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2V0-72.22 Dumps [2022] Take the Professional Develop VMware Spring exam

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You need to know the 2V0-72.22 Professional Develop VMware Spring exam details and top recommendations:

Number of Questions: 60
Language: English
Time: 130 Minutes
Passing score: 300 (scaled)
Format: Single and Multiple Choice, Proctored
Pricing: $250.00 USD
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2V0-72.22 Dumps has developed 60 core exam questions and answers based on expertise in the key features of Spring and Spring Boot, as well as candidates’ ability to quickly build and deliver production-ready applications using Spring features.
You can use a 2V0-72.22 PDF file or a 2V0-72.22 VCE learning engine to prepare for your Professional Develop VMware Spring exam and ensure that you exceed your expected grades to achieve professional Develop VMware Spring certification.

So let me show you some of the 2V0-72.22 Dumps questions:

QUESTION 1:

Which three statements are advantages of using Spring\’s Dependency Injection? (Choose three.)

A. Dependency injection can make code easier to trace because it couples behavior with construction.
B. Dependency injection reduces the start-up time of an application.
C. Dependencies between application components can be managed externally by the components.
D. Configuration can be externalized and centralized in a small set of files.
E. Dependency injection creates tight coupling between components.
F. Dependency injection facilitates loose coupling between components.

Correct Answer: BDE
Reference: https://raviroza.com/tight-coupling-and-loose-coupling-in-spring-framework/

QUESTION 2:

Which two options are valid optional attributes for Spring\’s @Transactional annotation? (Choose two.)

A. isolation
B. writeOnly
C. nestedTransaction
D. readWrite
E. propagation

Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://learningviacode.blogspot.com/2012/10/attributes-in-springs-declarative.html

QUESTION 3:

Which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)

A. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that is used to instruct the Spring TestContext Framework to record all application events that are published in the ApplicationContext during the execution of a single test.

B. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that you can use to configure how the Spring TestContext Framework is bootstrapped.

C. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that you can use to configure the locations of properties files and inlined properties to be added to the set of PropertySources in the Environment for an ApplicationContext loaded for an integration test.

D. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that is used to declare which bean definition profiles should be active when loading an ApplicationContext for an integration test.

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/4.2.x/spring-framework-reference/html/integrationtesting.html

QUESTION 4:

What is a Spring Boot starter dependency? (Choose the best answer.)

A. A setting for specifying which code you want Spring Boot to generate for you.
B. A specific POM which you must build to control Spring Boot\’s opinionated runtime.
C. A pre-existing model project you can download and use as the basis of your project.
D. An easy way to include multiple, coordinated dependencies related to a specific technology, like web or JDBC.

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://developer.ibm.com/tutorials/j-spring-boot-basics-perry/

QUESTION 5:

Which three types of objects can be returned from a JdbcTemplate query? (Choose three.)

A. Generic MapS
B. Simple types (int, long, String, etc)
C. JSONObject
D. User-defined types
E. Properties
F. XMLObject

Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6:

Which two options will inject the value of the daily. limit system property? (Choose two.)

A. @Value(“#{daily.limit}”)
B. @Value(“$(systemProperties.daily.limit)”)
C. @Value(“$(daily.limit)”)
D. @Value(“#{systemProperties[`daily.limit\’]}”)
E. @Value(“#{systemProperties.daily.limit}”)

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7:

In which three ways are Security filters used in Spring Security? (Choose three.)

A. To provide risk governance.
B. To drive authentication.
C. To manage application users.
D. To provide a logout capability.
E. To enforce authorization (access control).
F. To encrypt data.

Correct Answer: BDE
Reference: https://www.javadevjournal.com/spring-security/spring-security-filters/

QUESTION 8:

Which two statements are true regarding Spring Boot Testing? (Choose two.)

A. @TestApplicationContext is used to define additional beans or customizations for a test.
B. Test methods in a @SpringBootTest class are transactional by default.
C. @SpringBootTest is typically used for integration testing.
D. Test methods annotated with @SpringBootTest will recreate the ApplicationContext.
E. @SpringBootTest without any configuration classes expects there is only one class annotated with
@SpringBootConfiguration in the application.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

It is a Java code fragment from a Spring application. Which statement is true with regard to the above example? (Choose the best answer.)

A. This syntax is invalid because the result of the getBean() method call should be cast to ClientService.
B. It will return a bean called ClientService regardless of its id or name.
C. This syntax is invalid because the bean id must be specified as a method parameter.
D. It will return a bean of the type ClientService regardless of its id or name.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)

A. CustomerRepository should be a class, not an interface.
B. JPA annotations are required on the Customer class to successfully use Spring Data JDBC.
C. An implementation of this repository can be automatically generated by Spring Data JPA.
D. A class that implements CustomerRepository must be implemented and declared as a Spring Bean.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

Which two statements are true concerning constructor injection? (Choose two.)

A. If there is only one constructor the @Autowired annotation is not required.
B. Constructor injection only allows one value to be injected.
C. Constructor injection is preferred over field injection to support unit testing.
D. Construction injection can be used with multiple constructors without @Autowired annotation.
E. Field injection is preferred over constructor injection from a unit testing standpoint.

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12:

Which two statements are correct regarding Spring Boot auto-configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Auto-configuration uses @Conditional annotations to constrain when it should apply.
B. Auto-configuration could apply when a bean is missing but not when a bean is present.
C. Auto-configuration is applied by processing candidates listed in META-INF/spring.factories.
D. Auto-configuration could apply when a bean is present but not when a bean is missing.
E. Auto-configuration is applied before user-defined beans have been registered.

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the id/name of the declared bean in this Java configuration class? (Choose the best answer.)

A. clientServiceImpl (starting with lowercase “c”)
B. clientServiceImpl (starting with uppercase “C”)
C. clientService (starting with lowercase “c”)
D. ClientService (starting with uppercase “C”)

Correct Answer: D

……

Download the above 2V0-72.22 Dumps questions online:https://drive.google.com/file/d/12An5-aHTf_DPNQt_sHg7fjW8UdF_bx20/view?usp=sharing


View 60 questions:

Finally, I wish you success with your first exam in advance!

Updated 1V0-31.21 Dumps Are Valid For Associate VMware Cloud Management and Automation Exam

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Participate in VMware 1V0-31.21 free dumps first, online exam test

1. Which component is mandatory for user authentication in vRealize Automation?

A. Active Directory
B. OpenLDAP
C. Workspace ONE Access
D. vRealize Operations Manager

 

2. An administrator is troubleshooting an application via Workbench in vRealize Operations Manager and would like to only view root causes.

Which option must the administrator select?

A. Specify Time Range
B. Decrease Object Scope
C. Hide Consequential Evidence
D. Investigate Property Changes

 

3. Which is the valid use case for vRealize Automation?

A. Multi-cloud deployment with governance
B. Providing the compute layer for Kubernetes
C. Infrastructure and application monitoring
D. Central repository for Perl scripts

 

4. An administrator is tasked to allow the organization\\’s users to consume vRealize Automation services.

Which solution is used for this configuration?

A. vCenter Server
B. Active Directory
C. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager
D. Workspace ONE Access

 

5. An administrator has been tasked with creating a dashboard where the date range for the data displayed can be changed by the consumer of the dashboard.

Which time/date setting should the administrator configure for the widgets in the dashboard?

A. Dashboard Time
B. Relative Data Range
C. Absolute Date Range
D. Specific Data Range

 

6. Which benefit is gained through the use of vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager?

A. Lowers IT spending
B. Reduces the need for vRealize Suite product licenses
C. Simplifies vRealize Suite product upgrades
D. Helps in app migration

 

7. Which vRealize Network Insight search query is using a nested operator?

A. vm where name not matches ` [a-z] vm-delta [0-9] `
B. vm where in (vm where name = `x\\’)
C. vms where memory >= 4096 mb
D. vms where ip address != \\’10.17.0.0/16\\’

 

8. An administrator needs to provide a support team access to live data from within vRealize Operations to troubleshoot an on-going application performance issue.

Which actions should the administrator take to help the support team?

A. Create an Alert Definition, and configure an outbound notification.
B. Create a Report, and configure a daily schedule.
C. Create a Dashboard, and configure dashboard sharing.
D. Create a Capacity Scenario, and automatically share the capacity remaining results.

 

9. Which tool can be used to visualize cloud resource relationships and associated misconfigurations, threats, metadata, and change activity?

A. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager
B. CloudHealth Secure State
C. vRealize Log Insight
D. VMware Cloud Foundation

 

10. Which component of the VMware Cloud Management solution simplifies the deployment, upgrade, configuration, and management of vRealize Suite components?

A. SaltStack Config
B. Lifecycle Manager
C. SDDC Manager
D. VMware CIM APIs

 

11. An operator has been tasked with powering on a single virtual machine that has been onboarded, along with a number of additional virtual machines, into a single deployment within vRealize Automation.

The virtual machine was onboarded in a powered-off state.

Which two actions could the operator take to complete the task? (Choose two.)

A. Locate the deployment in vRealize Automation, and use the Power On Day 2 action.
B. Locate the virtual machine in vRealize Log Insight, and use the Power On action.
C. Locate the deployment in vRealize Operations, and use the Power on action.
D. Locate the virtual machine in vRealize Operations, and use the Power On action.
E. Locate the virtual machine in vRealize Automation, and use the Power On Day 2 action.

 

12. Which component of vRealize Automation delivers event-driven and self-healing configuration management of software on provisioned resources?

A. Service Broker
B. Code Stream
C. SaltStack Config
D. Cloud Assembly

Verify the answer:

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VMware 5V0-31.20 Q1

An administrator adds permissions to a namespace m vSphere with Tanzu.
Which prerequisite must be satisfied before a user or group can be assigned to a namespace?

A. It must be assigned with Administrator role in vCenter Server
B. It must be created in Kubernetes cluster.
C. It must be a member of vSphere SSO identity source
D. It must be assigned with Administrator role on SDDC Manager level.

 

VMware 5V0-31.20 Q2

Which two statements regarding MTU size should be considered prior to executing a deployment of VMware Cloud Foundation? (Choose two.)

A. MTU of 1600 is a minimum for TFP VLANs
B. MTU of 1500 is a minimum for TEP VLANs
C. MTU of 9000is a minimum for all non-managementVLANs
D. MTU of 9000 is recommended for all non-management VLANs
E. MTU of 1500 is recommended for all non-management VLANs

 

VMware 5V0-31.20 Q3

What is a valid use case for using multiple clusters in a workload domain?

A. Sixty-six hosts are required in the workload domain
B. vSAN is required as a principal storage option.
C. NFS is required as a principal storage option.
D. Thirty-three hosts are required in the workload domain.

 

VMware 5V0-31.20 Q4

Which disk configuration is supported by VMware Cloud Builder and can be used for VMware vSAN in VMware Cloud foundation environment?

A. Two 600 GB HDD disks and four 2 TB SSD disks per server
B. Two 60X5 GB NVMe disks and four 2 TB SSD disks per server
C. Two 600 GB NVMe disks and five 2 TB SSD disks per server
D. Two 600 GB SSD disks and five 2 TB SSD disks per server

 

VMware 5V0-31.20 Q5

Which two statements accurately characterize vSphere Pods? (Choose two )

A. A vSphere Pod is the smallest building block of vSphere with Tanzu that can run containerized applications.

B. A vSphere Pod can run only one container, and the minimum number of vSphere Pods in a cluster is three pods.

C. A vSphere Pod is just a VM that runs a minimal version of Photon OS and container runtime on top of it.

D. A vSphere Pod is a Kubemetes pod that runs on Tanzu Kubemetes Cluster

E. A vSphere Pod can use normal vSphere Standard Switch and vSphere Distributed Switch

 

VMware 5V0-31.20 Q6

A company has data centersin New York, Berlin, and Hong Kong and would like to make cross-region visibility possible. How can this goal be achieved?

A. VMware Cloud Foundation cannot connect multiple instances, so data must be collected via API.
B. Use VMware Cloud on AWS as the central hub for data exchange, and present data thru AWS.
C. Leverage VMware Cloud Foundation Multi-Instance Federation.
D. Install additional vRealize Operations nodes in each site, and federate the data via Remote Collectors.

 

VMware 5V0-31.20 Q7

Which two statements are correct about VMware Cloud Foundation (VCF) license editions? (Choose two)

A. VCF Enterprise Edition has the capability to use Tanzu Kubemetes services on vSphere.
B. VCF Starter Edition allows stretching clusters across multiple availability zones.
C. All VCF license editions include automated deployment and lifecycle management of VCI components
D. VCF Advanced Edition allows large-scale migrations from old environments to VCF
E. All VCF license editions have the capability of automated deployment and lifecycle management of user workloads

 

VMware 5V0-31.20 Q8

An administrator is tasked with preparing the hosts for a new VMware Cloud Foundation environment. The new environment will be installed in a facility far away from the administrator, and the hosts must be reachable remotely as soon as they are cable and powered-on in the rack. To reduce cost the new hosts do not have out of band management.
Which two steps should the administrator take to prepare for this deployment? (Choose two.)

A. Configure UEFI support in the host BIOS
B. Download the ESXi ISO and VIBs
C. Create a Cluster Image profile
D. Configure the VMware Imaging Appliance service.
E. Validate MTU of 1600 is set on Management VLAN.

 

VMware 5V0-31.20 Q9

An administrator has been tasked with updating license keys in a VMware Cloud Foundation environment. These licenses include:

1. VMware vSphere
2. VMware vSAN
3. VMware vCenter Server
4. VMware NSX-T Data Center

Where must an administrator go in order to update the specified license keys?

A. SDDC Manager > Administration > Licensing
B. SDDC Manager > Inventory
C. VMware vCenter > Administration > Licensing
D. VMware vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager > Locker

 

VMware 5V0-31.20 Q10

An administrator has been tasked with increasing the available capacity within an existing Cloud Foundation deployment to support the deployment of a production Workload Management cluster.
The VMware Cloud Foundation environment consists of a single workload called Production. The Production workload domain consists of a single vSAN Cluster called Production-01 that existing Virtual Machines. During the original deployment, even through automated firmware updates were not required, the Production workload domain was configured to use vSphere Lifecycle Images to automate its ongoing lifecycle management.

Four new hosts have been commissioned in SDDC Manager to support Workload Management. The new hosts are identically configured to the hosts that are currently deployed into the Production-01 cluster.
Which process must the administrator complete to enable Workload Management?

A. Create a new vSAN Cluster within a new vSphere Lifecycle Manager Image-based workload domain.
B. Create a new vSAN Cluster within a new vSphere Lifecycle Manager Baseline-based workload domain.
C. Extend the Production-01 vSAN cluster with the additional four hosts.
D. Create a new vSAN Cluster within the Production workload domain

 

VMware 5V0-31.20 Q11

What is the maximum recommended MTU value for all non-management VLANs within VMware Cloud Foundation?

A. MTU 15000
B. MTU 15000
C. MTU 9000
D. MTU 16000

 

VMware 5V0-31.20 Q12

Which two prerequisites are required to create vSphere with Tanzu namespace? (Choose two.)

A. The Primary Workload Network must be available
B. Verify that the administrator has the prrvilegeNamespaces. Manage label on the Supervisor Cluster
C. Kubemetes clusters and objects must have access to the company NTP and company DNS.
D. A local content library must be created and configuredE. A cluster with vSphere with Tanzu must be configured.

Verify Answer

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This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of VMware’s security solutions and the candidate’s ability to administer the security features and functions of NSX-T Data Center, Workspace ONE, and VMware Carbon Black Cloud.
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VCP-SEC 2v0-81.20 online exam (answers posted at the end of the article):

QUESTION 1

When deploying a Carbon Black Cloud Sensor using GPO, which option is a required setting?

A. COMPANY_CODE
B. LICENSE_CODE
C. CONNECT_LIMIT
D. AUTO_UPDATE

 

QUESTION 2

In the NSX Manager UI, which tab is selected to manage firewall rules?

A. Plan and Troubleshoot tab
B. Security tab
C. Inventory tab
D. Networking tab

 

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit.

2v0-81.20 q3

What command was run on the NSX Edge node to pull this information?

A. get tunnel-ID
B. show vteps
C. get vteps
D. list vteps

 

QUESTION 4

A consulting security firm was hired to inspect your infrastructure for vulnerabilities. The firm inspected these items:
badge readers to enter the datacenter locks on server racks security cameras in the datacenter
What type of infrastructure are they inspecting?

A. Virtual Infrastructure

B. Physical Infrastructure
C. Personnel Infrastructure
D. Logical Infrastructure

 

QUESTION 5

Which three statements are correct for Active Directory integration with Identity Firewalls (IDFW) in an NSX-T Data
Center deployment? (Choose three.)

A. The IDFW can be used on both physical and virtual servers as long as supported operating system is installed.
B. The Thin Agent must be enabled in VMWare tools as it is not enabled by default.
C. The IDFW can be used for Virtual Desktops (VDI) or Remote desktop sessions (RDSH support).
D. Identity-based groups can be used as the source or destination in DFW rules.
E. User identity information is provided by the NSX Guest Introspection Thin Agent.

 

QUESTION 6

An administrator is trying to create a new access policy rule in Workspace ONE Access. Which two options are
available when creating this new access policy rule. (Choose two.)

A. Device OS Version
B. Network Range
C. Compliance State
D. Device Ownership
E. Authentication Method

 

QUESTION 7

A company has just implemented new security guidelines in regards to device management. All iOS
devices must now require a passcode to unlock the device.
An administrator must implement these requirements:
all iOS devices must have a passcode minimum passcode length of 6 numerals auto-lock after 2 minutes
What type of profile in Workspace ONE UEM would the administrator create to accomplish this task?

A. Compliance Profile
B. User Profile
C. Device Profile
D. Access Profile

 

QUESTION 8

When creating a policy in VMware Carbon Black Cloud, what impact does setting the Target Value to Low have?

A. Alerts Severity scores are raised by 1.
B. Alerts Severity scores are raised by 2.
C. Alerts Severity scores are lowered by 1.
D. Alerts Severity scores are lowered by 2.

 

QUESTION 9

An administrator has created a security policy from the NSX UI, but the firewall rules are not being applied
to the traffic in the datapath.
Which two actions could be carried out by the administrator to resolve the problem? (Choose two.)

A. Modify the Direction of the rules in the security policy.
B. Modify the Action of the rules in the security policy.
C. Restart the workloads running on the impacted hosts.
D. Modify the Applied To field of the security policy.
E. Restart the nsx-proxy agent on the impacted hosts.

 

QUESTION 10

When creating a Windows Update Policy for a Workspace ONE solution, which option allows an administrator to utilize
local network traffic only for peer traffic?

A. use peers on same NAT only
B. use peers on the same local network domain
C. simple download mode
D. use internet peers

 

QUESTION 11

When creating a compliance policy in Workspace ONE UEM, which three of the following options are valid Notify
actions? (Choose three.)

A. Send SMS to Device
B. Send Push Notification to Device
C. Voice Call to User
D. Send Email to User
E. SMS to Manager

 

QUESTION 12

Which three options are valid unattended installation options for Carbon Black Cloud Sensors? (Choose three.)

A. UPDATESOURCE=
B. GROUP_NAME=
C. LICENSE_CODE=
D. COMPANY_CODE=
E. AUTO_UPDATE=

Verify answer:

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5v0-42.21 exam questions online exam practice

QUESTION 1

A customer is using Office 365.
How would the VMware SD-WAN recognize this application correctly?

A. The VCE supports prioritization and QoS. Each application is assigned one of the three Service Classes and three
Business Priorities.

B. Top SaaS Apps (TLS encrypted) are identified using put. IP and port ranges Other TLS traffic can be identified based
on the certificate information.

C. Office 365 has to be added as part of customizing the Application Map by TCP/UDP port and subnet ranges.

D. VMware SD-WAN will use SSL inspection to detect Office 365.

 

QUESTION 2

Which port is used for the high availability connection between the two Edges on a pair of Edge 510s?

A. Any port may be chosen.
B. GE1
C. SFP1
D. GE4

 

QUESTION 3

Which deployment model ensures that management and control plane is cloud-delivered while data continues to flow onpremises between VMware SD-WAN nodes that remain on-premises?

A. Hosted SD-WAN Orchestrator/Controller
B. On-premises SD-WAN Orchestrator/Controller
C. Partially on-premises
D. All on-premises

 

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.

5v0-42.21 questions q4

An MSP is designing a solution for a merger of Customer A and Customer B to Customer A\\’s enterprise. Due to
overlapping IP addresses and security requirements, the segments with the same names between Customer A and
Customer A cannot be merged. Based on the graphic and the requirements, how many new segments need to be
configured in the VMware SD-WAN Orchestrator?

A. 4 segments
B. 2 segments
C. 6 segments
D. 5 segments

 

QUESTION 5

A VMware SD-WAN customer has a requirement to enable single sign-on (SSO) authentication to their
existing provider (idp) for access to their Orchestrator account.
Which authentication protocol is supported?

A. OpenID Connect (OlDC)
B. LDAP
C. SAML 2.0
D. TACACS+

 

QUESTION 6

Due to very strict security policies an enterprise customer is looking for an on-premises deployment of the VMware SDWAN Orchestrator and Controllers. Customer data is not expected to flow through this Controller, however it is desirable that management plane traffic towards the Orchestrator coming from VMware SD-WAN Edges can take the overlay tunnels through this controls. What are some of the needed steps to achieve the requirements above?

A. Under gateway configuration -> Configure the Gateway roles as Control Plane, disable Data Plane and enable
management plane forward

B. Under gateway configuration -> Configure the Gateway roles as Control Plane, disable Data Plane and add static
host routes with NAT hand off settings porting to the Orchestrator IPs under Partner Gateway advanced hand off
settings

C. Under gateway configuration -> Configure the Gateway roles as Control-Plane, enable Data Plane and Partner
Gateway role and add static host mules with NAT hand off settings pointing to the Orchestrator IPs under Partner
Gateway advanced hand off settings

D. Under gateway configuration -> Configure the Gateway roles as Control-Plane, enable Data Plant- and Partner
Gateway role and add a static default route with NAT hand off settings under Partner Gateway advanced hand oft
settings

 

QUESTION 7

An enterprise has deployed a VMware SD-WAN solution with Edges in many different located to different
Partner Gateways.
Which design makes it possible to have dynamic branch to branch VPN tunnels between any two Edges?

A. Dedicated at least one Gateway as a Controller, and few initial data plane packets will travers the Controller before
dynamic tunnel is established between the two branches.

B. Add Controller role to each Partner Gateway.

C. Configure each partner Gateway as a Controller.

D. Dedicate at least one Gateway as a Controller, and no data plan packets will traverse the Controller before dynamic
tunnel is established between the two branches.

 

QUESTION 8

A technician at a customer site is deploying VMware SD-WAN Edge 620 notices that the Edge LED is
shown amber.
What is the meaning of this LED color?

A. Edge is still booting.
B. DNS is not reachable from the Edge.
C. Edge is not activated.
D. Internet is not available from the Edge

 

QUESTION 9

A customer is using VMware vSphere in their data center. An administrator is asked to deploy SD- WAN Edges for a
Proof of Concept as soon as possible. Which deployment option is the roost cost and time effective?

A. Deploy a virtual appliance on ESXi
B. Purchase bare metal Edge
C. Deploy a virtual appliance in AWS
D. Deploy a virtual appliance on KVM

 

QUESTION 10

Which three authentication mode options ate valid for use on the VMware SD-WAN Edge? (Choose three.)

A. Certificate Enabled
B. Certificate ate Optional
C. Certificate Disabled
D. Certificate Activated
E. Certificate Accepted
F. Certificate Requited

 

QUESTION 11

A customer has a 10,000 branch site requirement arid must use a hub cluster in their design. Which Mware SO- WAN
best practice should be used when designing the cluster?

A. BGP on WAN side
B. Static routing
C. MP BGP south bound
D. BGP on LAN side

 

QUESTION 12

Which form factor can a customer use to deploy VMware SD WAN Edge?

A. Oracle Virtual Box
B. Open Virtualization Appliance
C. Docker Container
D. Hyper-V Virtual Machine

Verify answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12
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VMware 2v0-71.21 exam questions online exam

Exam answers are announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

Which command is used to upgrade a Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Cluster (TKG) to a different kubernetes version?

A. tkg cluster upgrade –k8s-version
B. tkg upgrade cluster –kubernetes-version
C. tkg cluster upgrade –kubernetes-version
D. tkg upgrade cluster –version

 

QUESTION 2

What role is used to run cluster inspection on Tanzu Mission Control console?

A. Cluster.edit role
B. Credential.admin role
C. Credential.view role
D. Create role

 

QUESTION 3

To configure a cluster with user authentication in Tanzu Kubernetes Grid (TKG), which options are needed to deploy
Dex on a management cluster running on vSphere? (Choose two.)

A. Dex with Local Authentication
B. Dex with Active Directory
C. Dex with OpenLDAP
D. Dex with OIDC
E. Dex with LDAP

 

QUESTION 4

What is the command to find out the available node base operating system images?

A. kubectl get nodes
B. kubectl cluster-info
C. kubectl get virtualmachineclasses
D. kubectl get virtualmachineimages

 

QUESTION 5

What is a standard solution for a Kubernetes administrator to implement pod security?

A. iptables
B. Add check for validating YAML
C. OPA
D. Use trusted corporate repository

 

QUESTION 6

Which is the correct statement describing the characteristic of a pod?

A. Pod is the smallest entity managed by Docker.
B. Pod can contain only one container.
C. Containers in a pod start and stop together.
D. Pod is deployed directly on the virtual machine.

 

QUESTION 7

How are Tanzu Kubernetes clusters upgraded?

A. Deploy a new cluster with upgraded Kubernetes release
B. Rolling upgrades
C. Clusters are only upgraded offline
D. In-place upgrade for each node

 

QUESTION 8

Select the tkg cli command below that provides valid syntax for scaling a Tanzu Kubernetes Grid cluster:

A. tkg scale cluster_name –cp-machine-count 5 –node-count 10
B. tkg scale cluster cluster_name –controlplane-machine-count 5 –worker-machine-count 10
C. tkg scale cluster_name –controlplane-machine-count 5 –worker-machine-count 10
D. tkg scale cluster cluster_name –cp-machine-count 5 –node-count 10

 

QUESTION 9

After successfully configuring vSphere Container Storage Interface (CSI), what is the path an administrator can follow to
view the status of the container volumes?

A. Describe the StorafeClass via kubectl.
B. vSAN Data Store in ESXi Host Client.
C. Get the status of the pods vis kubectl.
D. Container volumes in vSphere Client.

 

QUESTION 10

A Tanzu Mission Control administrator would like to enforce the following container controls:
Require Digest.
Name-Tag Allowlist.
To which type of policies do these controls belong to?

A. Security
B. Registry
C. Access
D. Network

 

QUESTION 11

What is the command to recognize a cluster in a disconnected state to Tanzu Mission Control?

A. tmc cluster configure -n -k
B. tmc configure cluster -n -k
C. tmc join cluster -n -k
D. tmc cluster reattach -n -k

 

QUESTION 12

Which is the correct option to forward logs from Tanzu Kubernetes Grid clusters to Elastic, Kafka, Splunk or an HTTP
endpoint?

A. No action is required. Tanzu Kubernetes Grid automatically forwards the logfiles to syslog.
B. Use the kubectl get logs command to forward the logs
C. Deploy the fluent bit plugin to vRealize Log Insight
D. Deploy the fluent bit plugin to vRealize Log Insight

Publish the answer

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12
BADEABCBBCBDD

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VMware 2v0-31.21 exam questions online exam

Exam answers are announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

What is the function of Action-Based Extensibility (ABX)? (Choose the best answer.)

A. It provides the capability to migrate content between instances of vRealize Automation.
B. It provides efficient capacity and cost management for managed virtual machines.
C. It provides intelligent remediation and integrated compliance for security patches.
D. It provides a way to execute stateless function, which contain reusable parameterized actions.

 

QUESTION 2

Which vRealize Automation service allows an administrator to import released cloud templates and Amazon Web
Services CloudFormation templates that users can deploy? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Service Broker
B. Cloud Assembly
C. Orchestrator
D. Code Stream

 

QUESTION 3

The Quickstart wizard executes multiple actions when submitted.
What is one of the actions that is always executed by the Quickstart wizard? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Send approval notification
B. Create an Active Directory integration
C. Request a deployment from a machine catalog item
D. Execute subscriptions for an event topic

 

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator successfully deploys vRealize Automation (vRA) and configures a new directory in vRealize Suite
Lifecycle Manager for the App-Dev team. The Add-Dev team needs to request catalog items and manage the
subsequent deployments. The company security policy requires that users be granted the least privileges necessary to
fulfill their role.
The administrator is assigned a ticket to address the issue that when the App-Dev members log into vRA, they receive
the error shown in the exhibit. Based on initial investigation, all of the users experiencing the issue are members of the
same Active Directory Group: App-Dev-Users. Upon review from within vRA Identity and Access Management, all of the users reporting the issue appear under the Active Users tab.
Which two actions should the administrator take within Identity and Access Management to resolve the reported issue
while adhering to the security policy? (Choose two.)

A. Under Enterprise Groups, assign the Service Broker User service role to the App-Dev-Users group.
B. Under Active Users, assign the Service Broker Administrator service role to each of the impacted users.
C. Under Enterprise Groups, assign the Service Broker Administrator service role to the App-Dev-Users group.
D. Under Enterprise Groups, assign the Organization Member role to the App-Dev-Users group.
E. Under Active Users, assign the Organization Owner role to each of the impacted users.

 

QUESTION 5

An administrator is tasked is tasked with using an existing set of cloud templates and images that are available online
through the Marketplace tab in vRealize Automation.
Which integration does the administrator have to configure first to enable this functionality? (Choose the best answer.)

A. vRealize Orchestrator
B. Ansible
C. My VMware
D. GitLab

 

QUESTION 6

Assuming no additional inputs have been added to the cloud template and the custom form is not enabled, which two
fields are always flagged as mandatory when requesting a catalog item? (Choose two.)

A. Description
B. Cloud zone
C. Version
D. Project
E. Deployment name

 

QUESTION 7

As part of a greenfield deployment, an administrator needs to set up an NSX-T Data Center cloud account.
Which user role is required to create an NSX-T Data Center cloud account in vRealize Automation? (Choose the best
answer.)

A. Cloud Assembly Administrator
B. Cloud Assembly User
C. Orchestrator Administrator
D. NSX-T Data Center Enterprise Administrator

 

QUESTION 8

Which vRealize Automation service is available through an external appliance in vRealize Automation Cloud? (Choose
the best answer.)

A. Cloud Assembly
B. Service Broker
C. vRealize Orchestrator
D. Code Stream

 

QUESTION 9

An administrator is configuring vRealize Automation to generate a unique machine naming convention for the deployed resources.
The machine name should meet the following criteria:
XXX-YYY-ZZZ-## ac XXX – Cloud Zone YYY – Server Function YYY – Application ## – 2-digit running number
Which component should the administrator use to configure this policy? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Cloud zones
B. Machines
C. Projects
D. Capability tag

 

QUESTION 10

An administrator configures a lease policy with the following settings:
Maximum lease (days): 10 Maximum total lease (days): 30 Grace period (days): 5
If a user does not respond to any emails, after how many days will the deployment be destroyed? (Choose the best
answer.)

A. 15
B. 10
C. 35
D. 40

 

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.

vmware 2v0-31.21 exam questions q11

An administrator is testing a newly created Windows 2016 cloud template in Cloud Assembly. While using the Test
option from within the cloud template, the attached error appears.
What is a possible cause for this error message? (Choose the best answer.)

A. During the machine allocation phase, Cloud Assembly could not find enough resources.
B. The network profile created did not have the correct capability tag.
C. The administrator did not associate a cloud zone to the project.
D. The administrator did not add a cloud account.

 

QUESTION 12

An IT Director wants to integrate existing Amazon Web Services CloudFormation templates into a new vRealize
Automation deployment.
How can the administrator achieve this? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Deploy a Cloud Proxy into the appropriate region of the pre-configured Amazon Web Services cloud account.
B. Add content sources in Service Broker from the pre-configured Amazon Web Services cloud account.
C. Create and configure a custom integration into Cloud Assembly.
D. Leverage Action Based Extensibility (ABX) to extend functionality, programmatically.

Publish the answer

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12
DABAECCEACCACB

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VMware 3V0-21.21 online exam test

QUESTION 1

During a requirements gathering workshop, the customer provides the following requirement:
A new vSphere platform must be designed securely and all interfaces must be protected against potential
snooping.
How should this non-functional security requirement be documented?

A. Interfaces must be audited.
B. Encrypted channels must be used for all communications.
C. Unauthorized access to interfaces must be reported within 15 minutes.
D. Communications must be through Private VLANs (PVLAN).

 

QUESTION 2

A new vSphere platform is being created. The platform will host virtual machines that will run management services and line-of-business applications.
What should the architect consider when designing the number and type of clusters required?

A. Maximum tolerable downtime
B. Predicted platform growth
C. Auditing requirements for the virtual machines
D. The level of isolation required between virtual machine classifications

 

QUESTION 3

During a requirements gathering workshop, the customer provides the following information:
Each host has 2 × 10 GbE NIC EtherChannel is not currently configured No changes can be made to the physical
network Network throughput must be prioritized for defined critical services
Which two recommendations should the architect make with regard to virtual networking? (Choose two.)

A. Use Route Based on Physical NIC Load.
B. Use Network I/O Control with Shares.
C. Use Network I/O Control with Reservation.
D. Use Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP).
E. Use Network I/O Control with Limits.

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/vsphere-esxi-vcenter-server-65-networkingguide.pdf

 

QUESTION 4

An architect is designing the expansion of an existing vSphere 7 environment. The customer is requesting
a design for a new cluster to support the anticipated future business growth. The requirements specified
for the existing environment design must be considered when designing the new cluster.
The existing design has the following requirements:
REQ01 The environment has an availability target of 99.5% for all infrastructure.
REQ02 The recovery time objective (RTO) for Tier 1 virtual machines is one hour.
REQ03 Windows and Linux virtual machines must reside on separate clusters.
REQ04 Access to the management cluster within the environment must be controlled.
Which of the listed requirements would be classified as a functional requirement?

A. The environment has an availability target of 99.5% for all infrastructure
B. The recovery time objective (RTO) for Tier 1 virtual machines is one hour
C. Access to the management cluster within the environment must be controlled
D. Windows and Linux virtual machines must reside on separate clusters

 

QUESTION 5

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) for an organization is concerned about the security posture of the
operating system images that are used for the provisioning of their Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) applications. The
organization is in a growth period. The organization is opening a new data center to launch its next phase of new SaaS-based solutions.
The DevOps team currently creates encrypted virtual machine (VM) templates that are used for various operating systems and adds these to the vSphere inventory. The DevOps team already uses a published content library and has been granted a role with the ability to add and delete library items.
The following requirements have been noted:
Impacts to the DevOps team\\’s operational processes must be kept to a minimum.
The DevOps team must be able to regularly check out a copy of the image for updates and check in a new
version of the image.
Images must be synchronized from the primary data center to the new data center.
Which three recommendations should the architect make to design a content library solution that will meet
these requirements? (Choose three.)

A. Clone virtual machines as VM templates to the published content library
B. Create a subscribed library from the published library and synchronize Open Virtualization Format (OVF) templates
on-demand
C. Create a subscription and publish VM templates to a subscribed content library
D. Create a subscribed library from the published library and synchronize Open Virtualization Format (OVF) templates
automatically
E. Clone virtual machines as Open Virtualization Format (OVF) templates to the published content library
F. Update the role for the DevOps team with new privileges

 

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.
During a requirements gathering workshop, the customer shares the following diagram regarding their availability
service-level agreements (SLAs):

vmware 3v0-21.21 exam questions q6

The customer wants database application level availability to always take precedence. What should the architect
recommend to meet the customer\\’s requirement?

A. Enable vSphere HA and add a VM Override with VM Restart Priority set to Highest.
B. Enable Fault Tolerance.
C. Enable Sphere HA and maintain the default settings.
D. Enable vSphere HA and add a VM Override with VM Restart Priority set to Lowest.

 

QUESTION 7

An organization\\’s data scientists are executing a plan to use machine learning (ML). They must have access to
graphical processing unit (GPU) capabilities to execute their computational models when needed. The solutions
architect needs to design a solution to ensure that GPUs can be shared by multiple virtual machines.
Which two solutions should the architect recommend to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. NVIDIA vGPU
B. AMD MxGPU
C. vSphere DirectPath I/O
D. vSGA
E. vSphere Bitfusion

 

QUESTION 8

An architect is tasked with reviewing the design of a VMware software-defined data center (SDDC) for a software
development company. The platform is used to developing applications and services. It is important that the customer
be able to accurately benchmark performance of developed applications.
The platform has recently commissioned new hosts to update the development cluster.
The development cluster host configuration is: 4 ESXi hosts with 2 sockets × 16 cores 512 GB RAM divided evenly
between sockets There is no resource contention
The benchmarking cluster host configuration is: 8 ESXi hosts with 2 sockets × 8 cores 256 GB RAM divided evenly
between sockets There is no resource contention
The customer is developing an application that includes a database virtual machine. The application developer states
that the database virtual machine performs as required only when allocated 8 vCPUs 256 GB RAM. The database
virtual machine performance meets the required levels when run from the development cluster. Performance
benchmarking for the database virtual machine yields highly variable results when run from the benchmarking cluster.
The application cannot be released without reliable performance benchmarking data.
What is a possible reason for the difference in performance test results between the development and benchmarking
clusters?

A. The database tier breaches a single NUMA node boundary for the benchmarking cluster
B. The database tier breaches a single NUMA node boundary for the development cluster
C. The development cluster can support a lower %Ready time per vCPU
D. The development cluster has more available RAM per host

 

QUESTION 9

An architect is tasked with designing a new VMware software-defined data center (SDDC) solution for an
online retail customer who has a primary and secondary data center as well as 10 distribution hubs.
The customer has provided the following business requirements to help inform the design:
The solution must support the running of up to 1,000 concurrent virtual machines across the primary and
secondary data center.
The solution must support the running of up to 20 concurrent virtual machines in each distribution hub.
The solution must support the separation of management and lines-of-business application virtual machines.
All management components (including directory services, backup, automation, operations and logging)
must be deployed to the primary data center.
All virtual infrastructure components must have redundancy of N+1.
All sites are connected to each other using a wide area network that has multiple diversely routed links.
The solution should support a monthly uptime target of 99.9%.
The recovery time objective (RTO) for the solution must be four hours.
The recovery point objective (RPO) for the solution must be 24 hours.
Given the information from the customer, which assumption should the architect include in the design?

A. All business application virtual machines can be deployed into a single cluster within the primary data center.
B. Each distribution hub should be configured with a backup device.
C. The wide area network has sufficient bandwidth to support centralized management.
D. Each cluster will have a minimum of four hosts.

 

QUESTION 10

In a meeting to discuss the minimum viable product (MVP) deployment of a new customer-facing application, the key
stakeholder shares details of the application components and the application administrators share details of
performance and integrity tests for the application.
The application will be made up of the following components: A web server

Steps to confirm the web server is operating correctly will take 15 minutes after the application server is online. An
application server

Steps to confirm application server integrity will take 15 minutes after the database is online. A database server
-The database server will be managed by a database administrator, with an agreed service-level agreement (SLA) to
restore and validate database services within one hour.
The existing VMware infrastructure offers a recovery point objective (RPO) of 5 minutes and recovery time objective
(RTO) of 15 minutes through a combination of backups and replication.
In the event of an outage impacting all three application components, how long will it take for the application to recover and complete all checks?

A. 15 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 105 minutes
D. 90 minutes

 

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.
During a requirements gathering workshop, the customer shares the following about their existing ESXi
host virtual networking infrastructure:

vmware 3v0-21.21 exam questions q11

The customer confirms that:
Each ESXi host has approximately 200 virtual machines.
They want to maximize the number of concurrent virtual machine migrations.
When placing a host in maintenance mode, it takes a long time to evacuate the virtual machines.
Which two recommendations should the architect make in order to help the customer overcome their
challenge? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the network to use MTU for the VMotion VMKernel to 1,600 bytes
B. Configure the network to use MTU for the VMotion VMKernel to 9,000 bytes
C. Create an additional standard switch with pNIC3 to use for vMotion
D. Use the 3 pNICs and bundle them in a link aggregation group (LAG) configuration
E. Use 10 GbE NICs instead of 1 GbE

 

QUESTION 12

An architect is creating a network design for a new vSphere environment.
Based on customer requirements, the environment must support the following types of traffic: Management vMotion
vSAN Fault Tolerance Virtual machine traffic, which cannot be impacted by other types of traffic
Which design recommendation can the architect make for a resilient infrastructure with vSphere network service
tiering?

A. Use different logical networks to ensure traffic is isolated with separate VLANs
B. Use Network I/O Control and ensure appropriate share value is defined for different types of traffic giving priority to
the virtual machines traffic
C. Use two dedicated virtual switches with a single adapter each, dedicating one virtual switch for Management,
vMotion, vSAN and Fault Tolerance traffic, and the second one for virtual machine traffic
D. Use a NIC teaming policy based on the physical NIC load

 

QUESTION 13

A customer has six hosts available in a cluster. When running at full capacity, all virtual machines can be run on two
hosts.
How many hosts can the customer place into maintenance mode at the same time while still providing N+2 resiliency to the cluster?

A. Two
B. Three
C. One
D. None

Verify the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
ABADABEFDADCBAADAB

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“The Associate VMware Security exam tests a candidate’s awareness of VMware’s security solution and the candidate’s ability to provide entry-level support for the security features of NSX-T Data Center, Workspace ONE, and Carbon Black Cloud.” https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/certification/vmware-vcta-sec-exam-prep-guide.pdf

VMware 1V0-81.20 Exam PDF

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Please take the online mode exam to verify your ability, and the answer will be announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

In a Workspace ONE deployment, Per App Tunnel uses the Native Platform API for which platforms?

A. iOS and Android only
B. iOS, Android, MacOS and Windows
C. iOS and MacOS only
D. Android and Windows only

 

QUESTION 2

What is the term used to describe a type of social engineering attack aimed at a specific person or specific type of
person?

A. Phishing
B. Whaling
C. Tailgating
D. Spear Phishing

 

QUESTION 3

Which VMware application enrolls an endpoint into Workspace ONE?

A. Workspace ONE Web
B. CB Defense Sensor
C. VMware Horizon Client
D. Workspace ONE Intelligent Hub

 

QUESTION 4

In VMware Carbon Black Cloud, which reputations have the highest priority during analysis?

A. Known Priority
B. Trusted Allow List
C. Company Allow List
D. Ignore

 

QUESTION 5

Which three common mitigations for social engineering attacks? (Choose three.)

A. user training
B. filtering Email attachments
C. update Antivirus software
D. remove applications
E. blocking execution of suspicious files

 

QUESTION 6

In VMware Carbon Black Cloud, what is the search field you would use when searching for a command line?

A. command_line:
B. full_cmdline:
C. process_cmdline:
D. process_commandline:

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Carbon-Black-Cloud/services/carbon-black-cloud-userguide.pdf (29)

 

QUESTION 7

DRAG DROP
Match each Workspace ONE Intelligence Security Risk Module tab on the left with its description on the right by
dragging the tab\\’s name into the correct box.
Select and Place:

vmware 1v0-81.20 free dumps q7

Correct Answer:

vmware 1v0-81.20 free dumps q7-1

 

QUESTION 8

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Cyber Kill events on the left into their proper sequential order on the right.
Select and Place:

vmware 1v0-81.20 free dumps q8

Correct Answer:

vmware 1v0-81.20 free dumps q8-1

 

 

QUESTION 9

Which shell command line syntax represents less suspicious danger than the others?

A. sc create
B. -Enc
C. clear
D. net user

 

QUESTION 10

Which option would be considered an example of a Hardware Based Exploit?

A. SQL Injection
B. Social Engineering
C. Jail Breaking
D. Denial of Service

Reference: https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/what-is-jailbreaking

 

QUESTION 11

When considering the Device Details page in Workspace ONE UEM, what three sub menus can you check for changes
in compliance? (Choose three.)

A. Profiles
B. Troubleshooting
C. Updates
D. Status History
E. Compliance

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/2011/WS1_UEM_Managing_Devices.pdf

 

QUESTION 12

When using VMware Carbon Black Live Response, what command will show all active processes?

A. dir
B. list
C. ls
D. ps

 

QUESTION 13

Least Privilege is a common method for minimizing the risk of what kind of threat?

A. Insider Threats
B. Spear Phishing
C. Distributed Denial of Service
D. Man in the Middle

Reference: https://www.beyondtrust.com/blog/entry/what-is-least-privilege

Publish the answer

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AADBACEDIMAGEIMAGECCADEBA

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VMware 1V0-81.20 Exam PDF

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[New in November] VMware 5V0-21.21 exam dumps and online practice questions

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VMware has a lot of certification exam questions. You can get all the latest and most popular exam series of VMware exam questions on this site. We will continue to update all exam questions and answers in the future.

The VMware 5V0-21.21 shared today are new exam questions in 2021. You can participate in practice tests and get free exam PDFs on this site. Or directly enter the VMware 5V0-21.21 dumps channel https://www.leads4pass.com/5v0-21-21.html (Total Questions: 50 Q&A), lead4pass 5V0-21.21 dumps have complete exam questions and answers,
All questions and answers are updated throughout the year to ensure that they are valid. You can choose PDF or VCE to help you successfully pass the exam.

Next, please participate in the VMware 5V0-21.21 test to test your strength

VMware 5V0-21.21 free practice questions

All exam answers are available at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

Upon investigating a workload performance issue, a vSAN administrator observed a high backend IOPs on a vSAN cluster.

Which two causes explain this behavior? (Choose two.)

A. The cluster DRS threshold has been set to Aggressive.
B. There is a vSAN node failure.
C. The vSAN Resync throttling is enabled.
D. The object repair timer value has been increased.
E. The vSAN policy protection level has changed from FTT=0 to FTT=1.

Reference: https://core.vmware.com/resource/troubleshooting-vsan-performance#_Toc536646878

 

QUESTION 2

An administrator has been tasked to reboot a node in an encrypted vSAN cluster.

The vSAN disk groups on that node become locked after rebooting the node.

Which step should be performed to exit the locked state?

A. Manually replace the Host Encryption Key (HEK) of each affected host.
B. Restore the communication with the KMS server, and re-establish the trust relationship.
C. Replace the caching device in each affected disk group.
D. Run /etc/init.d/vsanvpd restart to rescan the VASA providers.

 

QUESTION 3

A 4-node vSAN cluster is configured with an erasure coding storage policy.

The Ensure Accessibility maintenance mode was selected.

While performing the maintenance, a second node fails.

What will be the impact on the vSAN cluster?

A. There will be no impact on performance.
B. The VMs will no longer be accessible.
C. The performance will be degraded.
D. The VMs will be in a suspended state.

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.7/com.vmware.vsphere.virtualsan.doc/GUID521EA4BCE411-47D4-899A-5E0264469866.html

 

QUESTION 4

Due to the success of the recently deployed developer-only private cloud solution, a company has a new requirement to at least double the usable capacity in their all-flash vSAN cluster.

The vSAN cluster is deployed into a co-located datacenter that is owned by a third-party hosting company.

The hosting company charges a fixed monthly cost for rack space and power consumption.

The service owner has been given a limited budget for additional hardware purchases, but not for on-going co-location costs.

The current vSAN cluster has the following configuration: 10 vSAN Nodes with 2 CPUs (20 cores), 512 GB RAM 1 Disk Group per vSAN node

-1 x 400 GB
-4 x 1.8 TB

De-duplication and Compression is enabled.

vSAN Capacity is currently:

-Total: 72 TB
-Usable: ~40 TB (FTT1/RAID1) and ~60 TB (FTT1/RAID5).

As a result of any action taken, the service owner would like to ensure that overall availability of the vSAN cluster is increased.

Which two recommendations meet the requirement to increase capacity while maintaining service availability? (Choose
two.)

A. Install an additional 400 GB SSD and 4 x 1.8 TB SSDs per vSAN node.
B. Update the existing Disk Group, and claim the newly installed drives for each node.
C. Create a new Disk Group, and claim the newly installed cache and capacity SSD drives for each node.
D. Install an additional 3 x 1.8 TB SSDs per vSAN node.
E. Replace existing SSDs with an 800 GB SSD and 4 x 3.8 TB SSDs per vSAN node.

 

QUESTION 5

An administrator is planning to deploy workloads on a six node vSAN cluster, and all nodes are distributed equally
across three racks.

Which action is required to ensure that the workload VMs remain compliant with the default vSAN policy after acomplete rack failure?

A. Add an additional rack with two hosts, and configure vSAN with four fault domains and FTT=1 (erasure coding).
B. Add two additional hosts per rack, and configure vSAN with three fault domains and FTT=1.
C. Add an additional host per rack, and configure vSAN with three fault domains and FTT=2.
D. Add an additional rack with two hosts, and configure vSAN with four fault domains and FTT=1 (mirroring).

 

QUESTION 6

An administrator is setting up vSAN file services on a vSAN cluster.

Which two security policies on the distributed port groups are automatically enabled in the process? (Choose two.)

A. Forged Transmits
B. Promiscuous Mode
C. DVFiltering
D. Jumbo Frames
E. MacLearning

Reference: https://www.yellow-bricks.com/2020/04/15/vsan-file-services-considerations/

 

QUESTION 7

In a stretched vSAN cluster, how is Read Locality established after fail over to the secondary site?

A. 100% of the reads comes from vSAN hosts on the local site
B. 50% of the reads comes from vSAN hosts on the local site
C. 100% of the reads comes from vSAN hosts on the remote site
D. 50% of the reads comes from vSAN hosts on the remote site

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/products/vsan/vmware-virtual-san-6.1-stretched-clusterguide.pdf (45)

 

QUESTION 8

After a vSAN Witness Appliance network configuration, the vSAN administrator notices that vSAN traffic flows from vmk0 (Management Traffic) rather than vmk1 (vSAN Traffic).

Which step should be taken to resolve this issue?

A. Configure vmk0 with IP address on the same range as that of vmk1.
B. Tag the vmk0 for vSAN traffic.
C. Configure vmk1 with IP address on the different network than that of vmk0.
D. Tag the vmk1 for Witness traffic.

If both vmk0 and vmk1 are configured on the same range, a multihoming condition will occur and vSAN traffic will flow from vmk0, rather than vmk1.

Reference: http://www.vmwarearena.com/vsan-stretched-cluster-how-to-configure-vsan-witnessappliance/

 

QUESTION 9

An organization has two vSAN clusters managed by the same vCenter Server, each providing 100TB of storage. The
first cluster runs at 75% of its storage capacity, and the second cluster runs at 50% of its storage capacity.

The company also has the following:

An iSCSI array of 300TB. which runs at 76% of its capacity A NAS system of 200TB, which runs at 10% of its capacity A
Fiber channel (FC) array of 300TB, which runs at 80% of its capacity. The administrator is asked to add an additional 25TB of storage to the first cluster. The administrator is also made aware that there is no budget to purchase new hardware and that the vSAN Storage Policy Based Management must be kept in place.

Which storage option will work for this use case?

A. Create an HCI Mesh using the first cluster\\’s datastore.
B. Obtain additional free capacity from the existing NAS storage.
C. Obtain additional free capacity from the existing FC storage.
D. Create an HCI Mesh using the second cluster\\’s datastore.

 

QUESTION 10

An administrator is tasked to create a custom storage policy for workloads and is including additional disk stripes while defining the storage policy.

What is the main purpose of this practice?

A. To increase available storage space
B. To set a failure tolerance
C. To improve performance
D. To reconstruct corrupted data

 

QUESTION 11

A company has engaged a consultant to upgrade an existing vSAN cluster to vSAN 7.0 U1. The company wants to ensure that the same vSAN process can be used in the future.

During the discovery phase, the consultant found the following information about the existing environment:
The vCenter Server is currently version 7.0.

The vSAN Cluster has the following configuration:

-vSAN version: 7.0
-Number of vSAN nodes: 6
-Encryption: enabled
-Deduplication and Compression: enabled
-Fault Domains: 1
-vSAN Capacity Utilization: 60% Each vSAN node has the following configuration:
-ESXi version: VMware vSphere 7.0
-CPU: 2 processors, 20 cores
-RAM: 1024GB RAM.
-Disk: 2 Cache SSDs and 6 Capacity SSDs
-Network: 4 x 10GbE All current hardware (which is from a single vendor) is listed on the vSAN Compatibility Guide for
vSAN 7.

Which three recommendations should the consultant make to ensure that the vSAN cluster upgrade is completed?
(Choose three.)

A. Upgrade all vSAN nodes to VMware vSphere 7.0 U1 using the baselines capability within VMware Update Manager
(VUM).
B. Disable vSAN Encryption before starting the upgrade process.
C. Upgrade all vSAN nodes to VMware vSphere 7.0 U1 using the images capability within VMware Update Manager
(VUM).
D. Set VMware Distributed Resource Scheduling (DRS) to partially automated.
E. Upgrade to VMware vCenter Server 7.0 U1.
F. Choose the Allow reduced redundancy option.

 

QUESTION 12

An administrator managing a vSAN cluster of six-nodes with policy FTT-2/RAID-6 decided to put one of the nodes in
maintenance mode using the “Full-data migration” option.

What will happen after this action is taken?

A. The host will enter in maintenance mode and the data will remain accessible until the host exits maintenance mode.
B. The system will prompt to add an additional host to the cluster in order to preserve the policy compliance.
C. The host will enter in maintenance mode and only data with no redundancy will remain accessible.
D. The host will enter into maintenance mode if both components of a certain object are residing on that host, then one of the components will be moved to another available host.

Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/virtualblocks/2020/02/06/what-happens-vsan-host-in-maintenancemode/

 

QUESTION 13

An administrator is tasked with migrating a VMware Horizon View environment that is currently running on an NFS
Datastore to VMware vSAN.

Which Horizon configuration option will not be available when configuring vSAN in Horizon View?

A. Instant Clones
B. Linked Clones
C. Storage Tiers
D. Storage Profiles

Announce the answer:

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CEBACDDABAABBAAC

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