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CCNP Enterprise 350-401 dumps

Live update CCNP Enterprise 350-401 dumps with PDF and VCE from Lead4Pass, get real valid 350-401 dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/350-401.html (866 Q&A).
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Read free CCNP Enterprise 350-401 dumps exam questions and answers online:

New Question 1:

If a client\’s radio device receives a signal strength of -67 dBm and the noise floor is -85 dBm, what is the SNR value?

A. 15 dB

B. 16 dB

C. 18 dB

D. 20 dB

Correct Answer: C


New Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 dumps questions 2

An engineer must allow R1 to advertise the 192 168.1 0/24 network to R2 R1 must perform this action without sending OSPF packets to SW1 Which command set should be applied?

new 350-401 dumps questions 2-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

Correct Answer: B


New Question 3:

Which method creates an EEM applet policy that is registered with EEM and runs on demand or manually?

A. event manager applet OnDemand event register action 1.0 Syslog priority critical msg \’ This is a message from ondemand\’

B. event manager applet OnDemand event manual action 1.0 Syslog priority critical msg \’This is a message from ondemand\’

C. event manager applet OnDemand event none action 1.0 Syslog priority critical msg \’This is a message from ondemand\’

D. event manager applet ondemand action 1.0 Syslog priority critical msg \’ This is a message from ondemand\’

Correct Answer: C

An EEM policy is an entity that defines an event and the actions to be taken when that event occurs. There are two types of EEM policies: an applet or a script.

An applet is a simple form of policy that is defined within the CLI configuration. answer \’ event manager applet OnDemand event register action 1.0 Syslog priority critical msg `This is a message from ondemand\’ <=” p=” style=”box-sizing: border-box;”> There are two ways to manually run an EEM policy.

EEM usually schedules and runs policies on the basis of an event specification that is contained within the policy itself.

The event no command allows EEM to identify an EEM policy that can be manually triggered.

To run the policy, use either the action policy command in applet configuration mode or the event manager run command in privileged EXEC mode.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/eem/configuration/xe-3s/eem-xe-3s-book/eem-policy-cli.html


New Question 4:

Which action is performed by Link Management Protocol In a Cisco StackWise Virtual domain?

A. it determines if the hardware Is compatible to form the StackWise Virtual domain.

B. It determines which switch becomes active or standby.

C. It discovers the StackWise domain and brings up SVL interfaces.

D. It rejects any unidirectional link traffic forwarding.

Correct Answer: B

The Link Management Protocol (LMP) performs the following functions: + Verifies link integrity by establishing bidirectional traffic forwarding, and rejects any unidirectional links + Exchanges periodic hellos to monitor and maintain the health of the links + Negotiates the version of StackWise Virtual header between the switches StackWise Virtual link role resolution

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/ products/collateral/switches/catalyst-9000/nb-06-cat-9k-stackwp-cte-en.html


New Question 5:

A Cisco DNA Center REST API sends a PUT to the /DNA/intent/API/v1/network-device endpoint A response code of 504 is received What does the code indicate?

A. The response timed out based on a configured interval

B. The user does not have the authorization to access this endpoint.

C. The username and password are not correct

D. The web server is not available

Correct Answer: A


New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 dumps questions 6

Which command set is needed to configure and verify router R3 to measure the response time from router R3 to the file server located in the data center?

A. IP SLA 6 ICMP-echo 10.0.1.3 source-IP 10.0.0.3

frequency 300

IP SLA schedule 6 life forever start-time now

show IP SLA statistics 6

B. IP SLA 6 ICMP-echo 172.29.139.134 source-IP 172.29.139.132 frequency 300 ip sla schedule 6 start-time now

C. IP SLA 6 ICMP-echo 172.29.139.134 source-IP 172.29.139.132 frequency 300 ip sla schedule 6 Start-time now shows IP protocol

D. IP SLA 6 ICMP-echo 10.0.1.3 source-IP 10.0.0.3 frequency 300 ip sla schedule 6 life forever start-time now show IP protocol

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/smb/switches/cisco-550x-series-stackable-managedswitches/smb57


New Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must permit traffic from these networks and block all other traffic An informational log message should be triggered when traffic enters from these prefixes Which access list must be used?

new 350-701 dumps 7

A. access-list acl_subnets permit IP 10.0.32.0 0 0.0.255 log

B. access-list acl_subn*ls permit IP 10.0.32.0 0.0.7.255 log

C. access-list acl_subnets permit IP 10.0.32.0 0.0.7.255 access-list acl_subnets deny IP any log

D. access-list acl_subnets permit IP 10.0.32.0 255.255.248.0 log

Correct Answer: B


New Question 8:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the tools from the left onto the agent types on the right.

Select and Place:

new 350-401 dumps questions 8

Correct Answer:

new 350-401 dumps questions 8-1

New Question 9:

Which method should an engineer use to deal with a long-standing contention issue between any two VMs on the same host?

A. Adjust the resource reservation limits

B. Live migrate the VM to another host

C. Reset the VM

D. Reset the host

Correct Answer: A


New Question 10:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the QoS components on the right.

Select and Place:

new 350-401 dumps questions 10

Correct Answer:

new 350-401 dumps questions 10-1

New Question 11:

Which access point mode allows a supported AP to function like a WLAN client would, associating and identifying client connectivity issues?

A. client mode

B. SE-connect mode

C. sensor mode

D. sniffer mode

Correct Answer: C

As these wireless networks grow especially in remote facilities where IT professionals may not always be on-site, it becomes even more important to be able to quickly identify and resolve potential connectivity issues ideally before the users complain or notice connectivity degradation.

To address these issues we have created Cisco\’s Wireless Service Assurance and a new AP mode called “sensor” mode.

Cisco\’s Wireless Service Assurance platform has three components, namely, Wireless PerformanceAnalytics, Real-time Client Troubleshooting, and Proactive Health Assessment.

Using a supported AP-ordedicated sensor the device can actually function much like a WLAN client would associating and identifying client connectivity issues within the network in real time without requiring an IT or technician to be on site.

Reference: https://content.cisco.com/chapter.sjs?uri=/searchable/chapter/content/dam/en/us/td/docs/wireless/ controller/technotes/8-5/b_Cisco_Aironet_Sensor_Deployment_Guide.html.xml


New Question 12:

What is the function of a fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment?

A. To collect traffic flow information toward external networks

B. To connect the Cisco SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks

C. To attach and register clients to the fabric

D. To handle an ordered list of IP addresses and locations for endpoints in the fabric.

Correct Answer: B


New Question 13:

Which element enables the communication between guest VMs within a virtualized environment?

A. hypervisor

B. vSwitch

C. virtual router

D. pNIC

Correct Answer: B

Each VM is provided with a virtual NIC (vNIC) that is connected to the virtual switch. Multiple NICs can connect to a single vSwitch, allowing VMs on a physical host to communicate with one another at layer 2 without having to go out to a physical switch.


New Question 14:

Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing are true? (Choose two)

A. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the RIB

B. It combines the source IP address subnet mask to create a hash for each destination

C. Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over a maximum of two destinations

D. It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash for each destination

E. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table

Correct Answer: DE

Cisco IOS software basically supports two modes of CEF load balancing: On a per-destination or perpacket basis.

For per-destination load balancing a hash is computed out of the source and destination IP address (-> Answer \’ It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash for each destination\’ is correct).

This hash points to exactly one of the adjacency entries in the adjacency table (-> Answer \’ Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table\’ is correct), providing that the same path is used for all packets with this source/destination address pair.

If per-packet load balancing is used the packets are distributed round-robin over the available paths. In either case, the information in the FIB and adjacency tables provide all the necessary forwarding information, just like for non-load balancing operations.

The number of paths used is limited by the number of entries the routing protocol puts in the routing table, the default in IOS is 4 entries for most IP routing protocols with the exception of BGP, where it is one entry.

The maximum number that can be configured in 6 different paths -> Answer \’ Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over a maximum of two destinations\’ is not correct.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/ en/US/products/hw/modules/ps2033/prod_technical_reference 09186a00800afeb7.html


New Question 15:

If a VRRP master router fails, which router is selected as the new master router?

A. a router with the highest priority

B. a router with the highest loopback address

C. a router with the lowest loopback address

D. router with the lowest priority

Correct Answer: A

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CCNP Collaboration exam dumps sharing from Lead4Pass

Learn about the CCNP Collaboration certification exam:

  1. What is CCNP Collaboration Certification
  2. What are CCNP Collaboration exam dumps
  3. Is CCNP Collaboration Certification Valuable
  4. How to Get CCNP Collaboration Certification
  5. CCNP Collaboration 300-815 CLACCM Exam Question Examples
  6. Summarize

What is CCNP Collaboration Certification?

If you are a big fan of Cisco certification, then you must know the importance of Cisco certification. Cisco has changed a lot since 2020. If you don’t know it yet, you can check out an article I published in 2020 about Cisco changing 2020, This article I am in 2022 A new update has also been made in the year, and I believe it will help you.

CCNP Collaboration certification is a new certification program after 2020. It has replaced some old exam items and added new items.

All in all, the CCNP Collaboration certification is divided into two parts: one is the core exam and the other is the concentration exam, but to get the CCNP Collaboration certification you first need to get the core exam (350-801 CLCOR) and then choose according to your needs and interests
A centralized exam program of your choice, each exam is certified by an individual expert, so your accomplishments along the way are recognized.

What are CCNP Collaboration exam dumps?

First of all, let me talk about what is Exam dumps, Brain dumps, or simply Dumps. Exam Dumps is a long-tail word for exam materials, which stands for the abbreviation of two format files (PDF file and VCE exam engine).

Many candidates need to take multiple certification exams in a short period of time, and it is conceivable that this is difficult, so Exam Dumps appeared, which helps candidates to learn quickly, improve their study plan and exam focus, and help candidates to be able to More confident to stand out successfully.

CCNP Collaboration exam dumps contain core exam content and focused exam content:

350-801 exam dumps (core exam): https://www.lead4pass.com/350-801.html

300-810 exam dumps

300-815 exam dumps

300-820 exam dumps

300-825 exam dumps

300-830 exam dumps

300-835 exam dumps

Is CCNP Collaboration Certification Valuable?

At the beginning of 2020, great changes have taken place in the world. I believe everyone knows that it is about everyone. This is not the focus of our expression, but it is related to our lives. So what kind of work is the most enviable in this era? Become a doctor, a teacher, a soldier, a lawyer,
Or other… These are all good careers, but I recommend getting a certification in an industry that helps us resist risks, increase income, and improve our living standards, which is the greatest value.

Cisco certification is a popular certification in the industry, and there are countless participants, which also shows its value. CCNP Collaboration certification is a large branch of Cisco certification and is a very popular certification program, and success in any of them It will help you improve your own value.

How to Get CCNP Collaboration Certification?

Candidates who want to get CCNP Collaboration certification must take the CCNP Collaboration certification exam, as I said above, you need to pass the core exam (350-801 CLCOR), and then select some of the focused exam items you are interested in:

300-810 CLICA Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications (CLICA)
300-815 CLACCM Implementing Cisco Advanced Call Control and Mobility Services (CLACCM)
300-820 CLCEI Implementing Cisco Collaboration Cloud and Edge Solutions (CLCEI)
300-825 CLCNF Implementing Cisco Collaboration Conferencing (CLCNF)
300-835 CLAUTO Implementing Automation for Cisco Collaboration Solutions (CLAUI)

If you have enough time to prepare for an exam, then you should study hard, refer to online materials, then take the exam with full energy and pray for success.

I have introduced CCNP Collaboration Exam dumps above, it is suitable for candidates of any learning situation, candidates can seriously practice all exam questions and answers provided by Lead4Pass and can guarantee 100% passing the exam.

CCNP Collaboration 300-815 CLACCM Exam Question Example:

I share 300-815 CLACCM exam questions to help you understand the exam dump provided by Lead4pass.

NEW QUESTION 1:

An administrator is asked to configure egress call routing by applying globalization and localization on Cisco UCM.

How should this be accomplished?

A. Localize the calling and called numbers to E.164 format and globalize the called number in the gateway.

B. Globalize the calling and called numbers to E.164 format and localize the called number in the gateway.

C. Localize the calling and called numbers to PSTN format and globalize the calling and called numbers in the gateway.

D. Globalize the calling and called numbers to PSTN format and localize the calling number in the gateway.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

300-815 exam questions 2

While troubleshooting call failures on the Cisco Unified Border Element, an administrator notices that messages are being sent to the service provider, but there is no response.

The administrator later learns that this SIP provider does not support PRACK.

Which header should be removed from the SIP message to resolve this issue?

A. Require: 100rel

B. Content-Type: application/SDP

C. Contact:

D. Content-Disposition: session;handling=required

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3:

What is the first preference condition matched in a SIP-enabled incoming dial peer?

A. incoming uri

B. target carrier-id

C. answer-address

D. incoming called-number

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip-voip/211306-In-Depth-Explanation-of-Cisco-IOS-and-IO.html#anc8

NEW QUESTION 4:

An engineer must configure a Cisco UCM hunt list so that calls to users in a line group are routed to the first idle user and then the next.

Which distribution algorithm must be configured to accomplish this task?

A. broadcast

B. top down

C. longest idle time

D. circular

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/4_0_1/ccmcfg/b03lngrp.html

NEW QUESTION 5:

An engineer must implement call restrictions to toll-free numbers using a class of restrictions in a branch of Cisco UCME.

In which two places is the coolest incoming or cor incoming command configured? (Choose two.)

A. “voice register pool ” configuration mode

B. “ephone-dn ” configuration mode

C. “dial-peer cor custom ” configuration mode

D. “voice register global ” configuration mode

E. “telephony-service ” configuration mode

Correct Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 6:

What is a description of RTP timestamps or sequence numbers?

A. The sequence number is used to detect losses.

B. Timestamps increase by the time “carrying” by a packet.

C. Sequence numbers increase by four for each RTP packet transmitted.

D. The timestamp is used to place the incoming audio and video packets in the correct timing order (playout delay compensation).

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cs.columbia.edu/~hgs/rtp/faq.html

NEW QUESTION 7:

A customer has multisite deployments with a globalized dial plan. The customer wants to route PSTN calls via the gateway assigned to each site.

Which two actions will fulfill the requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Create one global route list for PSTN calls that points to one global PSTN route group.

B. Create a route group that has all the gateways and associate it with the device pool of every site.

C. Assign one route group as a local route group in the device pool of the corresponding site.

D. Create one route group for each site and one global route list for PSTN calls that point to the local route group.

E. Create a hunt group and assign it to each side route pattern.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/8x/uc8x/dialplan.html

NEW QUESTION 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

300-815 exam questions 8

Users report that outbound PSTN calls from phones registered to Cisco UCM are not completed. The local service provider in North America has a requirement to receive calls in a 10-digit format.

The Cisco UCM sends the calls to the Cisco Unified Border Element router in a globalized E.164 format. There is an outbound dial peer on Cisco Unified Border Element configured to send the calls to the provider.

The dial-peer has a voice translation profile applied in the correct direction but an incorrect voice translation rule is applied.

Which rule modifies DNIS in the format that the provider is expecting?

A. rule 1 /^+([^1].*)/ /011\1/

B. rule 1/^+1([2-9]..[2-9]……$)/ /\1/

C. rule 1 /^([2-9]..[2-9]……$)/ /\1/

D. rule 1 /^+1([2-9]..[2-9]……$)/ /\0/

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9:

Which two types of distribution algorithms are within a line group? (Choose two.)

A. random

B. circular

C. highest preference

D. top down

E. bottom up

Correct Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 10:

What are two configuration features of the Standard Local Route Group deployment? (Choose two.)

A. is associated with the route group

B. is associated only with the route list

C. chooses the route group that is configured under the device pool of the calling-party device

D. chooses the route group that is configured under the device pool of the called-party device

E. is assigned directly to the route pattern

Correct Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 11:

What is the relationship between partition, time schedule, and the time period in Time-of-Day routing in Cisco UCM?

A. A partition can have multiple time schedules assigned. A time schedule contains one or more time periods.

B. A partition can have a one-time schedule assigned. A time schedule contains one or more time periods.

C. A partition can have multiple time schedules assigned. A time schedule contains only one time period.

D. A partition can have a one-time schedule assigned. A time schedule contains only one time period.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

300-815 exam questions 12

An administrator is troubleshooting a problem in which some outbound calls from an internal network to the Internet telephony service provider are not getting connected, but some others connect successfully.

The firewall team found that some call attempts on port 5060 came from an unrecognized IP that has not been defined in the firewall rule.

What should the administrator configure in the Cisco Unified Border Element to fix this issue?

A. use of port 5061 for SIP secure

B. access list allowing the firewall IP

C. bind signaling and media to the loopback interface

D. IP prefix list to filter the unwanted IP address

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13:

Why would RTP traffic that is sent from the originating endpoint fails to be received on the far endpoint?

A. The far-end connection data (c=) in the SDP was overwritten by deep packet inspection in the call signaling path.

B. Cisco UCM invoked media termination point resources.

C. The RTP traffic is arriving beyond the jitter buffer on the receiving end.

D. A firewall in the media path is blocking TCP ports 16384-32768.

Correct Answer: C


Download CCNP Collaboration 300-815 CLACCM Exam Questions and Answers:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1jW9EETiUpbWRqfrjNScwp5y7i8c_hiyg/

Candidates are welcome to download CCNP Collaboration 300-815 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-815.html (118 Q&A)

Summarize:

CCNP Collaboration certification is a very popular exam program in 2020 so far, and successfully passing any of them can help candidates improve their quality of life. Candidates can use the CCNP Collaboration certification exam dump provided by Lead4pass Save learning and practice and ensure success rate.

Latest updated CCNP Security 300-725 dumps from Lead4Pass

Candidates use the latest updated CCNP Security 300-725 dumps from Lead4Pass: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-725.html, to help you get past the hurdle and successfully pass the 300-725 SWSA exam.

Lead4Pass 300-725 dumps provide PDF files and a VCE exam engine to help you practice 300-725 SWSA exam questions quickly and easily. The latest updated 300-725 dumps contain 60 exam questions and answers, verified by IT experts to be true and effective.

Share 13 CCNP Security 300-725 dumps PDF:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1AGxV1yasc5xeNeGayahQYmy0EtICiLRy/

Read CCNP Security 300-725 dumps exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsRelease timeExam nameFromPrevious issue
15Sep 20, 2022Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (SWSA)Lead4Pass2021.9.14
New Question 1:

What causes authentication failures on a Cisco WSA when LDAP is used for authentication?

A. when the passphrase contains only 5 characters

B. when the passphrase contains characters that are not 7-bit ASCI

C. when the passphrase contains one of the following characters `@ # $ % ^\’

D. when the passphrase contains 50 characters

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_appendix_011001.html


New Question 2:
CCNP Security 300-725 dumps exam q2

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the transaction log is true?

A. The log does not have a date and time

B. The proxy had the content and did not contact other servers

C. The transaction used TCP destination port 8187

D. The AnalizeSuspectTraffic policy group was applied to the transaction

Correct Answer: D


New Question 3:

Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)

A. X-Forwarded-For

B. high availability

C. web cache

D. via

E. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_0100.html


New Question 4:

Which two configuration options are available on a Cisco WSA within a decryption policy? (Choose two.)

A. Pass Through

B. Warn

C. Decrypt

D. Allow

E. Block

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01011.html


New Question 5:

Which information in the HTTP request is used to determine if it is subject to the referrer exceptions feature in the Cisco WSA?

A. protocol

B. version

C. header

D. payload

Correct Answer: C

Requests for embedded content usually include the address of the site from which the request originated (this is known as the “referer” field in the request\’s HTTP header). This header information is used to determine the categorization of the referred content.

Reference https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01100.html


New Question 6:

What is used to configure WSA as an explicit proxy?

A. IP Spoofing from the router

B. Network settings from user browser

C. WCCP redirection from the firewall

D. Auto redirection using PBR from the switch

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/117940-qa-wsa-00.html


New Question 7:

What is the benefit of integrating Cisco Cognitive Threat Analytics with a Cisco WSA?

A. It adds additional information to the Cisco WSA reports

B. It adds additional malware protection to the Cisco WSA

C. It provides the ability to use artificial intelligence to block viruses

D. It reduces time to identify threats in the network

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.ironportstore.com/datasheets/data_sheet_c78-729630.pdf


New Question 8:

What are all of the available options for configuring an exception to blocking for referred content?

A. all embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

B. selected embedded/referred except, all embedded/referred, and selected embedded/referred

C. selected embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

D. all embedded/referred, selected embedded/referred, and all embedded/referred except

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01001.html (procedure)


New Question 9:

Which two parameters are mandatory to control access to websites with proxy authentication on a Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. External Authentication

B. Identity Enabled Authentication

C. Transparent User Identification

D. Credential Encryption

E. Authentication Realm

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_appendix_010111.html


New Question 10:

What is a valid predefined time range when configuring a Web Tracking query?

A. year

B. minute

C. hour

D. month

Correct Answer: B

Web tracking query uses minute as a predefined time range to track web-related queries.


New Question 11:

When a Cisco WSA is installed with default settings, which port is assigned to the web proxy if the M1 port is used exclusively for management?

A. T1

B. P2

C. T2

D. P1

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-5/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_5_1/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_5_1_chapter_01.html


New Question 12:

Which statement about Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting integration is true?

A. AWSR uses IP addresses to differentiate Cisco WSA deployments

B. AWSR does not require a license to index data

C. AWSR can remove log files after they are indexed

D. AWSR installation is CLI-based on Windows and Red Hat Linux systems

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_7/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_7_0.pdf


New Question 13:

A user browses a company website that is categorized as “Business and Industry” and contains a Facebook post. The user cannot see the Facebook post because the category “Social Networking” is blocked. Which configuration allows the user to see the Facebook post?

CCNP Security 300-725 dumps exam q13

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01001.html


New Question 14:

Which two types of reports are scheduled on the Cisco WSA to analyze traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Layer 3 traffic monitor

B. URL categories

C. host statistics

D. application visibility

E. system capacity

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010101.pdf (8)


New Question 15:

What must be configured first when creating an access policy that matches the Active Directory group?

A. authentication, authorization, and accounting of groups

B. FQDN specification

C. authentication realm

D. authorized groups specification

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/118005-configure-ntlm-00.html

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Free sharing of 15 CCNP Security 300-710 Dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the steps to restore an automatic device registration failure on the standby Cisco FMC from the left into the correct order on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

300-710 dumps questions 1

Correct Answer:

300-710 dumps questions 1-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v62/firepower_management_center_high_availability.html#id_32288


New Question 2:

What is the result of enabling Cisco FTD clustering?

A. For the dynamic routing feature, if the master unit fails, the newly elected master unit maintains all existing connections.

B. Integrated Routing and Bridging are supported on the master unit.

C. Site-to-site VPN functionality is limited to the master unit, and all VPN connections are dropped if the master unit fails.

D. All Firepower appliances can support Cisco FTD clustering.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v64/clustering_for_the_firepower_threat_defense.html


New Question 3:

Which two conditions are necessary for high availability to function between two Cisco FTD devices? (Choose two.)

A. The units must be the same version

B. Both devices can be part of a different group that must be in the same domain when configured within the FMC.

C. The units must be different models if they are part of the same series.

D. The units must be configured only for firewall routed mode.

E. The units must be the same model.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-management-center/212699-configure-ftd-high-availability-on-firep.html


New Question 4:

On the advanced tab under inline set properties, which allows interfaces to emulate a passive interface?

A. transparent inline mode

B. TAP mode

C. strict TCP enforcement

D. propagate link state

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v64/inline_sets_and_passive_interfaces_for_firepower_threat_defense.html


New Question 5:

What are the minimum requirements to deploy a managed device inline?

A. inline interfaces, security zones, MTU, and mode

B. passive interface, MTU, and mode

C. inline interfaces, MTU, and mode

D. passive interface, security zone, MTU, and mode

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/650/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v65/ips_device_deployments_and_configuration.html


New Question 6:

What is the difference between an inline and inline tap on Cisco Firepower?

A. Inline tap mode can send a copy of the traffic to another device.

B. Inline tap mode does full packet capture.

C. Inline mode cannot do SSL decryption.

D. Inline mode can drop malicious traffic.

Correct Answer: A


New Question 7:

With Cisco Firepower Threat Defense software, which interface mode must be configured to passively receive traffic that passes through the appliance?

A. inline set

B. passive

C. routed

D. inline tap

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v64/interface_overview_for_firepower_threat_defense.html


New Question 8:

Which two deployment types support high availability? (Choose two.)

A. transparent

B. routed

C. clustered

D. intra-chassis multi-instance

E. virtual appliance in public cloud

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/610/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v61/firepower_threat_defense_high_availability.html


New Question 9:

Which protocol establishes network redundancy in a switched Firepower device deployment?

A. STP

B. HSRP

C. GLBP

D. VRRP

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v62/firepower_threat_defense_high_availability.html


New Question 10:

Which interface type allows packets to be dropped?

A. passive

B. inline

C. ERSPAN

D. TAP

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-ngfw/200908-configuring-firepower-threat-defense-int.html


New Question 11:

Which Cisco Firepower Threat Defense, which two interface settings are required when configuring a routed interface? (Choose two.)

A. Redundant Interface

B. EtherChannel

C. Speed

D. Media Type

E. Duplex

Correct Answer: CE

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/610/fdm/fptd-fdm-config-guide-610/fptd-fdm-interfaces.html


New Question 12:

Which two dynamic routing protocols are supported in Firepower Threat Defense without using FlexConfig? (Choose two.)

A. EIGRP

B. OSPF

C. static routing

D. IS-IS

E. BGP

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/660/fdm/fptd-fdm-config-guide-660/fptd-fdm-routing.html


New Question 13:

Which policy rule is included in the deployment of a local DMZ during the initial deployment of a Cisco NGFW through the Cisco FMC GUI?

A. a default DMZ policy for which only a user can change the IP addresses.

B. deny IP any

C. no policy rule is included

D. permit IP any

Correct Answer: C


New Question 14:

What are two application layer preprocessors? (Choose two.)

A. CIFS

B. IMAP

C. SSL

D. DNP3

E. ICMP

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v60/Application_Layer_Preprocessors.html


New Question 15:

Which two OSPF routing features are configured in Cisco FMC and propagated to Cisco FTD? (Choose two.)

A. OSPFv2 with IPv6 capabilities

B. virtual links

C. SHA authentication to OSPF packets

D. area boundary router type 1 LSA filtering

E. MD5 authentication to OSPF packets

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v62/ospf_for_firepower_threat_defense.html

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Cisco 300-435 ENAUTO Exam Plan: Using Cisco 300-435 Dumps

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Tips: The answer will be announced at the end of the article

Question 1:

What are two characteristics of RPC API calls? (Choose two.)

A. They can be used only on network devices.

B. They use only UDP for communications.

C. Parameters can be passed to the calls.

D. They must use SSL/TLS.

E. They call a single function or service.

Question 2:

Which two actions do Python virtual environments allow users to perform? (Choose two.)

A. Simplify the CI/CD pipeline when checking a project into a version control system, such as Git.

B. Efficiently port code between different languages, such as JavaScript and Python.

C. Run and simulate other operating systems within a development environment.

D. Quickly create any Python environment for testing and debugging purposes.

E. Quickly create an isolated Python environment with module dependencies.

Question 3:

What are two benefits of leveraging Ansible for automation of Cisco IOS XE Software? (Choose two.)

A. Ansible playbooks are packaged and installed on IOS XE devices for automatic execution when an IOS device reboots.

B. All IOS XE operating systems include Ansible playbooks for basic system administration tasks.

C. It is a device-independent method for automation and can be used with any type of device or operating system.

D. Ansible playbooks can be written from the IOS XE EXEC command line to configure the device itself.

E. It does not require any modules of the software except SSH to be loaded on the network device.

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. The task is to create a Python script to display an alert message when a Meraki MX Security Appliance goes down. The exhibit shows sample data that is received. Which Python snippet displays the device name and the time at which the switch went down?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. The goal is to write a Python script to automatically send a message to an external messaging application when a rogue AP is detected on the network.

The message should include the broadcast SSID that is in the alert.

A function called “send_to_application” is created, and this is the declaration:

send_to_application(message)

The exhibit also shows the data that is received by the application and stored in the variable return_val.

Which Python code completes the task?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 6:

Which two features are foundations of a software-defined network instead of a traditional network? (Choose two.)

A. control plane and data plane are tightly coupled

B. build upon a robust software stack

C. requires device-by-device-level configurations

D. automated through expressed intent to a software controller

E. requires significant physical hardware resources

Question 7:

A new project called “device_status” must be stored in a central Git repository called “device_status” with the first file named “device_status.py”.

The Git repository is created using the account python_programmer. Which set of commands inserts the project into Git?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 8:

What are two characteristics of synchronous calls to APIs? (Choose two.)

A. They can be used only with certain programming languages.

B. They make your application less portable, so asynchronous calls are preferred.

C. They can add perceived latency to your application if data is not received.

D. They block until a response is returned from the servers.

E. They do not block while waiting for the API to be processed.

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result when running the Python scripts?

A. s1

B. s2

C. s1, s2, s3

D. s3

Question 10:

An engineer stores source code in a Git repository and is ready to develop a new feature. The production release is stored in the “master” branch.

Which commands create the new feature in a separate branch called “feature” and check out the new version?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of YANG container is described by the JSON instance provided?

A. interface-configurations

B. active

C. interface-name

D. description

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. Which NETCONF protocol operation is used to interact with the YANG model?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. How many YANG models does the NETCONF operation interact with?

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four

Question 14:

Which statement describe the difference between OpenConfig and native YANG data models?

A. Native models are designed to be independent of the underlying platform and are developed by vendors and standards bodies, such as the IETF.

B. Native models are developed by individual developers and designed to apply configurations on platforms.

C. OpenConfig models are developed by vendors and designed to integrate to features or configurations that are relevant only to that platform.

D. Native models are developed by vendors and designed to integrate to features or configurations that are relevant only to that platform.

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer creates a Python script using RESTCONF to display hostname information. The code must be completed so that it can be tested. Which string completes the highlighted areas in the exhibit?

A. yang-data+json

B. yang +json

C. yang.data+json

D. JSON

Verify the answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:ACDEACBABDACEBCAAAAA

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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-910
Exam Name: Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms (DEVOPS)
Certification: Cisco Certified DevNet Professional
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD
Number of Questions: 55-65
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Cisco 300-910 exam questions online practice test:

Tips: Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

Which two practices help make the security of an application a more integral part of the software development lifecycle? (Choose two.)

A. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline that runs a dynamic code analysis tool during the pipeline execution.

B. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline that runs a static code analysis tool during the pipeline execution.

C. Use only software modules that are written by the internal team.

D. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline to modify the release plan so that updated versions of the software are made available more often.

E. Ensure that the code repository server has enabled drive encryption and stores the keys on a Trusted Platform Module or Hardware Security Module.

Question 2:

A CI/CD pipeline that builds infrastructure components using Terraform must be designed. A step in the pipeline is needed that checks for errors in any of the .tf files in the working directory. It also checks the existing state of the defined infrastructure.

Which command does the pipeline run to accomplish this goal?

A. terraform plan

B. terraform check

C. terraform fmt

D. terraform validate

Question 3:

Configuration changes to the production network devices are performed by a CI/CD pipeline. The code repository and the CI tool are running on separate servers. Some configuration changes are pushed to the code repository, but the pipeline did not start.

Why did the pipeline fail to start?

A. The CI server was not configured as a Git remote for the repository.

B. The webhook call from the code repository did not reach the CI server.

C. Configuration changes must be sent to the pipeline, which then updates the repository.

D. The pipeline must be started manually after the code repository is updated.

Question 4:

A new version of an application is being released by creating a separate instance of the application that is running the new code. Only a small portion of the user base will be directed to the new instance until that version has been proven stable.

Which deployment strategy is this example of?

A. recreate

B. blue/green

C. rolling

D. canary

Question 5:

Which description of a canary deployment is true?

A. deployment by accident

B. deployment that is rolled back automatically after a configurable amount of minutes

C. deployment relating to data mining development

D. deployment to a limited set of servers or users

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. What is causing the request code to fail?

A. Rython3 is not compatible with requests.

B. The requests library is not imported.

C. The requests library is not installed.

D. The requests coming into stdin fail because device_ip cannot be parsed.

Question 7:

A DevOps engineer wants to build an application implementation based on the CI/CD pipeline model. Which service should be used to provide hosted continuous service for open and private projects?

A. Ansible

B. pyATS

C. Genie CLI

D. Travis CI

Question 8:

Which two actions help limit the attack surface of your Docker container? (Choose two.)

A. Run only a single service in each container.

B. Run all services in a single image.

C. Use version tags for base images and dependencies.

D. Use Kali Linux as a base image.

E. Download images over HTTPS supporting sites.

Question 9:

A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web server and it must run as an executable. Which command must be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?

A. ENTRYPOINT

B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]

C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]

D. ENTRYPOINT {usr/sbin/apache2ctl}

Question 10:

A Microservices architecture pattern has been applied and the system has been architected as a set of services. Each service is deployed as a set of instances for throughput and availability.

In which two ways are these services packaged and deployed? (Choose two.)

A. Service instances must be isolated from one another.

B. Service must be independently deployable and scalable.

C. Service is written using the same languages, frameworks, and framework versions.

D. Service must be dependent, deployable, and scalable.

E. Service instances do not need to be isolated from one another.

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason for this error message?

A. The required dependencies for the urllib3 module are not installed.

B. The requests module is not installed.

C. The required dependencies for the requests module are not installed.

D. The site-packages directory has been corrupted.

Question 12:

ConfigMap keys have been mapped to different file names using the volumes.configMap.items field. What is the result if a wrong ConfigMap key is specified?

A. The default path is not used.

B. The volume is not created.

C. The volume is created.

D. The volume is created with errors.

Question 13:

What are the two benefits of Infrastructure as Code? (Choose two.)

A. It enables continuous integration.

B. It allows for management control.

C. It ensures consistency.

D. It improves application monitoring.

E. It reduces risk.

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the user doing with Drone in this automated test?

A. testing Alpine Linux versus Ubuntu Linux

B. testing a PostgreSQL DB against multiple architectures

C. testing only the amd64 architecture

D. testing PostgreSQL deployment in an Alpine Linux VM

Question 15:

An interface on a router as a Layer 3 link has been configured to another device by updating an Ansible playbook that is executed via a CI/CD pipeline. The Ansible playbook was written to push the configuration change using the ios_config module.

Which automated test validates that the interface is functioning as it should?

A. Add a pipeline step that runs the playbook a second type. If it does not modify the device on the second run, then the interface is correctly configured.

B. Automated testing is already built in because the playbook execution is successful only after Ansible validates that it applied the change.

C. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the packet flow for the interface.

D. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the show IP interface output so that the operational state can be referenced.

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:AEDCDDBDCEAABBACEDB

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[Updated 2022] Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 exam question and answers

QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to config-router CB-R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with CB-R2.

Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

A. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

B. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

C. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

D. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.252 area 0
network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Correct Answer: B

 
QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

How many JSON objects are represented?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two)

A. R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out

B. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255

C. R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in

D. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127

E. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any

Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2.126?

A. 10.165 20.126
B. 10.165.20.146
C. 10.165.20.166
D. 10.165 20.226

Correct Answer: D

……

[Updated 2022]: Get more free CCNA 200-301 dumps questions and labs

Latest updates Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)
A. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.
C. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)
A. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the
link.
B. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.
C. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.
D. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.
E. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
A. 10.10.1.10
B. 10.10.10.20
C. 172.16.15.10
D. 192.168.0.1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose
two.)
A. input errors
B. frame
C. giants
D. CRC
E. runts
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROPlead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5-2

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites.
Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach
one another? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.
B. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.
C. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.
D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.
E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down.
B. After spanning tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.
C. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.
D. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
A. Configure VTY access.
B. Configure the version of SSH.
C. Assign a DNS domain name.
D. Create a user with a password.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
A. allocation nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
B. disabling TCP so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices
C. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps
D. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)
A. one-to-many communication model
B. one-to-nearest communication model
C. any-to-many communication model
D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
E. the same address for multiple devices in the group
F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
Correct Answer: BEF
A new address type made specifically for IPv6 is called the Anycast Address. These IPv6 addresses are global
addresses, these addresses can be assigned to more than one interface unlike an IPv6 unicast address. Anycast is
designed to send a packet to the nearest interface that is a part of that anycast group. The sender creates a packet and
forwards the packet to the anycast address as the destination address which goes to the nearest router. The nearest
router or interface is found by using the metric of a routing protocol currently running on the network. However in a LAN
setting the nearest interface is found depending on the order the neighbors were learned. The anycast packet in a LAN
setting forwards the packet to the neighbor it learned about first.

QUESTION 11
Which IPv6 address type communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
A. link-local
B. unique local
C. multicast D. global unicast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?
A. TTL
B. MAC address forwarding
C. Collision avoidance
D. Port blocking
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
A. enable secret
B. enable password
C. service password-encryption
D. username cisco password encrypt
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. Which two functions are performed by the load balancer when it handles traffic originating from the
Internet destined to an application hosted on the file server farm? (Choose two.)
A. Terminate the TLS over the UDP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected
server.
B. Terminate the TLS over the UDP connection from the router and originate an HTTP connection to the selected
server.
C. Terminate the TLS over the TCP connection from the router and originate an HTTP connection to the selected
server.
D. Terminate the TLS over the TCP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected
server.
E. Terminate the TLS over the SCTP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected
server.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q2 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q2-1 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q2-2

Refer to the exhibit. Which line of code must be added to this code snippet to allow an application to pull the next set of
paginated items?
A. requests.get(url, links=[`next\\’][`url\\’])
B. requests.get(url, headers=links[`next\\’][`url\\’])
C. requests.get(res.links[`next\\’][`url\\’], headers=headers)
D. requests.get(res.headers.get(`Link”)[`next\\’][`url\\’], headers=headers)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. The cURL POST request creates an OAuth access token for authentication with FDM API requests.
What is the purpose of the file “@token_data” that cURL is handling?
A. This file is a container to log possible error responses in the request.
B. This file is given as input to store the access token received from FDM.
C. This file is used to send authentication-related headers.
D. This file contains raw data that is needed for token authentication.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two statements describe the advantages of static code analysis over unit tests? (Choose two.)
A. It checks for potentially tainted data where input is not checked.
B. It enforces proper coding standards and style.
C. It performs a quick analysis of whether tests will pass or fail when run.
D. It checks for race conditions in threaded applications.
E. It estimates the performance of the code when run.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which two data encoding techniques are supported by gRPC? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. JSON
C. ASCII
D. ProtoBuf
E. YAML
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Which statement about microservices architecture is true?
A. Applications are written in a single unit.
B. It is a complex application composed of multiple independent parts.
C. It is often a challenge to scale individual parts.
D. A single faulty service can bring the whole application down.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which HTTP status code indicates that a client application is experiencing intentional rate limiting by the server?
A. 202
B. 401
C. 429
D. 503
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
An application is being built to collect and display telemetry streaming data. Drag and drop the elements of this stack
from the left onto the correct element functions on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q8

QUESTION 9
Which type of file is created from issued intermediate, root, and primary certificates for SSL installation on a server?
A. DER
B. CSR
C. PEM
D. CRT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Click on the GET Resource button above to view resources that will help with this question.

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q10 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q10-1 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q10-2 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q10-3

An engineer is managing a DC with 6000 Cisco UCS servers installed and running. The engineer has been asked to
identify all resources where the model is in the UCSB family and the available memory is less than or equal to 5 GB.
Which REST API call accomplishes this task?
A. GET/api/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=not(Model eq `UCSC\\’) and
AvailableMemory le 5000
B. GET/api/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=Model eq `UCSB\\’ and AvailableMemory lt
5000
C. GET/api/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=contains(Model, UCSB\\’) and
AvailableMemory lt 5000
D. GET/API/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=contains(Model, UCSB\\’) and
AvailableMemory le 5000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q11

Refer to the exhibit. a developer created the code, but it fails to execute. Which code snippet helps to identify the
issue?

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q11-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Into which two areas are AppDynamics APIs categorized? (Choose two.)

A. application-centric
B. analytics-events
C. database-visibility
D. platform-side
E. agent-side
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration of method and parameter retrieves the health of a laptop connected to the
network from Cisco DNA Center?
A. PUT; network-health;
B. GET; client-health;
C. GET; network-device;
D. POST; network-device;
Correct Answer: C

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Latest updates Cisco 350-801 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which configuration tells a switch part to send Cisco Discovery Protocol packets that configure an attached Cisco IP
phone to trust tagged traffic that is received from a device that is connected to the access port on the Cisco IP phone?
A. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend
B. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend
cos 3
C. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend
cos 5
D. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS extend trust
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An engineer with troubleshoots poor voice quality on multiple calls. After looking at packet captures, the engineer
notices high levels of jitter. Which two areas does the engineer check to prevent jitter? (Choose two.)
A. The network meets bandwidth requirements.
B. MTP is enabled on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Border Element.
C. Cisco UBE manages voice traffic, not data traffic.
D. All devices use wired connections instead of wireless connections.
E. Voice packets are classified and marked.
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/voice-quality/20371-troubleshoot-qos-voice.html

QUESTION 3

lead4pass 350-801 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. Given this “debug ISDN q921” output, what is the problem with the PRI?
A. Layer 1 is down on the controller.
B. PRI does not have an IP address configured on the interface.
C. Nothing, the PRI is sending keepalives.
D. Layer 2 is down on the controller.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which transport protocol does the application layer protocol SNMP use?
A. XML
B. UDP
C. SIP
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/simple-network-management-protocol-snmp/

QUESTION 5
What is a valid class included in the 8-Class QoS Strategy in a VoIP network?
A. Assured Forwarding
B. Broadcast Video
C. Multimedia Conferencing
D. Real-Time Interactive
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2756478andseqNum=8

QUESTION 6
A network administrator deleted a user from the LDAP directory of a company. The end-user shows as Inactive LOAP
Synchronized User in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which step is next to remove this user from Cisco
Unified Communications Manager?
A. Delete the user directly from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Restart the Dirsync service after the user is deleted from the LDAP directory.
C. Execute manual sync to refresh the local database and delete the end user.
D. Wait 24 hours for the garbage collector to remove the user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which settings are needed to configure the SIP route pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. pattern usage, IPv6 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list
B. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, IPv6 pattern, and description
C. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list
D. SIP trunk/Route list, description, and IPv4 pattern
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100_chapter_0100111.pdf

QUESTION 8
What is a characteristic of video traffic that governs QoS requirements for video?
A. Video is typically a variable bit rate.
B. Voice and video traffic are different, but they have the same QoS requirements.
C. Video is typically a constant bit rate.
D. Voice and video traffic are the same, so they have the same QoS requirements.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/cac.html

QUESTION 9
An engineer must extend the corporate phone system to mobile users connecting through the internet with their own
devices. One requirement is to keep that as simple as possible for end-users. Which infrastructure element achieves
these goals?
A. Cisco Express Mobility
B. Cisco Expressway-C and Expressway-E
C. Cisco Unified Border Element
D. Cisco Unified Instant Messaging and Presence
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Why would we not include an end user\\’s PC device in a QoS trust boundary?
A. The end-user could incorrectly tag their traffic to bypass firewalls.
B. The end-user may incorrectly tag their traffic to be prioritized over other network traffic.
C. There is no reason not to include an end user\\’s PC device in a QoS trust boundary.
D. The end-user could incorrectly tag their traffic to advertise their PC as a default gateway.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is
necessary in the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?
A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which command in the MGCP gateway configuration defines the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
server?
A. mgcapp
B. ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
C. mgcp call-agent
D. ccm-manager redundant-host
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A customer is deploying a SIP IOS gateway for a customer who requires that in-band DTMF relay is the first priority and out-of-band DTMF relay is second priority.
Which IOS entry sets the required priority?
A. dtmf-relay rtp-nte sip-notify
B. dtmf-relay cisco-rtp
C. sip-notify dtmf-relay rtp-nte
D. dtmf-relay sip-kpml cisco-rtp
Correct Answer: A

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This exam tests whether a network security engineer knows the components and architecture of secure access, by utilizing 802.1X and Cisco TrustSec.

This exam assesses knowledge of Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) architecture, solution, and components as an overall network threat mitigation and endpoint control solution. It also includes the fundamental concepts of bringing your own device (BYOD)
using posture and profiling services of ISE.

Latest updates Cisco 300-208 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

Which method does Cisco prefer to securely deploy guest wireless access in a BYOD implementation? 

A. deploying a dedicated Wireless LAN Controller in a DMZ 

B. configuring a guest SSID with WPA2 Enterprise authentication 

C. configuring guest wireless users to obtain DHCP centrally from the corporate DHCP server 

D. disabling guest SSID broadcasting 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 2

Which condition triggers wireless authentication? 

A. NAS-Port-Type is set to IEEE 802.11. 

B. Framed-Compression is set to None. 

C. Service-Type is set to Framed. 

D. Tunnel-Type is set to VLAN. 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 3

The NAC Agent uses which port and protocol to send discovery packets to an ISE Policy Service Node? 

A. tcp/8905 

B. udp/8905 

C. http/80 

D. https/443 

Correct Answer: A 

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/20/installation_guide/b_ise_InstallationGuide20/Cisco_SNS_3400_Series_Appliance_Ports_Reference.html 

QUESTION 4

A network engineer is configuring HTTP based CWA on a switch. Which three configuration elements are required?

(Choose three.) 

A. HTTP server enabled 

B. Radius authentication on the port with MAB 

C. Redirect access-list 

D. Redirect-URL 

E. HTTP secure server enabled 

F. Radius authentication on the port with 802.1x 

G. Pre-auth port based access-list 

Correct Answer: ABC 

QUESTION 5

Which action is a Cisco recommended practice while attempting to increase efficiency on the monitoring nodes? 

A. Back up data and transfer to a remote repository on regular basis 

B. Remove endpoints when not active. 

C. Re-index the data on a regular basis. 

D. Compress the data regularly 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 6

Under which circumstance would an inline posture node be deployed? 

A. When the NAD does not support CoA 

B. When the NAD cannot support the number of connected endpoints 

C. When a PSN is overloaded 

D. To provide redundancy for a PSN 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 7

Drag and drop each guest user login screen from the left onto the correct description on the right. 

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8
A security engineer must create an Antivirus remediation policy within Cisco ISE. Which two options can the engineer
select in the new Antivirus remediation policy? (Choose two.)
A. program installation path
B. Antivirus vendor name
C. uniform resource locator
D. file to upload
E. operating system
Correct Answer: BE
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_pos_pol.html#wp1655749

QUESTION 9
Which three algorithms should be avoided due to security concerns? (Choose three.)
A. DES for encryption
B. SHA-1 for hashing
C. 1024-bit RSA
D. AES GCM mode for encryption
E. HMAC-SHA-1
F. 256-bit Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman
G. 2048-bit Diffie-Hellman
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
Which two options must be used on Cisco ISE to enable the TACACS+ feature? (Choose two.)
A. TACACS External Servers
B. TACACS+ Authentication Settings
C. TACACS Server Sequence
D. Enable Device Admin Service
E. TACACS Command Sets
F. TACACS Profiles
G. Device Administration License
Correct Answer: DG

QUESTION 11
What is the function of the SGACL policy matrix on a Cisco TrustSec domain with SGT Assignment?
A. It determines which access policy to apply to the endpoint.
B. It determines which switches are trusted within the TrustSec domain.
C. It determines the path the SGT of the packet takes when entering the Cisco TrustSec domain.
D. It lists all servers that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain.
E. It lists all hosts that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which identity store option allows you to modify the directory services that run on TCP/IP?
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
B. RSA SecurID server
C. RADIUS
D. Active Directory
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two answers are potential results of an attacker that is performing a DHCP server spoofing attack? (Choose
two.)
A. ability to selectively change DHCP options fields of the current DHCP server, such as the giaddr field.
B. DoS
C. excessive number of DHCP discovery requests
D. ARP cache poisoning on the router
E. client unable to access network resources
Correct Answer: BE

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