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VMware 1V0-81.20 Dumps Update [2022] Associate VMware Security Best Exam Materials

VMware 1V0-81.20 Dumps have been updated as 2022 Associate VMware Security Best Exam Materials to help you pass the target exam with ease.

1V0-81.20 is the Associate VMware Security exam code, 1V0-81.20 Dumps are reviewed by the Lead4Pass VMware expert team, for candidates’ knowledge of VMware security solutions, And the candidate’s ability to provide entry-level support for the security features of NSX-T Data Center, Workspace ONE, and Carbon Black Cloud ensures that you can successfully pass the Associate VMware Security certification exam on your first try.

Download 1V0-81.20 Dumps:, complete all practice questions carefully, and then take the Associate VMware Security certification exam:

Vendor: VMware
Exam Code: 1V0-81.20
Exam Name: Associate VMware Security
Certification: VCTA-SEC 2021 / VCTA-SEC 2022
Language: English
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 55
Passing score: 300 (VMware exams are scaled on a range from 100-500, with the determined raw cut score scaled to a value of 300.)
Format: Multiple Choice, Multiple Choice Multiple Selection, Drag and Drop, Matching, Proctored
Pricing: $125 USD

You can also try the 1V0-81.20 online test first:

Verify answers at the end of the test


In VMware Carbon Black Cloud, which reputations have the highest priority during analysis?

A. Known Priority
B. Trusted Allow List
C. Company Allow List
D. Ignore


Which VMware application enrolls an endpoint into Workspace ONE?

A. Workspace ONE Web
B. CB Defense Sensor
C. VMware Horizon Client
D. Workspace ONE Intelligent Hub


When filtering firewall rules after selecting an object to filter by, which four columns do the filter search? (Choose four.)

A. Services
B. Action
C. Protocol
D. Log
E. Applied To
F. Source
G. Destinations


When using VMware Carbon Black Live Response, what command will show all active processes?

A. dir
B. list
C. ls
D. ps


Which parameter ensures an endpoint will stay connected with the designated VMware Carbon Black Cloud tenant?

A. Company Code
B. Organization Group ID
C. Device Serial Number
D. User ID


Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true about the firewall rule?

A. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that drops traffic on port 22

B. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Services, DB-Servers, and Web-Servers that rejects traffic on port 22

C. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Services, DB-Servers, and Web-Servers that drops traffic on port 22

D. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that rejects traffic on port 22


A technician has been asked to confirm a specific browser extension does not exist on any endpoint in their environment.
Which is the VMware Carbon Black tool to use for this task?

A. Enterprise EDR
C. Audit and Remediation
D. Endpoint Standard


Which attack technique probes the environment for openings on devices or the firewall?

A. Port Scan
B. Denial of Service
C. Living off the Land
D. Phishing


What is the safe course of action for a USB disk of unknown ownership and origin?

A. Do not connect the USB to any computer as it may be a USB Killer device
B. Connect the USB device to your computer and allow the DLP software to protect it
C. Connect the USB to a non-Windows device and examine it
D. Connect the USB to an air-gapped system and examine it


In VMware Carbon Black Cloud Endpoint Standard, which items are available in the Event view?

A. Hashes, Reputations
B. Emails, Policies, OS, Locations
C. Connection, IP/Port
D. IDs, Indicators/TTPs


Micro-segmentation is under which pillar of trust in VMware\’s 5 pillars of Zero Trust?

A. User
B. Session/Transport
C. Application
D. Device


Which VMware product allows you to query an endpoint like a database?

A. VMware NSX-T Data Center
B. VMware Carbon Black Audit and Remediation
C. VMware Workspace ONE UEM
D. VMware Carbon Black Endpoint Standard


What types of hosts are supported for hosting both NSX-T Data Center managers and host transport nodes?

A. vSphere ESXi 6.7U1 or higher, KVM on CentOS Linux
B. vSphere ESXi 6.7U1 or higher, KVM on RHEL 7.6, Ubuntu 18.04.2 LTS
C. vSphere ESXi 6.5, KVM on RHEL 7.6, Ubuntu 18.04.2 LTS
D. vSphere ESXi 6.7U1 or higher, CentOS KVM 7.6, RHEL KVM


Verify answer:


Download the above 1V0-81.20 online test questions:

Share some 1V0-81.20 online test questions for free to verify your current learning situation, click here to download 1V0-81.20 Dumps and complete the complete practice to help you easily pass the Associate VMware Security certification exam.

[Updated 2022] Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam exercise questions and the latest updates 200-301 dumps

Cisco 200-301 is the latest Cisco CCNA exam code for 2020.
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200-301 CCNA – Cisco:

[Updated 2022] Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 exam question and answers


Refer to the exhibit.

Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C



Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to config-router CB-R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with CB-R2.

Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

A. router ospf 10
network area 0
network area 0

B. router ospf 10
network area 0
network area 0

C. router ospf 10
network area 0
network area 0

D. router ospf 10
network area 0
network area 0

Correct Answer: B


Refer to the exhibit.

How many JSON objects are represented?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: D



Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two)

A. R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out

B. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit

C. R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in

D. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit

E. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any

Correct Answer: AD



Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of

A. 10.165 20.126
D. 10.165 20.226

Correct Answer: D


[Updated 2022]: Get more free CCNA 200-301 dumps questions and labs

Latest updates Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam practice questions

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)
A. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.
C. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Correct Answer: CE

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)
A. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the
B. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.
C. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.
D. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.
E. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
Correct Answer: C

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose
A. input errors
B. frame
C. giants
E. runts
Correct Answer: AD

DRAG DROPlead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5-2

Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites.
Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach
one another? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.
B. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.
C. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.
D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.
E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.
Correct Answer: BD

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down.
B. After spanning tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.
C. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.
D. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
Correct Answer: D

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
A. Configure VTY access.
B. Configure the version of SSH.
C. Assign a DNS domain name.
D. Create a user with a password.
Correct Answer: C

Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
A. allocation nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
B. disabling TCP so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices
C. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps
D. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
Correct Answer: A

Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)
A. one-to-many communication model
B. one-to-nearest communication model
C. any-to-many communication model
D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
E. the same address for multiple devices in the group
F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
Correct Answer: BEF
A new address type made specifically for IPv6 is called the Anycast Address. These IPv6 addresses are global
addresses, these addresses can be assigned to more than one interface unlike an IPv6 unicast address. Anycast is
designed to send a packet to the nearest interface that is a part of that anycast group. The sender creates a packet and
forwards the packet to the anycast address as the destination address which goes to the nearest router. The nearest
router or interface is found by using the metric of a routing protocol currently running on the network. However in a LAN
setting the nearest interface is found depending on the order the neighbors were learned. The anycast packet in a LAN
setting forwards the packet to the neighbor it learned about first.

Which IPv6 address type communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
A. link-local
B. unique local
C. multicast D. global unicast
Correct Answer: B

How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?
B. MAC address forwarding
C. Collision avoidance
D. Port blocking
Correct Answer: D

Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
A. enable secret
B. enable password
C. service password-encryption
D. username cisco password encrypt
Correct Answer: C

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2V0-31.21 Dumps V12.02 Is the Latest Version For Professional VMware vRealize Automation 8.3 Exam

Are you preparing to take the 2V0-31.21 Professional VMware vRealize Automation 8.3 exam? You just need to have the latest version 2V0-31.21 Dumps prepared for the actual VMware 2V0-31.21 exam. Now, the 2V0-31.21 dumps V12.02 has been released via VMware subject matter experts.

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Which vRealize Automation service allows an administrator to import released cloud templates and Amazon Web Services CloudFormation templates that users can deploy? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Service Broker
B. Cloud Assembly
C. Orchestrator
D. Code Stream

Correct Answer: A


An administrator creates a custom form for an RHEL cloud template. A user reports only being able to see the standard form when requesting the cloud template.
Which step should the administrator take to resolve this issue?

A. Enable the custom form feature in Cloud Assembly.
B. Enable the custom form feature in Service Broker.
C. Enable the custom form in the project for the RHEL cloud template.
D. Enable the custom form for the RHEL cloud template.

Correct Answer: D


Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures a lease policy, (“1 Day Lease”), for the App-Dev project so that machines have a starting lease of one day and a maximum lease of five days.

The following week, the administrator is assigned a ticket to address an issue with machines being deleted without any notifications being received. The administrator requests a new machine deployment through the App-Dev project\’s service catalog.

Given the one-day lease period, the administrator expects to receive an automated “Lease Expiring” system immediately following a successful deployment; however, the email is not received.

The administrator checks the deployment that has just been created (as displayed in the exhibit) and confirms that the “1 Day Lease” policy has been correctly applied.

Which action should the administrator take to resolve this issue? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Add an email endpoint.
B. Configure the notification email Server.
C. Ensure the users have notifications enabled.
D. Run the Configure mail workflow.

Correct Answer: B


What is the function of Action-Based Extensibility (ABX)? (Choose the best answer.)

A. It provides the capability to migrate content between instances of vRealize Automation.
B. It provides efficient capacity and cost management for managed virtual machines.
C. It provides intelligent remediation and integrated compliance for security patches.
D. It provides a way to execute stateless function, which contains reusable parameterized actions.

Correct Answer: D


Which command should an administrator run to ensure data integrity before a snapshot or backup of a vRealize Automation appliance? (Choose the best answer.)

A. /opt/scripts/ ––onlyClean
B. /opt/scripts/
C. vracli status deploy
D. kubectl logs –n prelude

Correct Answer: B


Which deployment action is performed using the vRealize Easy Installer?

A. Register vRealize Automation with vCenter Single Sign-On
B. Install vRealize Operations
C. Install vCenter Server
D. Register vRealize Automation with VMware Identity Manager

Correct Answer: D



The administrator has installed SaltStack Config using the “edu” tenant from vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager.
How would the administrator access the SaltStack Config service?

A. Log in to https://
B. Log in to https://edu.
C. Log in to https://salt.
D. Log in to https://edu.

Correct Answer: B


Which two actions can be performed against a Cloud Assembly machine-based deployment? (Choose two.)

A. Run machine-level actions including adding a USB controller.
B. Change lease for the deployment.
C. Resize the deployment.
D. Change machine IP address assignment to DHCP.
E. Power off the deployment.

Correct Answer: CE


As part of a greenfield deployment, an administrator needs to set up an NSX-T Data Center cloud account.
Which user role is required to create an NSX-T Data Center cloud account in vRealize Automation? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Cloud Assembly Administrator
B. Cloud Assembly User
C. Orchestrator Administrator
D. NSX-T Data Center Enterprise Administrator

Correct Answer: A


An administrator must restrict the number of memory resources available for a specific group of users.
On which component would the administrator configure this?

A. Flavor Mappings
B. Cloud Accounts
C. Projects
D. Cloud Zones

Correct Answer: C



Which kubectl command should be run to find the Kubernetes authentication method? (Choose the best answer.)

A. kubectl describe pod
B. kubectl –n prelude describe pod
C. kubectl describe secrets
D. kubectl explain

Correct Answer: C


Which type of cloud account is configured during the Quickstart process?

A. Google Cloud Platform
B. Microsoft Azure
C. VMware Cloud an AWS
D. VMware vCenter Server

Correct Answer: D



Which command should an administrator run to check the status of vRealize Automation services? (Choose the best answer.)

A. vracli org-oauth-apps
B. kubectl –n prelude get pods
C. kubectl cluster-info –n prelude
D. vracli status

Correct Answer: B


2V0-31.21 free Dumps online download:

View 93 Q&A – 2V0-31.21 dumps: Latest Version For Professional VMware vRealize Automation 8.3 Exam

2V0-72.22 Dumps [2022] Take the Professional Develop VMware Spring exam

Let’s get started!

You need to know the 2V0-72.22 Professional Develop VMware Spring exam details and top recommendations:

Number of Questions: 60
Language: English
Time: 130 Minutes
Passing score: 300 (scaled)
Format: Single and Multiple Choice, Proctored
Pricing: $250.00 USD
2V0-72.22 dumps:

You need to know why 2V0-72.22 Dumps are used:

2V0-72.22 Dumps has developed 60 core exam questions and answers based on expertise in the key features of Spring and Spring Boot, as well as candidates’ ability to quickly build and deliver production-ready applications using Spring features.
You can use a 2V0-72.22 PDF file or a 2V0-72.22 VCE learning engine to prepare for your Professional Develop VMware Spring exam and ensure that you exceed your expected grades to achieve professional Develop VMware Spring certification.

So let me show you some of the 2V0-72.22 Dumps questions:


Which three statements are advantages of using Spring\’s Dependency Injection? (Choose three.)

A. Dependency injection can make code easier to trace because it couples behavior with construction.
B. Dependency injection reduces the start-up time of an application.
C. Dependencies between application components can be managed externally by the components.
D. Configuration can be externalized and centralized in a small set of files.
E. Dependency injection creates tight coupling between components.
F. Dependency injection facilitates loose coupling between components.

Correct Answer: BDE


Which two options are valid optional attributes for Spring\’s @Transactional annotation? (Choose two.)

A. isolation
B. writeOnly
C. nestedTransaction
D. readWrite
E. propagation

Correct Answer: AE


Which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)

A. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that is used to instruct the Spring TestContext Framework to record all application events that are published in the ApplicationContext during the execution of a single test.

B. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that you can use to configure how the Spring TestContext Framework is bootstrapped.

C. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that you can use to configure the locations of properties files and inlined properties to be added to the set of PropertySources in the Environment for an ApplicationContext loaded for an integration test.

D. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that is used to declare which bean definition profiles should be active when loading an ApplicationContext for an integration test.

Correct Answer: D


What is a Spring Boot starter dependency? (Choose the best answer.)

A. A setting for specifying which code you want Spring Boot to generate for you.
B. A specific POM which you must build to control Spring Boot\’s opinionated runtime.
C. A pre-existing model project you can download and use as the basis of your project.
D. An easy way to include multiple, coordinated dependencies related to a specific technology, like web or JDBC.

Correct Answer: D


Which three types of objects can be returned from a JdbcTemplate query? (Choose three.)

A. Generic MapS
B. Simple types (int, long, String, etc)
C. JSONObject
D. User-defined types
E. Properties
F. XMLObject

Correct Answer: BDE


Which two options will inject the value of the daily. limit system property? (Choose two.)

A. @Value(“#{daily.limit}”)
B. @Value(“$(systemProperties.daily.limit)”)
C. @Value(“$(daily.limit)”)
D. @Value(“#{systemProperties[`daily.limit\’]}”)
E. @Value(“#{systemProperties.daily.limit}”)

Correct Answer: BD


In which three ways are Security filters used in Spring Security? (Choose three.)

A. To provide risk governance.
B. To drive authentication.
C. To manage application users.
D. To provide a logout capability.
E. To enforce authorization (access control).
F. To encrypt data.

Correct Answer: BDE


Which two statements are true regarding Spring Boot Testing? (Choose two.)

A. @TestApplicationContext is used to define additional beans or customizations for a test.
B. Test methods in a @SpringBootTest class are transactional by default.
C. @SpringBootTest is typically used for integration testing.
D. Test methods annotated with @SpringBootTest will recreate the ApplicationContext.
E. @SpringBootTest without any configuration classes expects there is only one class annotated with
@SpringBootConfiguration in the application.

Correct Answer: CD


Refer to the exhibit.

It is a Java code fragment from a Spring application. Which statement is true with regard to the above example? (Choose the best answer.)

A. This syntax is invalid because the result of the getBean() method call should be cast to ClientService.
B. It will return a bean called ClientService regardless of its id or name.
C. This syntax is invalid because the bean id must be specified as a method parameter.
D. It will return a bean of the type ClientService regardless of its id or name.

Correct Answer: D


Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)

A. CustomerRepository should be a class, not an interface.
B. JPA annotations are required on the Customer class to successfully use Spring Data JDBC.
C. An implementation of this repository can be automatically generated by Spring Data JPA.
D. A class that implements CustomerRepository must be implemented and declared as a Spring Bean.

Correct Answer: C


Which two statements are true concerning constructor injection? (Choose two.)

A. If there is only one constructor the @Autowired annotation is not required.
B. Constructor injection only allows one value to be injected.
C. Constructor injection is preferred over field injection to support unit testing.
D. Construction injection can be used with multiple constructors without @Autowired annotation.
E. Field injection is preferred over constructor injection from a unit testing standpoint.

Correct Answer: CE


Which two statements are correct regarding Spring Boot auto-configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Auto-configuration uses @Conditional annotations to constrain when it should apply.
B. Auto-configuration could apply when a bean is missing but not when a bean is present.
C. Auto-configuration is applied by processing candidates listed in META-INF/spring.factories.
D. Auto-configuration could apply when a bean is present but not when a bean is missing.
E. Auto-configuration is applied before user-defined beans have been registered.

Correct Answer: DE


Refer to the exhibit.

What is the id/name of the declared bean in this Java configuration class? (Choose the best answer.)

A. clientServiceImpl (starting with lowercase “c”)
B. clientServiceImpl (starting with uppercase “C”)
C. clientService (starting with lowercase “c”)
D. ClientService (starting with uppercase “C”)

Correct Answer: D


Download the above 2V0-72.22 Dumps questions online:

View 60 questions:

Finally, I wish you success with your first exam in advance!

New 5V0-22.21 Dumps Questions [2022] Best material for VMware vSAN 6.7 Expert Exam

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An administrator has discovered that space utilized by VMs does not decrease after deleting files and folders within the VMs. The administrator needs to be able to reclaim this space.
Which action could the administrator take to accomplish this task?

A. Disable Storage I/O Control for the vSAN cluster.
B. Reboot the VM to recreate the swap file.
C. Set the Object Space Reservation rule to 100%.
D. Enable TRIM/UNMAP for the vSAN cluster.

Correct Answer: D


After a server power failure, the administrator noticed the scheduled resyncing in the cluster monitor displays objects to be resynchronized under the pending category.
What are these objects in this category?

A. These objects belong to virtual machines, which are powered off.
B. Object resynchronization must be started manually.
C. There is too many objects to be synchronized.
D. The delay timer has not expired.

Correct Answer: B


A site administrator has determined that the site needs to upgrade all vSAN clusters to 7.0 U1. The vSAN administrator wishes to complete the update in the shortest amount of time possible. All virtual machines are assigned a storage policy where the “Failures to tolerate” is set to one or higher.
Which strategy should be used to achieve this goal?

A. Disable de-duplication and compression prior to the upgrade.
B. Perform a complete update, omitting the on-disk format update.
C. Select the “No data migration” maintenance mode option.
D. Update only select, mission-critical clusters.

Correct Answer: D


During yesterday\’s business hours, a cache drive failed on one of the vSAN nodes. The administrator reached out to the manufacturer and received a replacement drive the following day. When the drive failed, vSAN started a resync to ensure the health of data, and all objects are showing a healthy and compliant state. The vSAN administrator needs to replace the failed cache drive.
Which set of steps should the vSAN administrator take?

A. Remove the existing vSAN disk group, and physically replace the device. Then, check to verify that the ESXi host automatically detects the new device. Afterward, manually recreate the Disk Group.

B. Physically replace the failed cache device, and vSAN will automatically create a new disk group. Then, remove the disk group with the failed device.

C. Physically replace the failed cache device, and vSAN will automatically allocate the storage. Then, rebalance the cache layer.

D. Place the disk group into maintenance mode, and select Full Data Migration. Then, physically replace the failed cache device. Afterward, vSAN will rebuild the disk group automatically.

Correct Answer: B


After a recent data loss event, the IT department plans to deploy a DR site using vSphere Replication with vSAN providing the storage backend.
The architect would like to know how many components will be created based on the following configuration:
2x 100 GB VMDK RAID 1 vSAN Storage Policy 4x Point in Time snapshots
How many components will be created?

A. 32
B. 24
C. 16
D. 8

Correct Answer: B


What are two purposes of a vSAN storage policy (Choose two.)

A. To determine the vSAN encryption level
B. To enable TRIM/UNMAP

C. To define how the VM storage objects are provisioned
D. To guarantee the required level of service
E. To enable deduplication and compression

Correct Answer: CD


A single capacity disk fails within a vSAN 7.0 U1 cluster running with a “compression-only” configuration enabled. The vSAN administrator must recognize the platform impact that has occurred and take steps to correct it.
Which action should the vSAN administrator take?

A. The hardware failure will impact the entire disk group, so the vSAN administrator will need to remove and recreate the disk group following the replacement of the failed storage device.

B. The hardware failure will stop the running workloads, so the vSAN administrator will need to disable the compression-only configuration, replace the failed capacity device, and then re-create the disk group.

C. The hardware failure will impact all disk groups within the ESXi host, so the vSAN administrator will need to manually remove the ESXi node from the vSAN Cluster, replace the failed capacity device, and then re-create the disk group.

D. The hardware failure will only impact the specific capacity disk, so the vSAN administrator will need to remove and replace the failed capacity device.

Correct Answer: D


A 100GB virtual disk object has this storage policy assigned to it:
Site disaster tolerance: None – standard cluster Failures to Tolerate: 1 failure – RAID-1 (Mirroring) Number of disk stripes per object: 3
What is the maximum amount of raw vSAN storage capacity consumed by this virtual disk?

A. 200GB
B. 100GB
C. 300GB
D. 600GB

Correct Answer: B


Which option, if any, is the default option to Enable Maintenance Mode on a vSAN host?

A. Ensure accessibility.
B. No data migration.
C. Full data migration.
D. There is no default option. The administrator must select an option.

Correct Answer: D


Which two prerequisites are required before a vSAN administrator is able to use the vSAN Performance Diagnostics feature? (Choose two.)

A. The vSAN Performance Service must be enabled.
B. The vSAN Health Service must be turned on.
C. vSAN File Services must be disabled before running vSAN Performance Diagnostics.
D. Participation in the Customer Experience Improvement Program (CEIP) must be enabled.
E. Verbose Mode must be enabled when configuring vSAN monitoring.

Correct Answer: AB


An organization is facing vSAN storage capacity challenges on one of their vSAN enabled clusters, while other vSAN enabled clusters are underutilized. The current vSAN version is 7.0 U1.
Which vSAN feature should be used to resolve this challenge in the quickest way?

A. vSAN HCI Mesh
B. vSAN Replication
C. vSAN Stretched Clusters
D. vSAN Datastore(s)

Correct Answer: A


An administrator wants to check the vSAN cluster health during the maintenance window while the vCenter Server is offline.
What are two ways to complete this task? (Choose two.)

A. HCIBench
B. ESXi system logs on vSAN datastore
C. esxcli
D. vSphere Host Client
E. esxtop

Correct Answer: CD


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Which two statements are correct for VMware Cloud Services cloud proxy? (Choose two.)

A. It helps connect to public cloud entities.
B. It connects cloud services to on-premises networks.
C. An OVA deployment to an ESXi server is supported.
D. It requires a load balancer.
E. An OVA must be deployed on a vCenter Server.

Correct Answer: BE


An architect is designing a greenfield Cloud Management solution. During the requirements gathering workshop with the customer, the following information was captured:
The log monitoring solution must be capable of collecting a minimum of 10,000 events per second. The automation solution must be capable of deploying at least 20 concurrent workloads.
When creating the design documentation, which design quality should be used to classify the requirements?

A. Availability
B. Manageability
C. Performance
D. Recoverability

Correct Answer: C


What level of design will contain an automation platform, an operational monitoring platform, and a desktop platform?

A. Physical Design
B. Conceptual Design
C. Detailed Design
D. Logical Design

Correct Answer: D


An organization\’s cloud team would like to reduce template sprawl. Below are the applications they want to deploy using cloud templates:
MS SQL and Web IIS applications on OS type Windows 2016 and Windows 2019 Oracle WebLogic and Oracle DB applications on OS types RHEL7 and RHEL 8.
Which two options would meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Create an image mapping for Windows and RHEL OS types
B. Create a Cloud Template for each application type with a combination of OS types
C. Create a Cloud Template or upgrade an existing one with user input to select the OS type
D. Create a Cloud Template for each OS type and have a user input option to pick the application type.
E. Create image mappings for OS types Windows 2016, Windows 2019, RHEL7 and RHEL8

Correct Answer: AC


A client wants to integrate a source control system to manage and maintain the cloud templates for their new installation of vRealize Automation.
Which solution should be included as part of the vRealize Automation logical design?

A. Git
B. Subversion
C. vRealize SaltStack Config
D. Gerrit

Correct Answer: A


An architect is designing a private cloud solution for an organization and has been given the following
The organization already has a VMware Workspace ONE Access 3.3.2 cluster with external MSSQL
server for their existing virtualized desktop environment.
Due to budget constraints, wherever possible, the architect needs to reuse the existing environment.
What should the architect recommend as an authentication solution for the private cloud?

Note: VMware Identity Manager has been renamed as VMware Workspace ONE Access.

A. The existing instance can be reused as an authentication provider for the private cloud but maintained outside of vRealize Lifecycle Manager.

B. Import the existing Workspace ONE Access cluster in vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager but do not reuse it for authentication purposes.

C. Deploy a new instance of Workspace ONE Access cluster using vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager and use it for authentication.

D. Import the existing Workspace ONE Access cluster in vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager and reuse it for authentication purposes.

Correct Answer: B


An architect is designing a vRealize Log Insight cluster for an organization. The organization has the following requirements:
No requirement for archival data Support a log data retention period of 14 days
How will the log data be handled in this vRealize Log Insight cluster after the 14-day retention period?

A. The user needs to manually select and delete specific old log messages to free up space.
B. Old log messages are automatically and periodically retired on a least accessed basis.
C. Old log messages are automatically and periodically retired on a first-come-first-retired basis.
D. A variable-sized chunk of old log messages is deleted to free up space based on the data age basis.

Correct Answer: D


An online retail company needs its shopping cart application to be highly available.
What three cloud management design decisions would give an optimal shopping experience? (Choose three.)

A. Create a vRealize Operations metric chart for the application\’s CPU usage
B. Create a vRealize Orchestrator workflow that remediates the issue by updating the CPU
C. Configure the vRealize Operations alert to run a vRealize Orchestrator workflow when triggered
D. Create a vRealize Operations alert that is triggered when the application\’s CPU usage exceeds a threshold
E. Create a vRealize Orchestrator workflow that emails an administrator to remediate the issue
F. Configure the vRealize Operations alert to email an administrator to remediate the issue

Correct Answer: BDF


Which two statements are true when considering the vRealize Automation logical design for workload storage placement based on service levels, cost, and performance? (Choose two.)

A. Secondary disk attached to the virtual machine resource uses the same storage constraint tag as the virtual machine

B. Storage constraint tag is applied to virtual machine resources and all the risks associated with the template

C. vSphere tags can only be used in storage profiles

D. Storage placement is independent of the vendor when using hard constraint tags

E. First class disks are only supported in vRealize Automation Cloud

Correct Answer: BE


A cloud architect is planning to scale out the small deployment of vRealize Automation to address high availability requirements.
When creating an implementation plan, which prerequisite should be documented?
Note: FQDN: Fully qualified domain name VIP: Virtual IP address

A. Request certificate containing VIP FQDN for each Organization for VMware Identity Manager VIP

B. Request Certificate Authority (CA)-signed certificate containing the VIP FQDN and the FQDN of the VMware Identity Manager nodes

C. Request Certificate Authority (CA)-signed certificate containing the VIP FQDN and the FQDN of all the cluster nodes

D. Request a certificate containing VIP FQDN for each Organization for vRealize Automation VIP

Correct Answer: C


An organization has a set of requirements for its private cloud:
Provide the ability to reclaim idle VMs deployed in the vRealize Automation (vRA) Report on the health of resources provisioned in vRA Calculate the cost of VMs provisioned in vRA Optimally place vRA deployment workloads to vSAN and avoid contention
Which cloud management product should be integrated with vRA to meet these requirements?

A. vRealize Operations

B. vRealize Orchestrator
C. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager
D. vRealize Log Insight

Correct Answer: B


An architect has been asked about migrating a client\’s vRealize Automation solution from version 7.x to version 8.x. One of the requirements is to continue to support custom XaaS (Anything as a Service) blueprints that the client has developed.
Which component of a vRealize Automation logical design will fulfill this requirement?

A. Cloud Assembly
B. Cloud Zones
C. Service Broker
D. Cloud-Init

Correct Answer: B


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Which two capabilities are supported by VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Application Profiler? (Choose two.)

A. It allows individual user personalization of applications.
B. It allows the creation of computer templates.
C. It allows third-party user personalization of applications.
D. It allows the creation of application-specific predefined settings.
E. It analyzes registry and file system location settings for an application.

Correct Answer: DE


An administrator needs to deploy an application to specific users in their instant-clone desktop environment with the following characteristics:

The application needs to be updated very frequently.
The application needs to be installed as soon as possible.
The application is not multi-user aware.
Which solution would meet the requirements?

A. VMware Horizon Published Application
B. VMware Thinapp
C. VMware App Volumes
D. VMware Dynamic Environment Manager

Correct Answer: A


What are three valid options to store Horizon events? (Choose three.)

A. flat files
C. D82
E. Syslog

Correct Answer: BDE


Which two scenarios are appropriate for a Cloud implementation of a VDI solution over an on-premises solution? (Choose two.)

A. The organization already has the infrastructure to support a VDI.
B. The organization needs to set up high availability and disaster recovery.
C. The organization controls highly confidential data.
D. The organization has a limited CapEx budget.
E. The organization needs to quickly scale up in disparate geographical locations.

Correct Answer: DE



Integration of VMware Horizon resources with Workspace ONE consists of several high-level steps.
Drag and drop the integration steps on the left into the correct sequential order on the right.
Select and Place:

vmware 2v0-51.21 questions 5

Correct Answer:

vmware 2v0-51.21 questions 5-1


Which description explains Cloud Pod Architecture?

A. Cloud Pod Architecture is a feature that requires additional licenses to activate and use.

B. Cloud Pod Architecture is a feature only available when using Windows virtual desktops in a Horizon environment.

C. Cloud Pod Architecture is a feature that provides cross-data center administration, high availability desktops, and disaster recovery capabilities.

D. Cloud Pod Architecture is a feature that allows a vSphere cluster to become highly available for virtual desktops.

Correct Answer: C


End-users are complaining that they are frequently being asked for credentials when opening additional apps.

Which step should the administrator take to resolve the issue?

A. Configure SSO Timeout by modifying the Global Settings in Horizon Administrator.
B. Configure Session Timeout by modifying the Client Settings in Horizon Client.
C. Configure a time limit by modifying the Horizon GPO.
D. Configure Desktop Timeout by modifying the Pool Settings in Horizon Administrator.

Correct Answer: C


An administrator configured a virtual machine to use an NVIDIA card but the virtual machine is not starting up.

What could be the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. No suitable host could be found.
B. Not all memory has been reserved on the VM.
C. Not all CPUs have been reserved on the VM.
D. The Desktop Pool doesn\’t support 3D cards.
E. 3D graphics cannot be used with local storage.

Correct Answer: AB



The virtualization of physical resources after the installation of a hypervisor follows a specific procedure.
Drag and drop the procedural steps on the left into the correct sequential order on the right.
Select and Place:

vmware 2v0-51.21 questions 9

Correct Answer:

vmware 2v0-51.21 questions 9-1


A Horizon administrator is tasked with creating a new pool of desktops with hardware-accelerated graphics with vMotion support.

Which graphic acceleration types can the administrator choose to meet the requirement?

A. Virtual Shared Direct 3D
B. Virtual Shared 3D rendering
C. Virtual Dedicated Graphics Acceleration
D. Virtual Shared Pass-through Graphics Acceleration

Correct Answer: C


An administrator has been tasked by their organization with determining the type of Horizon deployment to use.

These requirements have been provided to the administrator:

Implement quickly the deployment of Windows and Linux desktops.
Provide hybrid cloud support.
Provide centralized brokering.
Ensure the environment is secure from end to end.

Which deployment solution meets the requirements?

A. vSphere Desktop Edition
B. Workspace ONE Unified Endpoint Management
C. Horizon On-Premises
D. Horizon Cloud on Azure

Correct Answer: D


An administrator is tasked with giving the security team non-destructive rights to see how the connection servers have been configured.

What privilege is needed to meet the requirement?

A. Global Configuration and Policy Administrators (Read-only)
B. Inventory Administrators (Read-only)
C. Settings Administrator (Read-only)
D. Administrators (Read-only)

Correct Answer: D

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1. Which component is mandatory for user authentication in vRealize Automation?

A. Active Directory
C. Workspace ONE Access
D. vRealize Operations Manager


2. An administrator is troubleshooting an application via Workbench in vRealize Operations Manager and would like to only view root causes.

Which option must the administrator select?

A. Specify Time Range
B. Decrease Object Scope
C. Hide Consequential Evidence
D. Investigate Property Changes


3. Which is the valid use case for vRealize Automation?

A. Multi-cloud deployment with governance
B. Providing the compute layer for Kubernetes
C. Infrastructure and application monitoring
D. Central repository for Perl scripts


4. An administrator is tasked to allow the organization\\’s users to consume vRealize Automation services.

Which solution is used for this configuration?

A. vCenter Server
B. Active Directory
C. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager
D. Workspace ONE Access


5. An administrator has been tasked with creating a dashboard where the date range for the data displayed can be changed by the consumer of the dashboard.

Which time/date setting should the administrator configure for the widgets in the dashboard?

A. Dashboard Time
B. Relative Data Range
C. Absolute Date Range
D. Specific Data Range


6. Which benefit is gained through the use of vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager?

A. Lowers IT spending
B. Reduces the need for vRealize Suite product licenses
C. Simplifies vRealize Suite product upgrades
D. Helps in app migration


7. Which vRealize Network Insight search query is using a nested operator?

A. vm where name not matches ` [a-z] vm-delta [0-9] `
B. vm where in (vm where name = `x\\’)
C. vms where memory >= 4096 mb
D. vms where ip address != \\’\\’


8. An administrator needs to provide a support team access to live data from within vRealize Operations to troubleshoot an on-going application performance issue.

Which actions should the administrator take to help the support team?

A. Create an Alert Definition, and configure an outbound notification.
B. Create a Report, and configure a daily schedule.
C. Create a Dashboard, and configure dashboard sharing.
D. Create a Capacity Scenario, and automatically share the capacity remaining results.


9. Which tool can be used to visualize cloud resource relationships and associated misconfigurations, threats, metadata, and change activity?

A. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager
B. CloudHealth Secure State
C. vRealize Log Insight
D. VMware Cloud Foundation


10. Which component of the VMware Cloud Management solution simplifies the deployment, upgrade, configuration, and management of vRealize Suite components?

A. SaltStack Config
B. Lifecycle Manager
C. SDDC Manager
D. VMware CIM APIs


11. An operator has been tasked with powering on a single virtual machine that has been onboarded, along with a number of additional virtual machines, into a single deployment within vRealize Automation.

The virtual machine was onboarded in a powered-off state.

Which two actions could the operator take to complete the task? (Choose two.)

A. Locate the deployment in vRealize Automation, and use the Power On Day 2 action.
B. Locate the virtual machine in vRealize Log Insight, and use the Power On action.
C. Locate the deployment in vRealize Operations, and use the Power on action.
D. Locate the virtual machine in vRealize Operations, and use the Power On action.
E. Locate the virtual machine in vRealize Automation, and use the Power On Day 2 action.


12. Which component of vRealize Automation delivers event-driven and self-healing configuration management of software on provisioned resources?

A. Service Broker
B. Code Stream
C. SaltStack Config
D. Cloud Assembly

Verify the answer:


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VMware 5V0-31.20 Q1

An administrator adds permissions to a namespace m vSphere with Tanzu.
Which prerequisite must be satisfied before a user or group can be assigned to a namespace?

A. It must be assigned with Administrator role in vCenter Server
B. It must be created in Kubernetes cluster.
C. It must be a member of vSphere SSO identity source
D. It must be assigned with Administrator role on SDDC Manager level.


VMware 5V0-31.20 Q2

Which two statements regarding MTU size should be considered prior to executing a deployment of VMware Cloud Foundation? (Choose two.)

A. MTU of 1600 is a minimum for TFP VLANs
B. MTU of 1500 is a minimum for TEP VLANs
C. MTU of 9000is a minimum for all non-managementVLANs
D. MTU of 9000 is recommended for all non-management VLANs
E. MTU of 1500 is recommended for all non-management VLANs


VMware 5V0-31.20 Q3

What is a valid use case for using multiple clusters in a workload domain?

A. Sixty-six hosts are required in the workload domain
B. vSAN is required as a principal storage option.
C. NFS is required as a principal storage option.
D. Thirty-three hosts are required in the workload domain.


VMware 5V0-31.20 Q4

Which disk configuration is supported by VMware Cloud Builder and can be used for VMware vSAN in VMware Cloud foundation environment?

A. Two 600 GB HDD disks and four 2 TB SSD disks per server
B. Two 60X5 GB NVMe disks and four 2 TB SSD disks per server
C. Two 600 GB NVMe disks and five 2 TB SSD disks per server
D. Two 600 GB SSD disks and five 2 TB SSD disks per server


VMware 5V0-31.20 Q5

Which two statements accurately characterize vSphere Pods? (Choose two )

A. A vSphere Pod is the smallest building block of vSphere with Tanzu that can run containerized applications.

B. A vSphere Pod can run only one container, and the minimum number of vSphere Pods in a cluster is three pods.

C. A vSphere Pod is just a VM that runs a minimal version of Photon OS and container runtime on top of it.

D. A vSphere Pod is a Kubemetes pod that runs on Tanzu Kubemetes Cluster

E. A vSphere Pod can use normal vSphere Standard Switch and vSphere Distributed Switch


VMware 5V0-31.20 Q6

A company has data centersin New York, Berlin, and Hong Kong and would like to make cross-region visibility possible. How can this goal be achieved?

A. VMware Cloud Foundation cannot connect multiple instances, so data must be collected via API.
B. Use VMware Cloud on AWS as the central hub for data exchange, and present data thru AWS.
C. Leverage VMware Cloud Foundation Multi-Instance Federation.
D. Install additional vRealize Operations nodes in each site, and federate the data via Remote Collectors.


VMware 5V0-31.20 Q7

Which two statements are correct about VMware Cloud Foundation (VCF) license editions? (Choose two)

A. VCF Enterprise Edition has the capability to use Tanzu Kubemetes services on vSphere.
B. VCF Starter Edition allows stretching clusters across multiple availability zones.
C. All VCF license editions include automated deployment and lifecycle management of VCI components
D. VCF Advanced Edition allows large-scale migrations from old environments to VCF
E. All VCF license editions have the capability of automated deployment and lifecycle management of user workloads


VMware 5V0-31.20 Q8

An administrator is tasked with preparing the hosts for a new VMware Cloud Foundation environment. The new environment will be installed in a facility far away from the administrator, and the hosts must be reachable remotely as soon as they are cable and powered-on in the rack. To reduce cost the new hosts do not have out of band management.
Which two steps should the administrator take to prepare for this deployment? (Choose two.)

A. Configure UEFI support in the host BIOS
B. Download the ESXi ISO and VIBs
C. Create a Cluster Image profile
D. Configure the VMware Imaging Appliance service.
E. Validate MTU of 1600 is set on Management VLAN.


VMware 5V0-31.20 Q9

An administrator has been tasked with updating license keys in a VMware Cloud Foundation environment. These licenses include:

1. VMware vSphere
2. VMware vSAN
3. VMware vCenter Server
4. VMware NSX-T Data Center

Where must an administrator go in order to update the specified license keys?

A. SDDC Manager > Administration > Licensing
B. SDDC Manager > Inventory
C. VMware vCenter > Administration > Licensing
D. VMware vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager > Locker


VMware 5V0-31.20 Q10

An administrator has been tasked with increasing the available capacity within an existing Cloud Foundation deployment to support the deployment of a production Workload Management cluster.
The VMware Cloud Foundation environment consists of a single workload called Production. The Production workload domain consists of a single vSAN Cluster called Production-01 that existing Virtual Machines. During the original deployment, even through automated firmware updates were not required, the Production workload domain was configured to use vSphere Lifecycle Images to automate its ongoing lifecycle management.

Four new hosts have been commissioned in SDDC Manager to support Workload Management. The new hosts are identically configured to the hosts that are currently deployed into the Production-01 cluster.
Which process must the administrator complete to enable Workload Management?

A. Create a new vSAN Cluster within a new vSphere Lifecycle Manager Image-based workload domain.
B. Create a new vSAN Cluster within a new vSphere Lifecycle Manager Baseline-based workload domain.
C. Extend the Production-01 vSAN cluster with the additional four hosts.
D. Create a new vSAN Cluster within the Production workload domain


VMware 5V0-31.20 Q11

What is the maximum recommended MTU value for all non-management VLANs within VMware Cloud Foundation?

A. MTU 15000
B. MTU 15000
C. MTU 9000
D. MTU 16000


VMware 5V0-31.20 Q12

Which two prerequisites are required to create vSphere with Tanzu namespace? (Choose two.)

A. The Primary Workload Network must be available
B. Verify that the administrator has the prrvilegeNamespaces. Manage label on the Supervisor Cluster
C. Kubemetes clusters and objects must have access to the company NTP and company DNS.
D. A local content library must be created and configuredE. A cluster with vSphere with Tanzu must be configured.

Verify Answer


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When deploying a Carbon Black Cloud Sensor using GPO, which option is a required setting?




In the NSX Manager UI, which tab is selected to manage firewall rules?

A. Plan and Troubleshoot tab
B. Security tab
C. Inventory tab
D. Networking tab



Refer to the exhibit.

2v0-81.20 q3

What command was run on the NSX Edge node to pull this information?

A. get tunnel-ID
B. show vteps
C. get vteps
D. list vteps



A consulting security firm was hired to inspect your infrastructure for vulnerabilities. The firm inspected these items:
badge readers to enter the datacenter locks on server racks security cameras in the datacenter
What type of infrastructure are they inspecting?

A. Virtual Infrastructure

B. Physical Infrastructure
C. Personnel Infrastructure
D. Logical Infrastructure



Which three statements are correct for Active Directory integration with Identity Firewalls (IDFW) in an NSX-T Data
Center deployment? (Choose three.)

A. The IDFW can be used on both physical and virtual servers as long as supported operating system is installed.
B. The Thin Agent must be enabled in VMWare tools as it is not enabled by default.
C. The IDFW can be used for Virtual Desktops (VDI) or Remote desktop sessions (RDSH support).
D. Identity-based groups can be used as the source or destination in DFW rules.
E. User identity information is provided by the NSX Guest Introspection Thin Agent.



An administrator is trying to create a new access policy rule in Workspace ONE Access. Which two options are
available when creating this new access policy rule. (Choose two.)

A. Device OS Version
B. Network Range
C. Compliance State
D. Device Ownership
E. Authentication Method



A company has just implemented new security guidelines in regards to device management. All iOS
devices must now require a passcode to unlock the device.
An administrator must implement these requirements:
all iOS devices must have a passcode minimum passcode length of 6 numerals auto-lock after 2 minutes
What type of profile in Workspace ONE UEM would the administrator create to accomplish this task?

A. Compliance Profile
B. User Profile
C. Device Profile
D. Access Profile



When creating a policy in VMware Carbon Black Cloud, what impact does setting the Target Value to Low have?

A. Alerts Severity scores are raised by 1.
B. Alerts Severity scores are raised by 2.
C. Alerts Severity scores are lowered by 1.
D. Alerts Severity scores are lowered by 2.



An administrator has created a security policy from the NSX UI, but the firewall rules are not being applied
to the traffic in the datapath.
Which two actions could be carried out by the administrator to resolve the problem? (Choose two.)

A. Modify the Direction of the rules in the security policy.
B. Modify the Action of the rules in the security policy.
C. Restart the workloads running on the impacted hosts.
D. Modify the Applied To field of the security policy.
E. Restart the nsx-proxy agent on the impacted hosts.



When creating a Windows Update Policy for a Workspace ONE solution, which option allows an administrator to utilize
local network traffic only for peer traffic?

A. use peers on same NAT only
B. use peers on the same local network domain
C. simple download mode
D. use internet peers



When creating a compliance policy in Workspace ONE UEM, which three of the following options are valid Notify
actions? (Choose three.)

A. Send SMS to Device
B. Send Push Notification to Device
C. Voice Call to User
D. Send Email to User
E. SMS to Manager



Which three options are valid unattended installation options for Carbon Black Cloud Sensors? (Choose three.)


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