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Easy to learn, you’ll pass the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 exam! Free 300-135 dumps

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Pass the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 exam. “Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT)”: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html (Total Questions: 395 Q&As).
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Latest Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 pdf

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Test your Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 exam level

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements concerning IGMP are correct? (Choose all that apply.)
A. With IGMPvl, queries are sent to a specific group.
B. Hosts issuing IGMPvl requests will be correctly interpreted by IGMPv2 hosts due to backward compatibility.
C. An IGMPv2 router will ignore IGMPv2 leave messages when IGMFVl hosts are present.
D. With IGMFV2, a leave message is supported.
E. An IGMPv2 host will send an IGMFVl report on an IGMFVl router.
F. An IGMPv2 router can only allow IGMPv2 hosts to execute a join request.
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 2
In what situation would the command ip helper-address be required? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Only when there is a duplicate IP address caused by a combination of static and dynamic IP address allocations
B. On each router that exists between the client and the server
C. Only when a router separates the client from the server
D. Only if the DHCP sever issues a DHCPNAK to the initial request
E. Only when the client is on the same subnet as the server
F. Only when the DHCP pool is out of IP addresses
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which are valid AAA authentications methods?
A. Line
B. Local
C. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
D. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 4
Which of the following are valid methods of providing a router with information concerning the location of the RP?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Statically defined RP
B. Bootstrap Router
C. Auto-RP
D. RP Discovery Protocol (RDP)
E. RP Helios
F. RPARP(RARP)
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 5
Examine the output from R1. Interface FastEthernet0/0 is used for all management of the device. A client is able to
connect to R1 on port 22, however, they are unable to connect on port 23. What is the cause of the problem?lead4pass 300-135 exam question q5

A. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled, which only allows SSH.
B. Telnet and SSH are not allowed at the same time.
C. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled on the wrong interface.
D. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled, however telnet is not allowed.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
I—fa0/0—router branch 1—–S0/2—–Core—S0/1—Router HQ———fa2/1 Branch 1 : Tu 1 =192.168.10.2/28 L1 =
10.20.1.1/32 S0/2 = 172.18.10.2/30 Fa0/0 = 192.168.200.1/24
HQ : TU 1 = 192.168.10.1/28 L1 = 10.30.1.1/32 S0/1 = 172.18.10.1/30 Fa2/1 = 192.168.100.1/24
Refer to exhibit. which Ip Address shold be configured as the tunnel source on the HQ router for maximum resiliency ?
A. 10.20.1.1
B. 10.30.1.1
C. 172.18.10.2
D. 192.168.10.1
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Using the divide and conquer approach, drag the troubleshooting steps on the left onto the corresponding description on
the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-135 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-135 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-135 exam question q8

The administrator has successfully logged into R1 but is unable to access privileged mode commands Which
configuration is causing the problem?
A. The password on the VTY lines does not match the username password.
B. The username command uses password, not secret
C. Enable secret or enable password must be configured
D. The aaa authorization reverse-access command is missing.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#logging console warnings
Which alerts will be seen on the console?
A. Warnings only
B. debugging, informational, notifications, warnings
C. warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D. notifications, warnings, errors
E. warnings, errors, critical, alerts
Correct Answer: C
Cisco routers prioritize log messages into 8 levels (0-7), as shown below:
LevelLevel NameDescription 0 Emergencies System is unusable 1 Alerts Immediate action needed 2 Critical Critical
conditions 3 Errors Error conditions 4 Warnings Warning conditions 5 Notifications Informational messages 6
Informational Normal but significant conditions 7 Debugging Debugging messages
When you enable logging for a specific level, all logs of that severity and greater (numerically less) will be logged. In this
case, when you enable console logging of warning messages (level 4), it will log levels 0-4, making the correct answer
warnings, errors, critical, alerts, and emergencies.

 

QUESTION 10
A new router is added to an existing HSRP standby group. One of the existing routers is in an active state, the other is
in a standby state. Under what circumstance will the new router become the active router?
A. The new router will become active immediately because it\\’s the newest router introduced into the group.
B. The new router can become active only when the existing active router and the existing standby router become
unavailable.
C. The new router has a lower priority value.
D. The new router will never become active unless the existing active router becomes unavailable.
E. The new router has preempt configured and a higher priority
F. The new router has a higher priority value.
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 11
A question about restrict access for device on management plane? (Choose two.)
A. Enable Cisco Express Forward (CEF) globally.
B. Add authentication for routing protocols.
C. Restrict physical access.
D. Add ACLs for Telnet.
E. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 12
An exhibit with three routers A, B and C. Router A is connected to Router B. Router B is connected to Router C.lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12

The output of “show interface Tunnel 1” on Router C shows that the tunnel is in “up/ down” state. The question asks
what is the reason for this.
A. Router C does not have a route to the loopback interface of Router A
B. The tunnel mode should be changed to “gre mode multipoint”
C. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
D. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
You must add encryption to a GRE tunnel. Which IPsec configuration is recommended for a VPN with NAT
transversal?
A. Enable SHA on the tunnel
B. Implement IPsec transport mode
C. Enable MD5 on the tunnel
D. Implement IPsec tunnel mode
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access
and aggregation layers in the data canter?
A. vPC
B. PAgP
C. LACP
D. host vPC
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Access layer switches are located as which type of design to provide network connectivity to servers that are installed in
rack?
A. ToR design
B. MoR design
C. EoR design
D. ILR
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-160 exam question q3

You are evaluating a proposed topology design. Which technology can you recommend to provide high availability for
the topology?
A. OTV
B. STP
C. LLDP
D. vPC
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which two resources can be VDC-dedicated resources? (Choose two.)
A. QoS hardware queues
B. physical interfaces
C. A table spaces
D. fabric modules
E. management interfaces
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 5
The client\\’s data center manager has requested the physical weights of the equipment in your Cisco UCS design along
with the power and cooling requirements. Where in cisco.com can you find this information?
A. the product datasheets
B. the Cisco UCS power calculator
C. the Cisco UCS GUI Configuration Guide
D. the Cisco UCS Hardware Installation Guide
E. the Hardware and Software Interoperability Matrix Utility Tool
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which two features are supported by VXLAN on the Cisco NX-OS platform? (Choose two)
A. MP-BGP EVPN
B. DHCP snooping
C. PIM-SM
D. OTV
E. L2TP
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 7
Which two licenses must you have to enable OTV on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. Transport Services Package
B. Advanced Services Package
C. MPLS Services Package
D. Enterprise Services Package
E. Enhanced Layer 2 Package
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 8
Which two characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose two)
A. voice, data, and wireless convergence
B. no packet manipulation
C. QoS–policing
D. routing manipulation and filtering
E. QoS – classification and queuing
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 9
What introduces unique implications into the overall Data Center aggregation layer design? (Choose Three.)
A. High-speed switching fabric with a high forwarding rate
B. Over-subscription values
C. Service Modules
D. IP routing
E. WAN
F. Internet Edge
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 10
Which option is a characteristic of the data center aggregation layer?
A. segments groups of applications and isolates problems
B. provides access for IP multicast applications
C. offers QoS services, such as the classification and marking of traffic
D. is a high-speed backbone of the data center
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
You plan to use Cisco FEX and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches. Which deployment model is valid?
A. straight-through connections that use static pinning
B. active/active fabric extenders that use vPC
C. straight-through connections that use dynamic pinning
D. active/active fabric extenders that use straight-through connections
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12 lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12-1 lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12-2

Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 4. Which of the items is true regarding the activation of a Management Extension
update?
A. Adds support for new management access protocols
B. Adds support for new SAN protocols
C. Adds support for new LAN protocols
D. Adds support for new hardware
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Exhibit 4 shown below:

lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12-3

Management Extensions enable you to add support for previously unsupported servers and other hardware to Cisco
UCS Manager. For example, you may need to activate a Management Extension if you want to add a new, previously
unsupported server to an existing Cisco UCS domain.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/firmware-
mgmt/gui/2-2/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_22/
b_GUI_Firmware_Management_22_chapter_01001.html#task_AAF21C05F1754D30B2CBFFA4642840E3

 

QUESTION 13
After a recent acquisition, you have been asked to merge two SANs into one. Which SAN topology is Cisco
recommended?
A. Core-Edge
B. Edge-Core-Edge
C. Core Access
D. Collapsed Core
E. Collapsed Core-Edge
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit. lead4pass 300-135 exam question q1

Which two statements are correct? (Choose Two)
A. The source device has name resolution configured.
B. The source device is using two routes for the destination, learned from different protocols.
C. A device on the path is introducing considerable delay.
D. The source device is loading balancing traffic.
Correct Answer: AD
Router traces domain name (cisco.com) and it gets ICMP answers, so name resolution has happened. Per hop output
shows 2 lines, hence 2 active paths exist.

 

QUESTION 2
How to check MTU of interface using ping? / How can you check the links mtu size with ping command?
A. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1501
B. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1500 df-bit
C. ping 10.1.1.1
D. ping 10.1.1.1 no-size
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which two statements about IPv6 traffic filtering are true? (choose two)
A. it performs virtual fragmentation reassembly after checking engress ACLs
B. it performs virtual fragmentation after checking ingress ACLs
C. it requires IPv6 neighbor discovery to be enabled on the interface
D. it requires configuration to be done at the engress interface
E. it is configured at the interface level
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 4
===============================================================================lead4pass 300-135 exam question q4 lead4pass 300-135 exam question q4-1

Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
Solution
Steps need to follow as below:
When we check on client 1 and Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 Ipconfig —– Client will be
receiving IP address 10.2.1.3
IP 10.2.1.3 will be able to ping from R4 , R3, R2 but not from R1
Check for neighborship of ospf sh ip ospf nei —– Only one neighborship is forming with R2 and i.e. with R3 Since R2 is
connected to R1 and R3 with routing protocol ospf than there should be 2 neighbors seen but only one is seen
Need to check running config of R2 and R3 for interface Sh run ————————– Interface Serial0/0/0/0.12 on R2
Sh run ————————– Interface Serial0/0/0/0 on R1lead4pass 300-135 exam question q4-2

Change required: On R1, for IPV4 authentication of OSPF command is missing and required to configure—— ip ospf
authentication message-digest The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that
requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a
trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the
209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NTP
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Correct Answer: D
On R1, for IPV4 authentication of OSPF the command is missing and required to configure—— ip ospf authentication
message-digest The problem in this situation is with OSPF on router 1. It is missing the “ip ospf authentication
messagedigest” command on the Serial0/0/0/0.12 interface. The problem statement tells us that the two routers are not
able to become OSPF neighbors.

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. PC-2 failed to establish a Telnet connection to the Terminal Server. Which solution allows PC-2 to
establish the Telnet connection?lead4pass 300-135 exam question q5

A. Gateway-Router(config)#ipv6 access-list Default_Access Gateway-Router(config-ipv6-acl)#no sequence 20 Gateway-
Router(config-ipv6-acl)#sequence 5 permit tcp host 2018:DB1:A:B::2 host 2018:DB1:A:C::1 eq telnet
B. Gateway-Router(config)#ipv6 access-list Default_Access Gateway-Router(config-ipv6-acl)#permit tcp host
2018:DB1:A:B::2 host 2018:DB1:A:C::1 eq telnet
C. Gateway-Router(config)#ipv6 access-list Default_Access Gateway-Router(config-ipv6-acl)#sequence 15 permit tcp
host 2018:DB1:A:B::2 host 2018:DB1:A:C::1 eq telnet
D. Gateway-Router(config)#ipv6 access-list Default_Access Gateway-Router(config-ipv6-acl)#sequence 25 permit tcp
host 2018:DB1:A:B::2 host 2018:DB1:A:C::1 eq telnet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Which of the following is not an essential prerequisite for AutoQoS to be correctly applied to an interface? (Choose all
that apply.)
A. The interface must be configured as a Multilink PPP interface.
B. The correct bandwidth should be configured on the interface.
C. A QoS policy must not be currently attached to the interface.
D. CEF must be enabled.
E. AutoQoS must be enabled globally before it can be enabled on the interface.
F. An IP address must be configured on the interface if its speed is equal to or less than 768 kbps.
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 7
Which of the following characteristics describe the Root Guard feature? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The port must be put into forwarding state manually after root-inconsistent state has been corrected.
B. A Root Guard port receiving superior BPDU goes into a root-inconsistent state.
C. A Root Guard port receiving inferior BPDU goes into a root-inconsistent state.
D. While the port is in a root-inconsistent state no user data is sent across that port.
E. The port returns to a forwarding state if inferior BPDUs stop.
F. It should be applied to all switch ports.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: Spanning Tree Protocol Root Guard
Enhancement http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00800ae96b.shtml

 


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow the administrator to log in using the device database authentication?lead4pass 300-135 exam question q8

A. aaa authentication login default local
B. aaa authorization network default local
C. aaa authentication login default enable
D. aaa authorization exec default local
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which protocol does mGRE use to determine where packets are sent?
A. CEF
B. EIGRP
C. NHRP
D. DMVPN
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/ipsec-negotiation-ike-protocols/41940-dmvpn.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is an unlikely reason for the ARP process to fail?
A. CEF switching is disabled on the switch
B. The source device and destination device are in different VLANs
C. The VLAN is excluded from the trunk
D. The host is connected to the switch through an IP phone
E. A faulty cable from host to switch or between switches
F. The trunking encapsulation type is inconsistent on the two ends of the link
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 11
Given the multicast IP address of 224.193.5.10, what would the corresponding multicast MAC address be?
A. 00-00-0c-c0-05-0a
B. 00-00-0c-cl-05-0a
C. 01-00-5e-00-00-0c
D. 01-00-5e-41-05-0a
E. 00-00-0c-01-00-5e
F. 01-00-5e-cl-05-0a
Correct Answer: F
First three octets are 01-00-05e for every single multicast address.Las three octets are the hexadecimal version of the
las three octets of the IP address, in this case 193.5.10 is translated to c1-05-0a.

 

QUESTION 12
=============================================================================== Solutionlead4pass 300-135 exam question q12 lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12-1

Steps need to follow as below:
Since the problem is raised that DSW1 will not become active router for HSRP group 10
we will check for the HSRP configuration…
DSW1lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12-2

DSW2lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12-3

From snapshot we see that the track command given needs to be changed under active VLAN10 router
Change Required: On DSW1, related to HSRP, under vlan 10 change the given track 1 command to instead use the
track 10 command.
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client
2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241.
After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity,
FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened DSW1 will not become the active router for
HSRP
group 10.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. HSRP
C. IP DHCP Helper
D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing
E. IPv6 RIP Routing
F. IPv4 layer 3 security
G. Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
H. Loop Prevention
I. Access Vlans
J. Port Security
K. VLAN ACL/Port ACL
L. Switch Virtual Interface
Correct Answer: B
On DSW1, related to HSRP, under VLAN 10 change the given track 1 command to instead use the track 10 command.
The problem in this case is that DSW1 will not become the active standby router, which is an HSRP problem.

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following pieces of information will the command show interface provide? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Layer 1 status
B. Output queue drops
C. Interface CPU utilization
D. Cable type connected to interface
E. Layer 2 status
F. Input queue drops
Correct Answer: ABEF

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QUESTION 1
Which type of expenditure is the purchase of heavy equipment considered?
A. consumption
B. chargeback
C. show back 
D. operational
E. capital
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
During a business lead engagement, which role of the aspiring Cisco Business Architect is true?
A. to be more business focused
B. dedicated to running proof of value
C. to be more technology focused
D. to promote the business lead approach with other lines of business
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which options are the two features of business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Business requirements are managed by stakeholders.
B. Business requirements support specific business objectives.
C. Business requirements are prioritized in compliance with influence dynamics.
D. Business requirements are dynamic in nature and change over time.
E. Business requirements are always defined inside a line of business.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 4
KPIs are a quantitative measurement of progress against the tactical goals of an organization. Which are three
characteristics of KPIs? (Choose three.)
A. KPIs must be strategic and tactical in nature
B. KPIs can be financial, managerial, or operational
C. KPIs measure progress against goals
D. KPIs are set according to priorities: magnitude and urgency
E. KPIs define what needs to happen to achieve desired results in the time, budget, and level of the expected quality
Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the manufacturing industry?
A. Remote Expert
B. Advanced Routing
C. Service Provider Network Infrastructure
D. Plant Floor Control Network
E. Multilayer Switching
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which type of engagement occurs at the business solutions maturity level?
A. multidomain technology engagement
B. single-domain technology engagement
C. partial business engagement
D. business-first engagement
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
During a business solutions engagement, which item is nonessential for the Systems Engineers and Sales leadership to
be aware of?
A. maturity levels discussed during the business solution engagement
B. ability to support the business solution engagement
C. tools used during the business solution engagement
D. engagement type reviewed during the business solution engagement
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which building a block of business model canvas addresses the customer\\’s willingness to pay?
A. revenue streams
B. cost structure
C. customer segments
D. customer channels
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Which two examples are indirect financial benefits? (Choose two.)
A. increased customer satisfaction
B. increased operational expenditures
C. increased process efficiency
D. decreased capital expenditures
E. decreased total cost of ownership
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 10
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business
outcomes.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
IP addressing can be assigned in either a static or dynamic method.
Which two devices would likely be assigned dynamic IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. email server
B. IP phone network
C. printer
D. personal laptop
E. switch
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 12
Which two functions of the technology specialists in a Cisco Business Architecture engagement are true? (Choose
two.)
A. Own the customer relationship.
B. Focus on specific technical solutions.
C. Define business capabilities.
D. Support the engagement that is led by the business architect.
E. Identify customer business priorities.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 13
Which four options are components of the Seven Elements framework? (Choose four.)
A. Commitment
B. Relationship and Distribution
C. Relationship and Communications
D. Best Alternative
E. Interests, Agenda and Normative
F. Interests, Options, and Legitimacy
G. Alternatives, Opportunities, and Legitimacy
Correct Answer: ACDF

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about the wireless security technologies is true?\\’
A. WPA2-PSK mode provides better security by having the same passphrase across the network
B. WPA2 provides message integrity using AES
C. WPA2-PSK mode does not allow a passphrase? to be stored lo~cally on the device
D. WPA2 is more secure than WPA because it uses TKIP for encryption
E. WEP is more secure than WPA2 because it uses AES for encryption
F. WPA2-ENT mode does not require RADIUS for authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Drag each IP transmission and fragmentation term on the left to the matching statement on the right?
Select and Place:lead4pass 400-251 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-251 exam question q2

QUESTION 3
A hosted service provider is planning to use firewall contexts in its multitenant environment and will manage these
firewalls on behalf of its customers and allow them access to it for monitoring. For management purposes, the lead
architect of the service provider has decided to connect this management interface to a single shared management
zone VLAN (901) and allocate each context a unique IP form the assigned range of this VLAN. Which three statements
about this design are true? (Choose three)
A. Though this design is valid, a physical interface cannot be allocated to multiple contexts due to ASA traffic classifier
restrictions; this is only possible with subinterfaces.
B. This design concept is valid and requires some modifications. However, it would be more secure to only allow
customer management access from the data VLANs in their hosted environment to ensure adequate Layer 2/ Layer 3
separation between tenants
C. The ASA multi-context traffic classifier works differently for shared interfaces that exist on the same VLAN and have
the same MAC address when NAT is in use, other rules are applied when NAT is not in use.
D. The ASA classifier works only for data interfaces and not for management interfaces. The No Management-only
the command must be applied for this concept to work.
E. This design concept is not valid because it is not possible to allocate a physical interface to all contexts due to ASA
traffic classifier restrictions, this is only possible with subinterfaces.
F. Subinterfaces of the interface can be allocated only to contexts and not the actual management physical interface
G. The design for the management zone does not work unless unique MAC addresses are assigned
Correct Answer: CDG

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about the keying methods used by MACSec are true? (Choose three)
A. SAP is not supported on switch SVls.
B. SAP is supported on SPAN destination ports.
C. MKA is implemented as an EAPoL packet exchange.
D. Key management for host-to-switch and switch-to-switch MACSec sessions is provided by MKA.
E. SAP is enabled by default for Cisco TrustSec in manual configuration mode.
F. A valid mode for SAP is NULL.
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 5
Which three EAP protocols are supported in WPA and WPA2? (Choose three)
A. EAP-PSK
B. EAP-EKE
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-AKA
E. EAP-SIM
F. EAP-EEE
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 6
Which statement about Dynamic ARP inspection is true?
A. It requires that DHCP snooping be disabled to build a valid binding database
B. It validates ARP requests and responses on untrusted ports using the MAC address table
C. It drops invalid ARP responses and requests on the switch untrusted ports
D. It validates ARP requests and responses on trusted ports using IP-to-MAC address binding
E. It is supported only in DHCP environments to detect invalid ARP requests and responses
F. It forwards invalid ARP responses and requests on switch untrusted ports
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7lead4pass 400-251 exam question q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two)
A. The BGP neighbor session between R1 and R2 re-establishes after 100 minutes.
B. A warning message is displayed on R2 after it receives 50 prefixes.
C. A warning message is displayed on R2 after it receives 100 prefixes from neighbor 1.1.1.1.
D. The BGP neighbor session between R1 and R2 re-establishes after 50 minutes.
E. The BGP neighbor session tears down after R1 receive 100 prefixes from neighbor 1.1.1.1.
F. The BGP neighbor session tears down after R1 receive 200 prefixes from neighbor 2.2.2.2.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about VRF-lite implementation in a service provider network?
A. It requires multiple links between CE and PE for each VPN connection to enable privacy
B. It uses the source address to differentiate routes for different VPNs on the CE device
C. It can only support one VRF instance per CE device
D. It can have multiple VRF instances associated with a single interface on a CE device
E. It supports multiple VPNs at a CE device but their address spaces should not overlap
F. It enables the sharing of one CE device among multiple customers
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 9
A user attempts to browse the internet through a CWS-integrated router, and the HTTP 403 Forbidden error message is
returned. Which reason for the problem is the most likely?
A. The connection timed out
B. The CWS license has expired
C. The user attempted to access a web site that is blocked by CWS policy
D. User authentication failed
E. The user is not logged in to CWS
F. The CWS connector is down
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

lead4pass 400-251 exam question q10 lead4pass 400-251 exam question q10-1

Refer to the exhibit. RlS is building a Site-To-Site IPSec certificate based VPN tunnel with a peer at 20.1.7.16. TheCA is
running at port 80 on address 172.16.100.18. R15 has a BGP peer at 20.1.6.18 doing an authenticated session to
establish reachability with the VPN remote site. The VPN tunnel secures traffic between 192.168.15.0/24 and
192.168.16.0/24 network. It has been reported that a VPN tunnel is not coming up with the remote site. Which two
possible issues are true? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect trustpoint configuration
B. Incorrect BGP peer configuration
C. Incorrect static route
D. Incorrect transform set configuration
E. Incorrect crypto map configuration
F. Incorrect ISAKMP policy configuration
G. Incorrect ACL defined for the traffic encryption
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 11lead4pass 400-251 exam question q11

Refer to the exhibit, you issued the show crypt isakmp SA command to troubleshoot connection failure on IPsec VPN.
What possible issue does the given output indicate?
A. The peer is failing to respond
B. The crypto ACLs are mismatched
C. The pre-shared keys are mismatched
D. The transform sets are mismatched
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Drag and drop the desktop-security terms from the left onto their right definitions on the right?
Select and Place:lead4pass 400-251 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-251 exam question q12-1

QUESTION 13
Which statement is correct regarding the SenderBase functionality?
A. ESA sees a high negative score from SenderBase as very unlikely that the sender is sending spam.
B. SenderBase uses the DNS-based blacklist as one of the sources of information to define the reputation score of the sender\\’s IP
address.
C. WSA uses SenderBase information to configure URL filtering policies.
D. ESA uses destination address reputation information from SenderBase to configure mail policies.
E. SenderBase uses spam complaints as one of the sources of information to define the reputation score of the receiver IP
address.
F. ESA sees a high positive score from SenderBase as very likely that the sender is sending spam.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest effective Cisco 400-201 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which protocol provides fast link failure detection for all type of encapsulation?
A. Prefix Independent Convergence
B. Carrier delay
C. Non stop forwarding
D. Bidirectional forwarding detection
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which three counters from a show interface output indicate that data packets were dropped on that interface? (Choose
three.)
A. pause input
B. collisions
C. lost carrier
D. frame
E. runts
F. input error
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 3lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q3Refer to the exhibit Which PW type is negotiated?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5
F. Type 6
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 4
A network engineer observes increasing output drops on the serial interface. Which two solutions can be implemented
to minimize these drops? (Choose two.)
A. Increase the MTU size on the link.
B. Replace the serial cable between the connecting devices.
C. Turn on fast switching.
D. Increase the output hold queue size.
E. Implement priority queuing on slower serial links by configuring priority lists.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 5
Which two statements best describe the functionality of the BGP graceful restart capability? (Choose two.)
A. The peer router sends an end-of RIB message to the restarting router.
B. The peer router immediately removes the BGP routes that it learned from the restarting router from its BGP routing
table.
C. The restarting router does not remove any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires.
D. The router establishes BGP sessions with other routers and relearns the BGP routes from other routers that are also
capable of graceful restart. The restarting router waits to receive updates from the neighboring routers. When the
neighboring routers send end-of- RIB messages to indicate that they are done sending updates, the restarting router
starts sending its own updates.
E. The restarting router removes any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 6
The SP core supports PIM-SM for multicast traffic, but one of these routers is not able to see one of its PIM neighbors.
What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The router is an RP with high priority.
B. IGMP snooping is not enabled.
C. PIM sparse mode is not enabled on a participating multicast interface.
D. PIM protocols are not enabled in global configuration mode.
E. Auto-RP is not enabled on this network.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Which two statements about spanning tree path cost are true? (Choose two.)
A. The path cost can be changed for an interface using the spanning-tree cost command.
B. The path cost can be changed for an interface using the stp path-cost command.
C. The STP default path cost depends on the interface speed.
D. The STP default path cost is similar for all interface.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 8
Which BGP feature protects the external BGP peering session from CPU utilization-based attacks that use forged IP
packets?
A. BGP multihop
B. TTL security check
C. BGP FlowSpec
D. Secure BGP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
On Cisco IOS devices, which IS-IS feature reduces the convergence time for prefixes designated as high priority?
A. iSPF
B. advertise passive only
C. prefix prioritization
D. Fast-Forwarding
E. Route tagging
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 10lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q10Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has a requirement to enable MPLS TE tunnels on the network to be L3VPN
customers. Which MPLS TE feature allow the network engineer to configure MPLS TE LSPs by using a few CLI
commands?
A. AutoTunnel Mesh Groups on all P and PE routers
B. AutoTunnel Primary and Backup on all PE routers
C. AutoTunnel Primary and Backup on all P and PE routers
D. AutoTunnel Mesh Groups on all PE routers
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which type of IPv6 address does OSPFv3 use to communicate with OSPFv3 neighbors?
A. link-local
B. site-local
C. global
D. unique local
E. anycast
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q12Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct?
A. If the labeled packet arrives with the bottom label of 27, the label is replaced with label 38 and the packet is sent out
on the Gigabitethernet 0/0
B. If the labeled packet arrives with the bottom label of 27, all of the labels are replaced with label 38 and the packet is
sent out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface
C. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 27,the label is replaced with the label 38 and the packet is sent
out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface
D. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 27, all of the labels are replaced with label 38 and the packet is
sent out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface.
E. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 38,the label is replaced with label 27 and the packet is sent out
on the GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface
F. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 38, all labels are replaced with the label 27 and the packet is
sent out on the GogabitEthernet 0/0/ interface.
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 13
Which three are optional extensions of the Frame Relay Local Management Interface specification? (Choose three) A.
Switched virtual circuit
B. Virtual circuit status
C. Simple flow control
D. Multicasting
E. Permanent virtual circuit
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation: Optional LMI Extensions:
The LMI specification also defines several optional extensions:
*
Global addressing convention
*
Multicast capability
*
A simple flow control mechanism
*
Ability for the network to communicate a PVC\\’s CIR to the subscriber in a Status message
*
A new message type that allows the network to announce PVC status changes without prompting from the subscriber
Implementors may build any, all, or none of these features into their networks.


QUESTION 14
During the modem boot process, how does the modem acquire the downstream channel?
A. The modem is commanded by the CMTS to set to the specific channel.
B. The modem uses the default value in the broadcom chipset.
C. The modem tuner sets a level as defined by the DOCSIS specification.
D. The modem tuner scans the downstream spectrum until digital QAM modulated signal is encountered
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 15
Which two features prevent routing loops between the OSPF sites of a customer when the sites are multihomed or a
backdoor link is used between the sites? (Choose two.)
A. sham link
B. down bit
C. virtual link
D. Site of Origin
E. domain tag
Correct Answer: BE
If a route sent from a PE router to a CE router could then be received by another PE router from one of its own CE
router, there are chances of routing loops. This situation is possible when a “backdoor link” connects two CE routers
connected to two different PE routers. To prevent this, the PE sets the DN bit in any LSA that it sends to the CE router.
If the PE router receives any LSA with DN bit set, it ignores the LSA.
1) DN bit:
When a PE router sends a Type-3 LSA to a CE router, the DN bit in LSA Options field must be set. Now if the CE router
sends the Type-3 LSA to other PE router(s), the PE router will not redistribute it further.
When a PE router needs to distribute a route to a CE router which comes from the outside of CE router\\’s OSPF
domain, the PE router presents itself as an ASBR and distributes the route in Type-5 LSA. The DN bit must be set in the
LSA.
The Options field is present in all LSAs. The Options field is 1-byte long as follows- DN O DC EA N/P MC E MT
2) Route Tags (Domain Tags):
In some implementations (where DN bit is not set), Domain Tags (named by Cisco) are used to ensure Type-5
LSAs generated by a PE router will be ignored by other PE routers that may receive it. The value of Domain tag is
configurable and arbitrary if not set. Hence must be distinct from other OSPF tags


QUESTION 16
In the context of GMPLS, LMP stands for:
A. Load Management Protocol
B. Label Management Protocol
C. Loop Management Protocol
D. Link Management Protocol
Correct Answer: D
The Generalized Multi-Protocol Label Switching (GMPLS)[1] is a protocol suite extending MPLS to manage further
classes of interfaces and switching technologies other than packet interfaces and switching, such as time division
multiplex,
layer-2 switch, wavelength switch and fiber-switch.
GMPLS is composed of three main protocols:
Resource Reservation Protocol with Traffic Engineering extensions (RSVP-TE) signaling protocol.[5][6]Open Shortest
Path First with Traffic Engineering extensions (OSPF-TE) routing protocol.[7][8] Link Management Protocol (LMP).[9]


QUESTION 17
IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS
domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6
multicast traffic only to those ports that want to receive it?
A. IGMP snooping
B. MLD snooping
C. MLD querier
D. IGMP version 3 E. MLD version 2
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
Which SONET protocol layer is in charge of clock synchronization and timing issues?
A. Photonic
B. Section
C. Path
D. Line
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Which option propagates SRLG membership information to the network?
A. BGP attribute
B. IGP extension
C. RSVP extension
D. LDP extension
E. PIM extension
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 20
A service provider is using point-to-multipoint TE to forward MPLS traffic from one source to multiple destinations, what
is a restriction of using this method?
A. Destinations must be manually added and removed on the TE tail-end router
B. Multicast traffic must be implemented using PIM sparse mode
C. Point-to-multipoint TE does not support policy-based routing
D. Only node protection is supported on point-to-multipoint TE LSPs
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q21Inbound Infrastructure ACLs are configured to protect the SP network. Which three types of traffic should be filtered in
the infrastructure ACLs? (Choose three.)
A. traffic from a source with an IP address that is within 239.255.0.0/16
B. FTP traffic destined for internal routers
C. IPsec traffic that at an internal router
D. traffic from a source with an IP address that is within 162.238.0.0/16
E. EBGP traffic that peers with edge routers
Correct Answer: ABD
With the use of the protocols and addresses identified, the infrastructure ACL can be built to permit the protocols and
protect the addresses. In addition to direct protection, the ACL also provides a first line of defense against certain types
of invalid traffic on the Internet:
-RFC 1918 space must be denied. (RFC1918 describes a set of network ranges set aside for so-called “private” use.)
-Packets with a source address that fall under special-use address space, as defined in RFC 3330, must be denied.
-Anti-spoof filters must be applied. (Your address space must never be the source of packets from outside your AS.)


QUESTION 22
The layer 2 protocol used by POS technology offers a standardized way for mapping IP packets into SONET/ SDH
payloads. Select the correct sequence of POS operation:
1) Data is scrambled and synchronous mapping takes place by octet into the SONET/SDH frame.
2) Encapsulated via Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) takes place framing information is added with High-level
Data Link Control (HDLC).
3) Gaps between frames are filled with flags, set to value 7E.
4) Octet stuffing occurs if any flags or resultant escape characters (of value 7D) are found in the data.
5) Data is segmented into an IP datagram with its 20-byte IP header.
A. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
C. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
D. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Correct Answer: D
The proper order of operation of PoS is:
When transmitting:
IP -> PPP -> FCS generation -> Byte stuffing -> Scrambling -> SONET/SDH framing When receiving:
SONET/SDH framing -> Descrambling -> Byte destuffing -> FCS detection -> PPP -> IP Remote


QUESTION 23
Which descriptions of Netflow is correct? (Choose three.)
A. By default,Netflow records bidirectional IP traffic flow.
B. Netflow answers questions regarding IP traffiC. who, what, where, when, and how
C. Netflow accounts for both transit traffic and traffic destined for the router.
D. Netflow returns the subinterface information in the flow records.
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 24
Which option describes a benefits of IPv6 VPN Provider Edge?
A. Provider support for intra-AS and CSC scenarios
B. Uses separate signaling plane, which provides more security than IPv4
C. BGP is the preferred routing protocol for connecting two SPs.
D. No requirement for a separate signaling plane
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 25
Which of the following descriptions about IP spoofing is correct?
A. IP destination address is forged
B. IP source address is forged
C. IP TCP destination port is forged
D. None of above
E. IP TCP source port is forged
Correct Answer: B
1.13. Security in core


QUESTION 26
Which option is the SONET frame format of the STM-4 SDH circuit?
A. STS-1
B. STS-192
C. STS-12
D. STS-3
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q27Inbound infrastructure ACLs are configured to protect the SP network. Which two types of traffic should be permitted in
the infrastructure ACL? (Choose two.)
A. traffic destined for network of 172.30.0.0/16
B. traffic source from network of 172.30.0.0/16
C. traffic destined for network of 162.238.0.0/16
D. traffic source from network of 162.238.0.0/16
E. traffic destined for network of 232.16.0.0/16
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 28
In an infrastructure As a service cloud deployment model, which two components are managed by the customer?
(Choose two)
A. hardware (server)
B. Network storage
C. Virtualization
D. Operating System
E. Runtime application
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 29lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q29Refer to the exhibit Customer ABC is peering with two service providers for internet access. In order to prevent the AS
100 from becoming a transit AS between ISP_1 and ISP_2. Which BGP configuration must be applied to achieve this
goal?
A. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY
permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor
1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
B. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
C. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
D. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit
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10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor
1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
E. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 30
In the Inter-AS VPN deployment shown in the diagram, what is the Next Hop address of MP-IBGP Update for CE4
network received at PE-R2?lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q30A. ASBR-2 50.0.0.3
B. PE-R2 50.0.0.2
C. PE-R4 50.0.0.4
D. ASBR-1 50.0.0.1
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 31
In which way does the DS-Lite IPv6 transitioning mechanism differ from IPv6 Dual-Stack?
A. DS-Lite is a combination of tunnel and translation technologies.
B. DS-Lite is a transition technology that gives full IPv6 connectivity for IPv6 capable hosts that are on the IPv4 Internet
but have no native connection to an IPv6 network.
C. DS-Lite is an automatic tunnel where the tunnel destination is determined by the IPv4 address extracted from the
IPv6 address that starts with the prefix 2002::/16.
D. DS-Lite is a stateless tunneling mechanism with a lightweight and secure manner without requiring upgrades to
existing IPv4 access network infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 32
A service provider is offering VoIP services level agreement to customers. Which configuration provides validation that
the service level agreement has been honored?
A. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
B. ipsla 999 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forerver start-time now
C. ipsla 99 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
D. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever start-time now
E. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
F. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever stat-time now
Correct Answer: F


QUESTION 33
Which two Any Transport over MPLS (AToM) traffic encapsulations require the use of a control word? (Choose two)
A. HDLC
B. ATM AAL5
C. PPP
D. Ethernet VLAN
E. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: BE
AToM Header
The AToM header is 4 bytes (control word). The control word is optional for Ethernet, PPP, HDLC, and cell relay
transport types. However, the control word is required for Frame Relay, and ATM AAL5 transport types.


QUESTION 34
Which statement about IPv6 security is true?
A. Reconnaissance attacks are easier to do in IPv6 compared to IPv4.
B. IPv6 amplification attacks can happen using IPv6 broadcast address.
C. RA-guard feature is used to block rogue RAs.
D. ICMP policies on firewalls do not need to be changed for IPv6 because ICMP is Layer 3 agnostic.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 35
Which command will display the MPLS label binding for IP prefix 1.1.1.0 on the router?
A. All of the above.
B. show tag-switching tdp binding 1.1.1.0/24
C. show tag-switching tdp bindings neighbor 1.1.1.0
D. A and B both will show the binding.
E. show tag-switching interface e0/0
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 36
What Cisco IOS feature examines packets received to make sure that the source address and interface are in the
routing table and match the interface that the packet was received on?
A. MPLS Traffic Engineering
B. Receive ACL
C. Unicast RPF
D. Authentication
E. Dynamic access-lists
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q37An MPLS VPN service has been provisioned for an ABC customer. Based on the output from the VRF BGP
configuration of PE1 and PE2, which statement describes the route exchange between ABC site 1 and site 2?
A. Only CE1 will be able to install CE2 BGP updates in its BGP table.
B. Only CE2 will be able to install CE1 BGP updates in its BGP table.
C. CE1 can install the CE2 subnets in its BGP table and CE2 can install the CE1 subnets its BGP table.
D. CE1 cannot install the CE2 subnets in its BGP table and CE2 cannot install the CE1 subnets its BGP table.
E. “as-override” feature cannot be used in this scenario.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 38
A network engineer is responsible for provisioning LDP and IGP over the IP core network to maintain the MPLS
functionality as a day-to-day task. The IP engineer is looking for automation opportunities. Which feature allows the LDP
protocol to be automatically enabled on interfaces that run IGP on the routers?
A. MPLS LDP autoconfiguration
B. MPLS LDP discovery
C. MPLS LDP-IGP synchronization
D. MPLS LDP session protection
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. Why is router 1 unable to ping 10.10.100.2 from vrf cust1?
A. Because Multi-VRF support is not enabled
B. Because address-family ipv4 is missing from the VRF statement
C. Because of an incorrect interface configuration
D. Because of a missing BGP configuration
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
What is a limitation of implementing uRPF?
A. Domain name must be defined.
B. MPLS LDP must be enabled.
C. BGP routing protocol must be running.
D. Symmetrical routing is required.
E. Named access-lists must be configured.
Correct Answer: D

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Latest effective Cisco 400-151 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which two parameters must be identical per interface while configuring virtual port channels? (Choose two)
A. network access control
B. Bridge Assurance setting
C. maximum transmission unit
D. Protocol Independent Multicast
E. IP Source Guard
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the management interface monitoring policy?
A. to monitor the management interface counts for errors and drops
B. to prevent VM traffic form being black-holed during a cluster switchover
C. to sync MAC address tables between peer fabric interconnects
D. to ensure that management interface of the managing fabric interconnect can reach the gateway
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q3A. The service profile in organization IS-SecureESX10 is trying to be associated to chassis 1 blade 7
B. The error is triggered when the service profile pn is being associated.
C. The only way to fix the problem is to delete the service profile and start again with the proper MAC and WWPN pool
association.
D. If you ignore the warning and press Yes, the association fails because no MAC address is assigned
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Which transceiver allows 40 GB Ethernet Connectivity by leveraging a single pair of multimode fibers?
A. OSFP-40G-SR4
B. OSFP-H40G-CU
C. FET-40G
D. QSFP-40G0SR0BD
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Which three CLI configuration commands are for port profile as a private VLAN on Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch?
(Choose 3)
A. Switch (config-port-prof) # switch port private-vlan trunk allowed vlan vlan-range
B. Switch (Config) # port-profile type vethernet name
C. Switch (config-port-porf) # switch port mode private-vlan host promiscuous
D. Switch (config-port-porf) # switch port Private-vlan mapping primary_vlan add scondary_vlan
E. Switch (config-port-porf) # switch port Private-vlan host-association primary_vlan secondary_vlan
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 6
Which two statements about import and export route control in an ACI fabric are true? (Choose two)
A. Prefixes learned from OSPF/EIGRP L3Outs are never permitted inbound by default
B. Prefixes learned from BGP L3outs cannot be filtered inbound
C. Prefixes permitted inbound are redistributed into MP-BGP at the ingress leaf
D. Export route control controls if the prefixes are redistributed from MP-BGP to the egress leaf
E. By default import route control is always enabled while export route control is always disabled
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 7
Refer to the Exhibit. Many tools are available to troubleshoot an ACI fabric. Which tool is this sample output from?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q7A. Traffic map
B. iPing
C. traceroute
D. atomic counters
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which three statements about ip source guard are true? (Choose 3) A. IP source guard is dependent upon DHCP
snooping to build and maintain the IP-MAC-Address binding table or upon manual maintenance of static IP-source
entries.
B. IP source guard requires that DHCP snooping is disabled.
C. By default, IP source guard is enabled on all interfaces.
D. IP source guard limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC-Address binding table
entry or static IP source entry
E. When you first enable IP source guard on an interface, you may experience disruption in IP traffic until the hosts on
the interface receive a new IP address from a DHCP server
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 9
Which three options are SDN Southbound protocols? (Choose three)
A. API
B. OVSDB
C. OpenFlow
D. Puppet
E. PCEP
F. VXLAN
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 10
Which statement about updating the service profile is true?
A. Updating service profile templates can have vNIC and vHBA templates that are lnitial templates.
B. Updating service profile templates cannot have vNIC and vHBA templates that are lnitial templates
C. Changes made to a vNIC templat that is an Updating template are not propagated to the service profile if the service
profile templat is lnitial.
D. Updating service profile templates can only be applied to an existing service profile.
E. Changes made to a vNIC template that is an lnitial template are propagated to the service profole if the service profile
template is Updating
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output, what is the most likely reason for the failure of the iSCSI boot?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q11A. There is no gateway configured on the iSCSI vNIC.
B. The LUN is not masked correctly on the storage array.
C. CHAP authentication is not configured correctly.
D. The latency between the imitator and target is too high.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps must be taken to add NFS storage to the Cisco UCS domain ? (Choose 3) n ACI
environment from the left onto the correct d
A. Configure fabric interconnect A and B to Ethernet switching mode.
B. Configure Eth1/17 as a unified storage port.
C. Configure Eth1/17 as an appliance port.
D. Configure a QoS policy for NFS storage.
E. Create a LAN cloud VLAN on fabric A and fabric B.
F. Create an appliance VLAN on fabric A and fabric B.
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 13
Which two statements about multicast routing are true? (Choose 2)
A. You can define RPF routes for multicast when you want multicast data to diverge from the unicast traffic path
B. Multicast routes are used to directly forward traffic without making RPF checks
C. You can define RPF routes for multicast on border routers to enable reverse path forwarding to an external network
D. RPF routes for multicast can be distributed
E. Ipv6 static multicast routes are supported
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Your application has reduced health score. Upon inspection, you find fault that impacts the health
score. The fault currently is the soaking lifecycle state. Which 2 options are possible next steps while in this state?
(Choose 2)lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q14A. The condition ceased by it self and goes into the soaking-cleaning state.
B. The soaking timer expires and moves to the Raised severity level
C. Acknowledge the fault, which immediately clears it from the system
D. The condition ceases by itself an automatically clears the fault
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 15lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q15Refer to the exhibit. When adding an ASAv to the APIC , the user notices a fault raised on the device. Which cause of
this fault is the most likely?
A. The device package was never uploaded
B. The incorrect username and password was used
C. The configuration specified HTTP and not HTTPS
D. The configuration did not specify “apic” as the username
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 16
On which two features does ITD depend? (Choose two)
A. interface-vlan
B. IP SLA
C. BFD
D. WCCP
E. PBR
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 17
Which option is an commonly used network layer protocol in an loT environment?
A. RPL
B. AQMP
C. MQTT
D. XMPP
E. CoAP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about these commands is true? lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q18A. The outputs of the debug are redirected on file test on the “log” directory.
B. The outputs of the debug are redirected to the logging buffer.
C. The command does not have an effect unless you configure “debug enable”.
D. If you are on a console connection, the outputs are shown after the event occurs.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. When the engineer tried to check CoPP on the switch, the engineer observed the error that is
shown in the exhibit. Which option describes the reason for the displayed output?

lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q19

A. The Cisco NX-OS version that is running does not support CoPP.
B. The CoPP feature is not enabled on this switch
C. The CoPP CLI is available from the default VDC
D. CoPP is enabled by default but not configured.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 20
Which statement about soft pinning is incorrect?
A. If no uplink Ethernet port channel is configured with all VLANs on the VNIC. Cisco UCS Manager drops the traffic for
all of the VLANs on the VNIC.
B. When the VLAN validation fails, a VLAN mismatch fault with a severity of warning appears.
C. It is the default behavior Cisco UCS.
D. Cisco UCS Manager pins the VNIC to an uplink Ethernet port or port channel according to VLAN membership
criteria.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 21
Which mode must the Cisco MDS VSAN be configured for so that it interoperates correctly with a Brocade Fibre
Channel switch that is configured for interop mode?
A. interop mode 2
B. interop mode 4
C. interop mode 3
D. native mode
E. interop mode 1
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 22
After VTEP devices are established BGP neighbor adjacencies with other VTEPs or with internal BGP route reflector,
which three pieces of information are exchanged through BGP? (Choose 3)
A. Layer 3 VNI
B. VPNv4 prefixes
C. Router MAC address
D. VTEP peer list
E. VTEP address.
F. MD5 Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES) key
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 23
Which feature in ACI permits the user to specify that HTTP and HTTPS traffic between an L3out EPG and an internal
EPG is sent to a firewall , and SSH and Telnet traffic between the L3Out and the internal EPG bypasses the firewall?
A. policy-based redirect
B. Layer 4 -Layer 7 function profile
C. vzAny contract
D. contracts and filters
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about VPC member ports on this switch is true?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q24A. VPC ports are error disabled.
B. VPC ports are suspended.
C. Only Orphan ports stay operational.
D. VPC port status remains unchanged.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. Based on this portion of an MDS ISCSI configuration, which two statements are true? (Choose 2)lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q25A. The fc-lun 0x0000 mapping to iscsi-lun 0x0000 is not permitted.
B. The ISCSI initiator that connects to target name iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 will see two LUNs numbered as 2 and 4.
C. The ISCSI initiator and the ISCSI target iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 must be in the same zone before LUNs are
available to the host.
D. The ISCSI initiator at nme iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t2 has access to only one LUN.
E. The ISCSI initiator that connects to targets name iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 will see two LUNs as number 0 and 1.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit Server 1 and Server 2 are on the same VLAN but cannot reach each other. Which option describes
the reason?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q26A. Interface VLAN (SVI) must be configured for this VLAN
B. VLAN is not allowed on the peer link.
C. VLAN is not on Fabric Path mode.
D. Type2 inconsistency prevents the communication.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Which two options can be used for server pool qualifications? (Choose two)
A. chassis model
B. RAID controller
C. firmware version
D. CPU stepping
E. memory speed
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 28
Which option is the advantage of Cisco ACE SSL Offload?
A. Export cipher suite
B. Decentralized certificate management
C. SSL encryption only
D. Front-end SSL
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 29
STP provides a loop-free network at the Layer 2 level. Layer 2 LAN ports send and receive STP frames at regular
intervals. Network devices do not forward these frames but use the frames to construct a loop-free path. Which option is
the name of these frames?
A. bridge protocol data units
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol frames
C. Link Layer Discovery Protocol frames
D. runt frames
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. Corporate ABC want to implement control by allowing authorized virtual machine MAC addresses to
send traffic to the Internet. The administrator wants to add this MAC ACL on Nexus7k-1 to achieve the task: (Choose 2)
[Configuration Output] Nexus7k-1: Mac access-list mac-ad Permit 0050.561f.73d3 0000. 00ff.ffff any ! Interface e1/1
Mac access-group mac-ad

lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q30

A. The MAC address and mask do not match.
B. The MAC ACL cannot be applied to egress traffic.
C. This command is wrong to apply this ACL under interface.
D. The sequence number is missing from the ACL.
E. The MAC ACL is not supported on Cisco nexus 7000 Series.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 31
Which two server models support single-wire management for Cisco UCS C-Series integration with Cisco UCS
Manager? (Choose 2)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2 server
B. Cisco UCS C250 M2 server
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2 server
D. Cisco UCS C240 M3 server
E. Cisco UCS C240 M2 server
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 32
Which option is required by atomic counters to be leveraged in troubleshooting endpoint connecticity?
A. Endpoints must be in different endpoint groups
B. Endpoints must connect to different leaf switches
C. Endpoints must connect to the same leaf switch
D. Endpoints must be in different VRFs
E. Endpoints muts be in different bridge domains
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 33
Which two options are advantages of deploying Ethernet-based FCoE switches such as the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
Switches beyond the access layer? (Choose 2)
A. lower overall throughout compared to native Fibre Channel switches
B. flexibility to support file (NAS) and block (ISCSI and FCoE) storage traffic
C. High-performance Ethernet-based FCoE switches cannot be used in a dedicated SAN core
D. requirement for traffic isolation with dedicated links and storage VDCs is no longer required
E. plans that include 40 and 100 Gigabit Ethernet speeds
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 34
Which two statements about the Fibre Channel over Ethernet Virtual Link Establishment are true? (Choose 2)
A. FLOGI/FDISC ACCEPT is part of the FCoE protocol.
B. Fibre Channel commands are part of the FIP protocol.
C. VLAN discovery is part of FIP protocol.
D. FCF discovery is part FCoE protocol.
E. FLOGI/FDISC is part of the FIP protocol.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 35
Which two connectivity modes does Cisco RISE support? (Choose two)
A. Directly connected. No virtual port channel is supported.
B. Indirectly connected. Only Layer 3 adjacent.
C. Indirectly connected. Only Layer 2 adjacent
D. Indirectly connected. Layer 2 and Layer 3 adjacent.
E. Directly connected. Virtual port channel is supported.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 36
Which three options are valid local disk configuration policies? (Choose 3)
A. RAID 40
B. RAID 60
C. RAID 7
D. RAID 30
E. RAID 50
F. RAID 6
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 37
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2 connectivity between separate Layer 2
domains, while keeping these domains independent and preserving the fault isolation, resiliency, and load-balancing
benefits of an IP-based interconnection. Which statements are true about OTV Adjacency Server? (Choose 2)
A. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with unicast-only transport.
B. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with multicast-enabled transport.
C. Each OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to first register with the Adjacency Server.
D. Each OTV device trying to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to be configured as an Adjacency Server.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibits. After you upgrade Cisco UCS firmware, some of your blades have these error messages. Which
description of the problem is true?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q38A. Storage provisioning is not configured
B. VNIC template must be converted to updating.
C. Some components are deprecated.
D. Service profile requires as connectivity policy
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 39
Which option is a data modeling language used to model configuration and state data of network elements.
A. SNMPv4
B. YANG
C. RESTCONF
D. NETCONF
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. Your application has a reduced health score.Upon inspection,you find a fault that impacts the health
score. The fault currently is in the soaking lifecycle stare. Which two options are possible next steps while in this state?
(Choose two)lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q40A. Acknowledge the fault. which immediately clears it from the system
B. Once the soaking timer expires the fault ceases and no change is expected in sevenity level.
C. The condition ceases by itself and goes into the soaking-clearing state
D. The condition ceases by itself and automatically clears the fault
E. The soaking timer expires and moves to the Raised sevenity
Correct Answer: CE

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge
Exam Name: SMB Specialization for Engineers
Exam Code: 700-501
Total Questions: 50 Q&As
700-501 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which three competitive advantages does the Cisco Unified Computing System provide? (Choose three.)
A. Ease of planning via the CSIM capacity modeling tool.
B. Supports only rack server models to reduce cost.
C. Greater virtual desktop density without performance impact.
D. Supports only blade server models to reduce system complexity.
E. Lower cost for compute plus network infrastructure.
F. Simple operation; start in minutes, scale in seconds.
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 2
Which three customer challenges do Cisco architectures help to solve? (Choose three.)
A. Increase ROI
B. Reduce independence
C. Provide creative solutions
D. Lower costs
E. Boost productivity
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
When LAN connectivity is designed which option increases high availability and minimizes network administration?
A. integrated switch in WAN router
B. stacked switch design
C. multiple switch design
D. single external switch design
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two IT solution characteristics do small and midsize business customers prefer? 700-501 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Solutions that will increase employee morale.
B. Flexibility; devices can be added easily in the future.
C. Enterprisegrade functionality; complexity is not a concern.
D. Simple devices that work well together right out of the box.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which three options are features of the Cisco Validated Design Program? (Choose three.)
A. Onsite consulting from Cisco Advanced Services engineers.
B. Design guides organized by solution, technology, and architecture.
C. Details on guidelines and practices for different customer scenarios.
D. Specific guidance based on your customer’s current environment.
E. System and solution designs that are documented and tested.
F. 24×7 phone support on network design questions.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
Which two options are advantages of Cisco Data Center solutions over the competition? (Choose two.)
A. Embedded self service
B. Endtoend optimization
C. Scalability without complexity
D. Seamless installation
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
How many virtual machines can VSPEX preconfigured solutions can scale to?
A. 125
B. 150
C. 50
D. 100
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS ESeries Servers
B. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 5000
D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
E. Cisco UCS CSeries Servers
F. Cisco Nexus 3048
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which two benefits are delivered by Cisco Telepresence? 700-501 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Experience is integrated.
B. Large files can be delivered between locations.
C. User experiences are unified.
D. Any endpoint can be used.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which two benefits does the Cisco FlexPod Design Guide provide? (Choose two.)
A. Provides guidance on EMC VNXe storage sizing.
B. Provides a onesizefitsall solution for ease of configuration and deployment.
C. Helps customers mitigate the risk and uncertainty involved in planning designing, and implementing virtualization.
D. Documents stepbystep instructions for installing and configuring all components, including thirdparty applications.
E. Provides a more predictive and adaptable architecture capable of meeting and exceeding customers’ IT demands.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 11
Which design practice is the best to reduce wireless CCI?
A. Place adjacent access points on different channels.
B. Place adjacent access points on the same channel.
C. Eliminate all signal overlap between access points.
D. Configure access points with the lowest supported data rate.
E. Place adjacent access points on nonoverlapping channels.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Which three options are competitive advantages of Cisco wireless solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Improved WLAN reliability is provided
B. Integrated security with wireless threat detection and mitigation is provided.
C. Access points support only the centralized deployment model.
D. Simplified and intuitive WLAN management and troubleshooting are provided.
E. Access points support only the distributed deployment model
F. Management and administration via Cisco SIO make deployment easy.
Correct Answer: ABD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Exam Code: 300-160
Total Questions: 402 Q&As
300-160 dumps
QUESTION 1
Endpoints are configured for both H.323 and SIP using the same URI and Cisco VCS settings, but the endpoints register only as H.323 endpoints. What is causing this issue?
A. A firewall is blocking all traffic from the endpoints to the Cisco VCS.
B. The Cisco VCS has no SIP domains configured.
C. The Cisco VCS is blocking the endpoints because of duplicate ID entries.
D. The endpoints do not have the SIP option key installed.
E. SIP does not work, because SIP is used for Cisco Unified Communications Manager registration only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are troubleshooting video quality issues on a Cisco TelePresence TX9000 Series system. Which CLI command shows the total number of lost video packets and the received jitter during a call in progress?
A. show call statistics video
B. show call statistics all
C. show call statistics detail
D. show call statistics video detail
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
URI dialing is enabled between two clusters with the default options. The engineer that set up the URI dialing verified that all was working properly. 300-160 dumps However, a user from one of the clusters cannot dial using URI to a user in the same cluster. What do you do to resolve this issue?
A. Verify the password that is used by the authentication under Intercluster Lookup Service configuration.
B. Find out if the URI address of the called user has a capital letter in the URI string.
C. Verify that Intercluster Lookup Service is set up correctly.
D. Verify USN Data Synchronization Status.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which alarm string purges all learned patterns from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. DuplicateLearnedPattern
B. SAFForwarderError
C. CCDIPReachableTimeOUT
D. CCDPSTNFailOverDurationTimeOUT
E. CCDLearnedPatternLimitReached
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager tool can you use to troubleshoot issues with international calling?
A. Cisco Prime
B. Cisco Deployment Tool
C. RTMT
D. Dialed Number Analyzer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which alarm string purges all learned patterns from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. DuplicateLearnedPattern
B. SAFForwarderError
C. CCDIPReachableTimeOUT
D. CCDPSTNFailOverDurationTimeOUT
E. CCDLearnedPatternLimitReached
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Refer to topology and Exhibits below:
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
What is the reason that this MGCP gateway is not registered with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. The primary server address is incorrect.
B. The MGCP domain name is incorrect on either the Cisco Unified Communications Manager or the router.
C. Backhaul/Redundant link port is incorrect
D. This MGCP gateway is not down; it is operational.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You implement multiple registrars for SIP trunks for the Cisco Unified Border Element to ensure redundant PSTN access, you fee receive an error that indicates that the registration server is invalid. 300-160 dumps Which two commands correct the problem? (Choose two.)
A. registrar 2 ipv4:1.1.1.1 expires 360
B. CUSP registrar 9 dns:cisco.com expires 60
C. no registrar 2 dns:cisco.com expires 60
D. registrar 20 dns:cisco.com
E. registrar 1 dns:cisco.com expires 180
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
What is a common reason that an IP Phone cannot get its configuration from Cisco Unified Communications Manager after it obtains the correct IP address information?
A. The DHCP scope is exhausted.
B. The DHCP server is not reachable.
C. The DHCP scope is on the wrong subnet.
D. The DHCP scope has the incorrect Option 150 or 66 defined.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command do you use to confirm that a router interlace is enabled for SAP?
A. show eigrp service-family ipv4 client details.
B. show ip interface details
C. show ip saf-service-family interface
D. show run
E. show eigrp service -family interface
F. show eigrp service-family lpv4 Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Users on your network report fast busy signals when they atlempt to place calls. While troubleshooting,you verify that the codecs are configured correctly and determine that the network carries up to 200 concurrent calls at different times of the day. Which two actions correct the problem? (Choose two).
A. Add more Cisco Unified Communications Managers to the cluster.
B. Add more DSPs to the NM-HD
C. Increase the number of sessions to the maximum allowed by system resources.
D. Implement an SRST-CMF gateway to improve resource allocation.
E. Add a Cisco Catalyst switch to the environment to increase port density
F. Bind the network PRIs to add additional bandwidth
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 12
Cisco Unified Mobile Connect has been enabled, but users are not able to switch an in-progress call from their mobile phone to their desk phone. You find out that the Resume softkey option does not appear on the desk phone after users hang up the call on their mobile phone. What do you do to resolve this issue?
A. Issue the progress_ind progress disable command in the gateway.
B. Issue the voice call disc-pi-off command in the gateway.
C. Enable mobile connect on the user profile.
D. Assign Resume softkey on the desk phone.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 437 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server.
What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
After the implementation of several different types of switches from different vendors, a network engineer notices that directly connected devices that use Cisco Discovery Protocol are not visible. 300-115 dumps
Which vendor-neutral protocol could be used to resolve this issue?
A. Local Area Mobility
B. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
C. NetFlow
D. Directed Response Protocol
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch.
Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch C receives VLAN information from the VTP server Switch A, but Switch B does not receive any VLAN information.
What is the most probable cause of this behavior?
A. Switch B is configured in transparent mode.
B. Switch B is configured with an access port to Switch A, while Switch C is configured with a trunk port to Switch B.
C. The VTP revision number of the Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Several new switches have been added to the existing network as VTP clients. All of the new switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. However, VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients.
What must be done to fix this?
A. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with “null” and then replace it with the new domain name.
B. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients.
C. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the existing network.
D. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. 300-115 dumps Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1 port?
A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
After implementing VTP, the extended VLANs are not being propagated to other VTP switches.
What should be configured for extended VLANs?
A. VTP does not support extended VLANs and should be manually added to all switches.
B. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.
C. VTP authentication is required when using extended VLANs because of their ability to cause network instability.
D. Ensure that all switches run the same Cisco IOS version. Extended VLANs will not propagate to different IOS versions when extended VLANs are in use.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate” and “backup.” 300-115 dumps
What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs. This command is configured globally: monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 8, 39, 52
What is the result of the implemented command?
A. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
B. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
C. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
D. The trunk’s native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
E. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships.
What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?
A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.
Correct Answer: A

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