Al standardVM Instance
B. Azure A2 basic VM Instance
C. Azure A3 basic VM Instance
D. Azure A9 standard VM Instance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An application currently resides on an on-premises virtual machine that has 2 CPU cores 4 GB of RAM 20 GB of hard disk space and a 10 megabit/second network connection.
You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You have the following requirements:
You must not make changes to the application.
You must minimize the costs for hosting the application.
You need to recommend the appropriate virtual machine instance type.
Which virtual machine tier should you recommend?
A. Network Optimized (A Series)
B. General Purpose Compute Basic Tier (A Series)
C. General Purpose Compute Standard Tier (A Series)
D. Optimized Compute (D Series)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a solution that allows partners to authenticate.
Which solution should you recommend?
A. Configure the federation provider to trust social identity providers.
B. Configure the federation provider to use the Azure Access Control service.
C. Create a new directory in Azure Active Directory and create a user account for the partner.
D. Create an account on the VanArsdel domain for the partner and send an email message that contains the password to the partner.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You need to ensure that users do not need to re-enter their passwords after they authenticate to cloud applications for the first time.
What should you do?
A. Enable Microsoft Account authentication.
B. Set up a virtual private network (VPN) connection between the VanArsdel premises and Azure datacenter. Set up a Windows Active Directory domain controller in Azure VM. Implement Integrated Windows authentication.
C. Deploy ExpressRoute.
D. Configure Azure Active Directory Sync to use single sign-on (SSO).
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Exam Code: 300-160
Total Questions: 402 Q&As
300-160 dumps
QUESTION 1
Endpoints are configured for both H.323 and SIP using the same URI and Cisco VCS settings, but the endpoints register only as H.323 endpoints. What is causing this issue?
A. A firewall is blocking all traffic from the endpoints to the Cisco VCS.
B. The Cisco VCS has no SIP domains configured.
C. The Cisco VCS is blocking the endpoints because of duplicate ID entries.
D. The endpoints do not have the SIP option key installed.
E. SIP does not work, because SIP is used for Cisco Unified Communications Manager registration only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are troubleshooting video quality issues on a Cisco TelePresence TX9000 Series system. Which CLI command shows the total number of lost video packets and the received jitter during a call in progress?
A. show call statistics video
B. show call statistics all
C. show call statistics detail
D. show call statistics video detail
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
URI dialing is enabled between two clusters with the default options. The engineer that set up the URI dialing verified that all was working properly. 300-160 dumps However, a user from one of the clusters cannot dial using URI to a user in the same cluster. What do you do to resolve this issue?
A. Verify the password that is used by the authentication under Intercluster Lookup Service configuration.
B. Find out if the URI address of the called user has a capital letter in the URI string.
C. Verify that Intercluster Lookup Service is set up correctly.
D. Verify USN Data Synchronization Status.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which alarm string purges all learned patterns from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. DuplicateLearnedPattern
B. SAFForwarderError
C. CCDIPReachableTimeOUT
D. CCDPSTNFailOverDurationTimeOUT
E. CCDLearnedPatternLimitReached
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager tool can you use to troubleshoot issues with international calling?
A. Cisco Prime
B. Cisco Deployment Tool
C. RTMT
D. Dialed Number Analyzer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which alarm string purges all learned patterns from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. DuplicateLearnedPattern
B. SAFForwarderError
C. CCDIPReachableTimeOUT
D. CCDPSTNFailOverDurationTimeOUT
E. CCDLearnedPatternLimitReached
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Refer to topology and Exhibits below:
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
What is the reason that this MGCP gateway is not registered with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. The primary server address is incorrect.
B. The MGCP domain name is incorrect on either the Cisco Unified Communications Manager or the router.
C. Backhaul/Redundant link port is incorrect
D. This MGCP gateway is not down; it is operational.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You implement multiple registrars for SIP trunks for the Cisco Unified Border Element to ensure redundant PSTN access, you fee receive an error that indicates that the registration server is invalid. 300-160 dumps Which two commands correct the problem? (Choose two.)
A. registrar 2 ipv4:1.1.1.1 expires 360
B. CUSP registrar 9 dns:cisco.com expires 60
C. no registrar 2 dns:cisco.com expires 60
D. registrar 20 dns:cisco.com
E. registrar 1 dns:cisco.com expires 180
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
What is a common reason that an IP Phone cannot get its configuration from Cisco Unified Communications Manager after it obtains the correct IP address information?
A. The DHCP scope is exhausted.
B. The DHCP server is not reachable.
C. The DHCP scope is on the wrong subnet.
D. The DHCP scope has the incorrect Option 150 or 66 defined.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command do you use to confirm that a router interlace is enabled for SAP?
A. show eigrp service-family ipv4 client details.
B. show ip interface details
C. show ip saf-service-family interface
D. show run
E. show eigrp service -family interface
F. show eigrp service-family lpv4 Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Users on your network report fast busy signals when they atlempt to place calls. While troubleshooting,you verify that the codecs are configured correctly and determine that the network carries up to 200 concurrent calls at different times of the day. Which two actions correct the problem? (Choose two).
A. Add more Cisco Unified Communications Managers to the cluster.
B. Add more DSPs to the NM-HD
C. Increase the number of sessions to the maximum allowed by system resources.
D. Implement an SRST-CMF gateway to improve resource allocation.
E. Add a Cisco Catalyst switch to the environment to increase port density
F. Bind the network PRIs to add additional bandwidth
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 12
Cisco Unified Mobile Connect has been enabled, but users are not able to switch an in-progress call from their mobile phone to their desk phone. You find out that the Resume softkey option does not appear on the desk phone after users hang up the call on their mobile phone. What do you do to resolve this issue?
A. Issue the progress_ind progress disable command in the gateway.
B. Issue the voice call disc-pi-off command in the gateway.
C. Enable mobile connect on the user profile.
D. Assign Resume softkey on the desk phone.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Office 365 Project Portfolio Management
Exam Name: Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM (beta)
Exam Code: 70-348
Total Questions: 48 Q&As
70-348 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are evaluating the implementation of database availability groups (DAGs). You need to recommend a DAG implementation that meets the redundancy requirements of A.
Datum. What should you recommend?
A. Add two Mailbox servers to each site. Create one DAG for each site. Add the Mailbox servers for each site to their respective DAG.
B. Add one Mailbox server to each site. Create one DAG that contains both Mailbox servers.
C. Add one Mailbox server to each site. Create two DAGs. Add one Mailbox server to each DAG.
D. Add two Mailbox servers to each site. Create two DAGs. Add one Mailbox server from each site to each DAG.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend changes to the Active Directory infrastructure of Litware. The changes must ensure that users in all of the offices can access their local mailbox if a WAN link fails. What should you recommend?
A. Enable universal group membership caching in the Tokyo site.
B. Deploy a read-only global catalog server to the Bangkok site.
C. Enable the global catalog on Server3.
D. Disable the global catalog on Server2.
E. Enable universal group membership caching in the Bangkok site.
F. Deploy a read-only global catalog server to the Tokyo site.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are evaluating the implementation of Exchange Server 2010 SP1 Edge Transport servers and Hub Transport servers in adatum.com. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the Exchange Server 2010 SP1 servers can queue email messages for humongousinsurance.com. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. an authoritative domain
B. a retention policy
C. a remote domain
D. an external relay domain
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend changes to the existing Active Directory infrastructure to support the planned Exchange Server 2010 SP1 deployment. 70-348 dumps The solution must meet the business goals of A. Datum. What should you include in the recommendation? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Upgrade one global catalog server in each site to Windows Server 2008 R2.
B. Raise the functional level of the domain.
C. Raise the functional level of the forest.
D. Upgrade all of the global catalog servers to Windows Server 2003 x64 Edition.
E. Upgrade all of the domain controllers to Windows Server 2003 x64 Edition.
Correct Answer: B, C

QUESTION 5
You are designing the Exchange Server 2010 SP1 organization for A. Datum. You need to ensure that all of the email sent to the Internet by the A. Datum users has a return email address in the required format. What should you include in the design?
A. an Edge Transport server, three Edge Transport rules, and an email address policy.
B. an Edge Transport server and address rewrite entries.
C. a Hub Transport server and address rewrite entries.
D. a Hub Transport server, three Hub Transport rules, and an email address policy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend an administrative solution for the human resources teams. The solution must meet the security requirements of A. Datum. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a split permissions model
B. built-in security groups and distribution groups
C. management role groups
D. direct role assignments
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You have a SharePoint Server 2010 server farm. You need to enable trace logging for the Search service. What should you configure?
A. diagnostic logging
B. the Health Analyzer rule definitions
C. the Search service Application
D. usage and health data collection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution that meets the archiving requirements of A. Datum.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. recovery databases and Personal Archives
B. single item recovery and recovery databases
C. single item recovery and litigation holds
D. Personal Archives and retention policies
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a routing group configuration that meets the business requirements of A. Datum. 70-348 dumps What should you include in the recommendation?
A. one routing group for each office that contains all of the Exchange servers in that office
B. one routing group that contains all of the Exchange Server 2003 servers and all of the Exchange Server 2010 SP1 servers
C. one routing group for each office that contains only the Exchange Server 2003 servers in that office and one routing group for each office that contains only the Exchange Server 2010 SP1 servers in that office
D. one routing group for each office that contains only the Exchange Server 2003 servers in that office and one routing group that contains all of the Exchange Server 2010 SP1 servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You need to recommend changes to the mailboxes to meet the user requirements of the portable computers. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. disabled Cached Exchange Mode
B. disabled Outlook Anywhere
C. Personal Archives
D. deleted Mailbox retention
E. message size limits
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a message routing design for the period during which A. Datum transitions from Exchange Server 2003 to Exchange Server 2010 SP1. The solution must meet the business goals of A. Datum. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. an Exchange hub site for each site and a Send connector that uses TOK-HUB1 and BAN- HUB1 as the source servers
B. a scoped Send connector that uses TOK-BE-1 as the source server and a scoped Send connector that uses BAN-BE-1 as the source server
C. an Exchange hub site for each site and Exchange-specific site link costs
D. a scoped Send connector that uses TOK-HUB-1 as the source server and a scoped Send connector that uses BAN-HUB-1 as the source server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the number of remote SMTP hosts that identify email messages sent by A. Datum users as spam. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a service location (SRV) record in the public DNS zone of the liware.com domain
B. a sender policy framework (SPF) record in the internal DNS zone of the litwareinc.com domain
C. a sender policy framework (SPF) record in the public DNS zone of the adatum.com domain
D. a sender policy framework (SPF) record in the internal DNS zone of the adatum.com domain
E. a sender policy framework (SPF) record in the public DNS zone of the litwareinc.com domain F. a service location (SRV) record in the public DNS zone of the adatum.com domain
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Fortinet
Certifications: NSE
Exam Name: Fortinet Network Security Expert 8 Written (800)
Exam Code: NSE8
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
NSE8 dumps
QUESTION 1
A System Administrator is concerned by the amount of disk space being used to store quarantine email messages for non-existent accounts. Which of the following techniques can be used on a FortiMail unit to PREVENT email messages from being quarantined for non-existent accounts?
A. Greylist Scanning
B. Recipient Address Verification
C. Sender Reputation
D. Automatic Removal of Invalid Quarantine Accounts
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is true regarding Session-based antispam techniques?
A. The entire mail content is inspected.
B. They are enabled in the session profile only.
C. SMTP commands, sender domain and IP address are checked.
D. They are checked after application-based antispam techniques.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements regarding the FortiMail unit’s Greylisting feature is NOT correct?
A. The FortiMail unit tracks the /32 bit host address of the sender.
B. When an email is received from a new sender IP address, envelope sender and envelope recipient addresses, the FortiMail unit will initially send a temporary failure message.
C. After the initial temporary fail message is sent, the message must be retransmitted between the Greylisting period expiry and initial expiry time periods.
D. Pass-through is allowed until the configured TTL expires.
E. An ACL with action Relay bypasses Greylisting.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements is true regarding oversized emails? NSE8 dumps
A. The default maximum message size defined on the FortiMail unit is 10 MB.
B. By default there is no maximum message size value defined on the FortiMail unit.
C. The session profile parameter “Cap message size” can be used to increase the maximum message size.
D. By default oversized emails are delivered at 0.00 local time.
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 5
What is the best explanation for why a FortiMail unit would issue the error message indicated in the exhibit?

A. The recipient domain external1.lab is not defined.
B. This traffic comes from an authenticated sender.
C. Recipient verification is not working properly.
D. The session is matching an Access Control Rule with action “Reject”.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is one reason for deploying a FortiMail unit in Transparent Mode?
A. DNS records do not necessarily have to be modified.
B. Mail is not queued thereby expediting mail delivery.
C. Mail is not inspected unless a policy explicitly matches the traffic.
D. No user information needs to be stored on the FortiMail unit when operating in Transparent Mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following features can be used to expand a single recipient address into a group of one or many email addresses?
A. User Alias
B. Address Map
C. User Group
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
NSE8 dumps Two access control rules are configured on a FortiMail unit as illustrated in the exhibit.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the COMBINED action of these two access control rules?
A. Email messages from senders at external1.lab will be rejected.
B. Email messages from external1.lab to internal1.lab from host IP 172.16.78.8 are relayed.
C. Email messages from external1.lab to internal1.lab from any host IP address are relayed.
D. Email messages from external1.lab to internal1.lab are restricted by the return DNS pattern.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following FortiMail profile types apply to IP-based policies only?
A. Session profile
B. Content profile
C. IP pool
D. Antispam profile
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is an advantage of using Banned Word scanning instead of Dictionary scanning?
A. Mail Headers are inspected.
B. It is easier to configure.
C. Regular Expressions can be used.
D. Non-ASCII characters are supported.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When using Sender Reputation on a FortiMail unit, NSE8 dumps which of the following actions can be taken against a source IP address generating spam or invalid email messages?
A. Delay the email messages from that source IP address with a temporary fail.
B. Reject the email messages from that source IP address with a permanent fail.
C. Quarantine all the email messages from that source IP address.
D. Limit the number of email messages allowed from that source IP address.
Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 12
On a FortiMail unit, access control rules specify actions to be taken against matching email messages. Which of the following statements correctly describes the Bypass action?
A. Accept the email message but skip the MX record lookup. This mail message will be delivered using the configured relay server.
B. Do not deliver the email message.
C. Accept the email message and skip all message scanning, such as antispam and antivirus.
D. Accept the email message and delete it immediately without delivery.
Correct Answer: C

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[New Cisco Exam Dumps] 2017 Latest 300-115 Dumps Cisco Exam Questions And Answers Update Youtube Demo

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 437 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server.
What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
After the implementation of several different types of switches from different vendors, a network engineer notices that directly connected devices that use Cisco Discovery Protocol are not visible. 300-115 dumps
Which vendor-neutral protocol could be used to resolve this issue?
A. Local Area Mobility
B. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
C. NetFlow
D. Directed Response Protocol
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch.
Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch C receives VLAN information from the VTP server Switch A, but Switch B does not receive any VLAN information.
What is the most probable cause of this behavior?
A. Switch B is configured in transparent mode.
B. Switch B is configured with an access port to Switch A, while Switch C is configured with a trunk port to Switch B.
C. The VTP revision number of the Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Several new switches have been added to the existing network as VTP clients. All of the new switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. However, VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients.
What must be done to fix this?
A. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with “null” and then replace it with the new domain name.
B. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients.
C. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the existing network.
D. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. 300-115 dumps Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1 port?
A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
After implementing VTP, the extended VLANs are not being propagated to other VTP switches.
What should be configured for extended VLANs?
A. VTP does not support extended VLANs and should be manually added to all switches.
B. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.
C. VTP authentication is required when using extended VLANs because of their ability to cause network instability.
D. Ensure that all switches run the same Cisco IOS version. Extended VLANs will not propagate to different IOS versions when extended VLANs are in use.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate” and “backup.” 300-115 dumps
What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs. This command is configured globally: monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 8, 39, 52
What is the result of the implemented command?
A. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
B. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
C. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
D. The trunk’s native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
E. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships.
What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?
A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.
Correct Answer: A

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