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Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps, 400-201 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

The latest Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 exam dumps and exercises test questions and answers,These free exercises will help you improve 400-201 CCIE Service Provider test skills, We share 400-201 pdf for free to download and learn, and you can also watch 400-201 YouTube videos online! We share 40 real effective exam questions and answers for free if you want to get the full 400-201 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-201.html (Total questions:711 Q&A)->> updated throughout the year!Make sure you pass the exam easily!

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Latest effective Cisco 400-201 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which protocol provides fast link failure detection for all type of encapsulation?
A. Prefix Independent Convergence
B. Carrier delay
C. Non stop forwarding
D. Bidirectional forwarding detection
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which three counters from a show interface output indicate that data packets were dropped on that interface? (Choose
three.)
A. pause input
B. collisions
C. lost carrier
D. frame
E. runts
F. input error
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 3lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q3Refer to the exhibit Which PW type is negotiated?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5
F. Type 6
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 4
A network engineer observes increasing output drops on the serial interface. Which two solutions can be implemented
to minimize these drops? (Choose two.)
A. Increase the MTU size on the link.
B. Replace the serial cable between the connecting devices.
C. Turn on fast switching.
D. Increase the output hold queue size.
E. Implement priority queuing on slower serial links by configuring priority lists.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 5
Which two statements best describe the functionality of the BGP graceful restart capability? (Choose two.)
A. The peer router sends an end-of RIB message to the restarting router.
B. The peer router immediately removes the BGP routes that it learned from the restarting router from its BGP routing
table.
C. The restarting router does not remove any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires.
D. The router establishes BGP sessions with other routers and relearns the BGP routes from other routers that are also
capable of graceful restart. The restarting router waits to receive updates from the neighboring routers. When the
neighboring routers send end-of- RIB messages to indicate that they are done sending updates, the restarting router
starts sending its own updates.
E. The restarting router removes any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 6
The SP core supports PIM-SM for multicast traffic, but one of these routers is not able to see one of its PIM neighbors.
What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The router is an RP with high priority.
B. IGMP snooping is not enabled.
C. PIM sparse mode is not enabled on a participating multicast interface.
D. PIM protocols are not enabled in global configuration mode.
E. Auto-RP is not enabled on this network.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Which two statements about spanning tree path cost are true? (Choose two.)
A. The path cost can be changed for an interface using the spanning-tree cost command.
B. The path cost can be changed for an interface using the stp path-cost command.
C. The STP default path cost depends on the interface speed.
D. The STP default path cost is similar for all interface.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 8
Which BGP feature protects the external BGP peering session from CPU utilization-based attacks that use forged IP
packets?
A. BGP multihop
B. TTL security check
C. BGP FlowSpec
D. Secure BGP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
On Cisco IOS devices, which IS-IS feature reduces the convergence time for prefixes designated as high priority?
A. iSPF
B. advertise passive only
C. prefix prioritization
D. Fast-Forwarding
E. Route tagging
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 10lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q10Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has a requirement to enable MPLS TE tunnels on the network to be L3VPN
customers. Which MPLS TE feature allow the network engineer to configure MPLS TE LSPs by using a few CLI
commands?
A. AutoTunnel Mesh Groups on all P and PE routers
B. AutoTunnel Primary and Backup on all PE routers
C. AutoTunnel Primary and Backup on all P and PE routers
D. AutoTunnel Mesh Groups on all PE routers
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which type of IPv6 address does OSPFv3 use to communicate with OSPFv3 neighbors?
A. link-local
B. site-local
C. global
D. unique local
E. anycast
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q12Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct?
A. If the labeled packet arrives with the bottom label of 27, the label is replaced with label 38 and the packet is sent out
on the Gigabitethernet 0/0
B. If the labeled packet arrives with the bottom label of 27, all of the labels are replaced with label 38 and the packet is
sent out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface
C. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 27,the label is replaced with the label 38 and the packet is sent
out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface
D. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 27, all of the labels are replaced with label 38 and the packet is
sent out on the Gigabitethernet 0/0 interface.
E. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 38,the label is replaced with label 27 and the packet is sent out
on the GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface
F. If the labeled packet arrives with the topmost label of 38, all labels are replaced with the label 27 and the packet is
sent out on the GogabitEthernet 0/0/ interface.
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 13
Which three are optional extensions of the Frame Relay Local Management Interface specification? (Choose three) A.
Switched virtual circuit
B. Virtual circuit status
C. Simple flow control
D. Multicasting
E. Permanent virtual circuit
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation: Optional LMI Extensions:
The LMI specification also defines several optional extensions:
*
Global addressing convention
*
Multicast capability
*
A simple flow control mechanism
*
Ability for the network to communicate a PVC\\’s CIR to the subscriber in a Status message
*
A new message type that allows the network to announce PVC status changes without prompting from the subscriber
Implementors may build any, all, or none of these features into their networks.


QUESTION 14
During the modem boot process, how does the modem acquire the downstream channel?
A. The modem is commanded by the CMTS to set to the specific channel.
B. The modem uses the default value in the broadcom chipset.
C. The modem tuner sets a level as defined by the DOCSIS specification.
D. The modem tuner scans the downstream spectrum until digital QAM modulated signal is encountered
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 15
Which two features prevent routing loops between the OSPF sites of a customer when the sites are multihomed or a
backdoor link is used between the sites? (Choose two.)
A. sham link
B. down bit
C. virtual link
D. Site of Origin
E. domain tag
Correct Answer: BE
If a route sent from a PE router to a CE router could then be received by another PE router from one of its own CE
router, there are chances of routing loops. This situation is possible when a “backdoor link” connects two CE routers
connected to two different PE routers. To prevent this, the PE sets the DN bit in any LSA that it sends to the CE router.
If the PE router receives any LSA with DN bit set, it ignores the LSA.
1) DN bit:
When a PE router sends a Type-3 LSA to a CE router, the DN bit in LSA Options field must be set. Now if the CE router
sends the Type-3 LSA to other PE router(s), the PE router will not redistribute it further.
When a PE router needs to distribute a route to a CE router which comes from the outside of CE router\\’s OSPF
domain, the PE router presents itself as an ASBR and distributes the route in Type-5 LSA. The DN bit must be set in the
LSA.
The Options field is present in all LSAs. The Options field is 1-byte long as follows- DN O DC EA N/P MC E MT
2) Route Tags (Domain Tags):
In some implementations (where DN bit is not set), Domain Tags (named by Cisco) are used to ensure Type-5
LSAs generated by a PE router will be ignored by other PE routers that may receive it. The value of Domain tag is
configurable and arbitrary if not set. Hence must be distinct from other OSPF tags


QUESTION 16
In the context of GMPLS, LMP stands for:
A. Load Management Protocol
B. Label Management Protocol
C. Loop Management Protocol
D. Link Management Protocol
Correct Answer: D
The Generalized Multi-Protocol Label Switching (GMPLS)[1] is a protocol suite extending MPLS to manage further
classes of interfaces and switching technologies other than packet interfaces and switching, such as time division
multiplex,
layer-2 switch, wavelength switch and fiber-switch.
GMPLS is composed of three main protocols:
Resource Reservation Protocol with Traffic Engineering extensions (RSVP-TE) signaling protocol.[5][6]Open Shortest
Path First with Traffic Engineering extensions (OSPF-TE) routing protocol.[7][8] Link Management Protocol (LMP).[9]


QUESTION 17
IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS
domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6
multicast traffic only to those ports that want to receive it?
A. IGMP snooping
B. MLD snooping
C. MLD querier
D. IGMP version 3 E. MLD version 2
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
Which SONET protocol layer is in charge of clock synchronization and timing issues?
A. Photonic
B. Section
C. Path
D. Line
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Which option propagates SRLG membership information to the network?
A. BGP attribute
B. IGP extension
C. RSVP extension
D. LDP extension
E. PIM extension
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 20
A service provider is using point-to-multipoint TE to forward MPLS traffic from one source to multiple destinations, what
is a restriction of using this method?
A. Destinations must be manually added and removed on the TE tail-end router
B. Multicast traffic must be implemented using PIM sparse mode
C. Point-to-multipoint TE does not support policy-based routing
D. Only node protection is supported on point-to-multipoint TE LSPs
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q21Inbound Infrastructure ACLs are configured to protect the SP network. Which three types of traffic should be filtered in
the infrastructure ACLs? (Choose three.)
A. traffic from a source with an IP address that is within 239.255.0.0/16
B. FTP traffic destined for internal routers
C. IPsec traffic that at an internal router
D. traffic from a source with an IP address that is within 162.238.0.0/16
E. EBGP traffic that peers with edge routers
Correct Answer: ABD
With the use of the protocols and addresses identified, the infrastructure ACL can be built to permit the protocols and
protect the addresses. In addition to direct protection, the ACL also provides a first line of defense against certain types
of invalid traffic on the Internet:
-RFC 1918 space must be denied. (RFC1918 describes a set of network ranges set aside for so-called “private” use.)
-Packets with a source address that fall under special-use address space, as defined in RFC 3330, must be denied.
-Anti-spoof filters must be applied. (Your address space must never be the source of packets from outside your AS.)


QUESTION 22
The layer 2 protocol used by POS technology offers a standardized way for mapping IP packets into SONET/ SDH
payloads. Select the correct sequence of POS operation:
1) Data is scrambled and synchronous mapping takes place by octet into the SONET/SDH frame.
2) Encapsulated via Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) takes place framing information is added with High-level
Data Link Control (HDLC).
3) Gaps between frames are filled with flags, set to value 7E.
4) Octet stuffing occurs if any flags or resultant escape characters (of value 7D) are found in the data.
5) Data is segmented into an IP datagram with its 20-byte IP header.
A. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
C. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
D. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Correct Answer: D
The proper order of operation of PoS is:
When transmitting:
IP -> PPP -> FCS generation -> Byte stuffing -> Scrambling -> SONET/SDH framing When receiving:
SONET/SDH framing -> Descrambling -> Byte destuffing -> FCS detection -> PPP -> IP Remote


QUESTION 23
Which descriptions of Netflow is correct? (Choose three.)
A. By default,Netflow records bidirectional IP traffic flow.
B. Netflow answers questions regarding IP traffiC. who, what, where, when, and how
C. Netflow accounts for both transit traffic and traffic destined for the router.
D. Netflow returns the subinterface information in the flow records.
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 24
Which option describes a benefits of IPv6 VPN Provider Edge?
A. Provider support for intra-AS and CSC scenarios
B. Uses separate signaling plane, which provides more security than IPv4
C. BGP is the preferred routing protocol for connecting two SPs.
D. No requirement for a separate signaling plane
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 25
Which of the following descriptions about IP spoofing is correct?
A. IP destination address is forged
B. IP source address is forged
C. IP TCP destination port is forged
D. None of above
E. IP TCP source port is forged
Correct Answer: B
1.13. Security in core


QUESTION 26
Which option is the SONET frame format of the STM-4 SDH circuit?
A. STS-1
B. STS-192
C. STS-12
D. STS-3
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q27Inbound infrastructure ACLs are configured to protect the SP network. Which two types of traffic should be permitted in
the infrastructure ACL? (Choose two.)
A. traffic destined for network of 172.30.0.0/16
B. traffic source from network of 172.30.0.0/16
C. traffic destined for network of 162.238.0.0/16
D. traffic source from network of 162.238.0.0/16
E. traffic destined for network of 232.16.0.0/16
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 28
In an infrastructure As a service cloud deployment model, which two components are managed by the customer?
(Choose two)
A. hardware (server)
B. Network storage
C. Virtualization
D. Operating System
E. Runtime application
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 29lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q29Refer to the exhibit Customer ABC is peering with two service providers for internet access. In order to prevent the AS
100 from becoming a transit AS between ISP_1 and ISP_2. Which BGP configuration must be applied to achieve this
goal?
A. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY
permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor
1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
B. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
C. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
D. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit
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10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor
1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
E. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2
route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 30
In the Inter-AS VPN deployment shown in the diagram, what is the Next Hop address of MP-IBGP Update for CE4
network received at PE-R2?lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q30A. ASBR-2 50.0.0.3
B. PE-R2 50.0.0.2
C. PE-R4 50.0.0.4
D. ASBR-1 50.0.0.1
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 31
In which way does the DS-Lite IPv6 transitioning mechanism differ from IPv6 Dual-Stack?
A. DS-Lite is a combination of tunnel and translation technologies.
B. DS-Lite is a transition technology that gives full IPv6 connectivity for IPv6 capable hosts that are on the IPv4 Internet
but have no native connection to an IPv6 network.
C. DS-Lite is an automatic tunnel where the tunnel destination is determined by the IPv4 address extracted from the
IPv6 address that starts with the prefix 2002::/16.
D. DS-Lite is a stateless tunneling mechanism with a lightweight and secure manner without requiring upgrades to
existing IPv4 access network infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 32
A service provider is offering VoIP services level agreement to customers. Which configuration provides validation that
the service level agreement has been honored?
A. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
B. ipsla 999 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forerver start-time now
C. ipsla 99 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
D. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever start-time now
E. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
F. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever stat-time now
Correct Answer: F


QUESTION 33
Which two Any Transport over MPLS (AToM) traffic encapsulations require the use of a control word? (Choose two)
A. HDLC
B. ATM AAL5
C. PPP
D. Ethernet VLAN
E. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: BE
AToM Header
The AToM header is 4 bytes (control word). The control word is optional for Ethernet, PPP, HDLC, and cell relay
transport types. However, the control word is required for Frame Relay, and ATM AAL5 transport types.


QUESTION 34
Which statement about IPv6 security is true?
A. Reconnaissance attacks are easier to do in IPv6 compared to IPv4.
B. IPv6 amplification attacks can happen using IPv6 broadcast address.
C. RA-guard feature is used to block rogue RAs.
D. ICMP policies on firewalls do not need to be changed for IPv6 because ICMP is Layer 3 agnostic.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 35
Which command will display the MPLS label binding for IP prefix 1.1.1.0 on the router?
A. All of the above.
B. show tag-switching tdp binding 1.1.1.0/24
C. show tag-switching tdp bindings neighbor 1.1.1.0
D. A and B both will show the binding.
E. show tag-switching interface e0/0
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 36
What Cisco IOS feature examines packets received to make sure that the source address and interface are in the
routing table and match the interface that the packet was received on?
A. MPLS Traffic Engineering
B. Receive ACL
C. Unicast RPF
D. Authentication
E. Dynamic access-lists
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question - q37An MPLS VPN service has been provisioned for an ABC customer. Based on the output from the VRF BGP
configuration of PE1 and PE2, which statement describes the route exchange between ABC site 1 and site 2?
A. Only CE1 will be able to install CE2 BGP updates in its BGP table.
B. Only CE2 will be able to install CE1 BGP updates in its BGP table.
C. CE1 can install the CE2 subnets in its BGP table and CE2 can install the CE1 subnets its BGP table.
D. CE1 cannot install the CE2 subnets in its BGP table and CE2 cannot install the CE1 subnets its BGP table.
E. “as-override” feature cannot be used in this scenario.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 38
A network engineer is responsible for provisioning LDP and IGP over the IP core network to maintain the MPLS
functionality as a day-to-day task. The IP engineer is looking for automation opportunities. Which feature allows the LDP
protocol to be automatically enabled on interfaces that run IGP on the routers?
A. MPLS LDP autoconfiguration
B. MPLS LDP discovery
C. MPLS LDP-IGP synchronization
D. MPLS LDP session protection
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. Why is router 1 unable to ping 10.10.100.2 from vrf cust1?
A. Because Multi-VRF support is not enabled
B. Because address-family ipv4 is missing from the VRF statement
C. Because of an incorrect interface configuration
D. Because of a missing BGP configuration
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
What is a limitation of implementing uRPF?
A. Domain name must be defined.
B. MPLS LDP must be enabled.
C. BGP routing protocol must be running.
D. Symmetrical routing is required.
E. Named access-lists must be configured.
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco CCIE 400-151 dumps, 400-151 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

The latest Cisco CCIE 400-151 exam dumps and exercises test questions and answers, These free exercises will help you improve 400-151 CCIE Data Center test skills,We share 400-151 pdf for free to download and learn, and you can also watch 400-151 YouTube videos online! We share 40 real effective exam questions and answers for free if you want to get the full 400-151 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-151.html (Total questions:491 Q&A)->> updated throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam easily!

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Latest effective Cisco 400-151 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which two parameters must be identical per interface while configuring virtual port channels? (Choose two)
A. network access control
B. Bridge Assurance setting
C. maximum transmission unit
D. Protocol Independent Multicast
E. IP Source Guard
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the management interface monitoring policy?
A. to monitor the management interface counts for errors and drops
B. to prevent VM traffic form being black-holed during a cluster switchover
C. to sync MAC address tables between peer fabric interconnects
D. to ensure that management interface of the managing fabric interconnect can reach the gateway
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q3A. The service profile in organization IS-SecureESX10 is trying to be associated to chassis 1 blade 7
B. The error is triggered when the service profile pn is being associated.
C. The only way to fix the problem is to delete the service profile and start again with the proper MAC and WWPN pool
association.
D. If you ignore the warning and press Yes, the association fails because no MAC address is assigned
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Which transceiver allows 40 GB Ethernet Connectivity by leveraging a single pair of multimode fibers?
A. OSFP-40G-SR4
B. OSFP-H40G-CU
C. FET-40G
D. QSFP-40G0SR0BD
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Which three CLI configuration commands are for port profile as a private VLAN on Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch?
(Choose 3)
A. Switch (config-port-prof) # switch port private-vlan trunk allowed vlan vlan-range
B. Switch (Config) # port-profile type vethernet name
C. Switch (config-port-porf) # switch port mode private-vlan host promiscuous
D. Switch (config-port-porf) # switch port Private-vlan mapping primary_vlan add scondary_vlan
E. Switch (config-port-porf) # switch port Private-vlan host-association primary_vlan secondary_vlan
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 6
Which two statements about import and export route control in an ACI fabric are true? (Choose two)
A. Prefixes learned from OSPF/EIGRP L3Outs are never permitted inbound by default
B. Prefixes learned from BGP L3outs cannot be filtered inbound
C. Prefixes permitted inbound are redistributed into MP-BGP at the ingress leaf
D. Export route control controls if the prefixes are redistributed from MP-BGP to the egress leaf
E. By default import route control is always enabled while export route control is always disabled
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 7
Refer to the Exhibit. Many tools are available to troubleshoot an ACI fabric. Which tool is this sample output from?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q7A. Traffic map
B. iPing
C. traceroute
D. atomic counters
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which three statements about ip source guard are true? (Choose 3) A. IP source guard is dependent upon DHCP
snooping to build and maintain the IP-MAC-Address binding table or upon manual maintenance of static IP-source
entries.
B. IP source guard requires that DHCP snooping is disabled.
C. By default, IP source guard is enabled on all interfaces.
D. IP source guard limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC-Address binding table
entry or static IP source entry
E. When you first enable IP source guard on an interface, you may experience disruption in IP traffic until the hosts on
the interface receive a new IP address from a DHCP server
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 9
Which three options are SDN Southbound protocols? (Choose three)
A. API
B. OVSDB
C. OpenFlow
D. Puppet
E. PCEP
F. VXLAN
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 10
Which statement about updating the service profile is true?
A. Updating service profile templates can have vNIC and vHBA templates that are lnitial templates.
B. Updating service profile templates cannot have vNIC and vHBA templates that are lnitial templates
C. Changes made to a vNIC templat that is an Updating template are not propagated to the service profile if the service
profile templat is lnitial.
D. Updating service profile templates can only be applied to an existing service profile.
E. Changes made to a vNIC template that is an lnitial template are propagated to the service profole if the service profile
template is Updating
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output, what is the most likely reason for the failure of the iSCSI boot?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q11A. There is no gateway configured on the iSCSI vNIC.
B. The LUN is not masked correctly on the storage array.
C. CHAP authentication is not configured correctly.
D. The latency between the imitator and target is too high.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps must be taken to add NFS storage to the Cisco UCS domain ? (Choose 3) n ACI
environment from the left onto the correct d
A. Configure fabric interconnect A and B to Ethernet switching mode.
B. Configure Eth1/17 as a unified storage port.
C. Configure Eth1/17 as an appliance port.
D. Configure a QoS policy for NFS storage.
E. Create a LAN cloud VLAN on fabric A and fabric B.
F. Create an appliance VLAN on fabric A and fabric B.
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 13
Which two statements about multicast routing are true? (Choose 2)
A. You can define RPF routes for multicast when you want multicast data to diverge from the unicast traffic path
B. Multicast routes are used to directly forward traffic without making RPF checks
C. You can define RPF routes for multicast on border routers to enable reverse path forwarding to an external network
D. RPF routes for multicast can be distributed
E. Ipv6 static multicast routes are supported
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Your application has reduced health score. Upon inspection, you find fault that impacts the health
score. The fault currently is the soaking lifecycle state. Which 2 options are possible next steps while in this state?
(Choose 2)lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q14A. The condition ceased by it self and goes into the soaking-cleaning state.
B. The soaking timer expires and moves to the Raised severity level
C. Acknowledge the fault, which immediately clears it from the system
D. The condition ceases by itself an automatically clears the fault
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 15lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q15Refer to the exhibit. When adding an ASAv to the APIC , the user notices a fault raised on the device. Which cause of
this fault is the most likely?
A. The device package was never uploaded
B. The incorrect username and password was used
C. The configuration specified HTTP and not HTTPS
D. The configuration did not specify “apic” as the username
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 16
On which two features does ITD depend? (Choose two)
A. interface-vlan
B. IP SLA
C. BFD
D. WCCP
E. PBR
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 17
Which option is an commonly used network layer protocol in an loT environment?
A. RPL
B. AQMP
C. MQTT
D. XMPP
E. CoAP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about these commands is true? lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q18A. The outputs of the debug are redirected on file test on the “log” directory.
B. The outputs of the debug are redirected to the logging buffer.
C. The command does not have an effect unless you configure “debug enable”.
D. If you are on a console connection, the outputs are shown after the event occurs.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. When the engineer tried to check CoPP on the switch, the engineer observed the error that is
shown in the exhibit. Which option describes the reason for the displayed output?

lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q19

A. The Cisco NX-OS version that is running does not support CoPP.
B. The CoPP feature is not enabled on this switch
C. The CoPP CLI is available from the default VDC
D. CoPP is enabled by default but not configured.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 20
Which statement about soft pinning is incorrect?
A. If no uplink Ethernet port channel is configured with all VLANs on the VNIC. Cisco UCS Manager drops the traffic for
all of the VLANs on the VNIC.
B. When the VLAN validation fails, a VLAN mismatch fault with a severity of warning appears.
C. It is the default behavior Cisco UCS.
D. Cisco UCS Manager pins the VNIC to an uplink Ethernet port or port channel according to VLAN membership
criteria.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 21
Which mode must the Cisco MDS VSAN be configured for so that it interoperates correctly with a Brocade Fibre
Channel switch that is configured for interop mode?
A. interop mode 2
B. interop mode 4
C. interop mode 3
D. native mode
E. interop mode 1
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 22
After VTEP devices are established BGP neighbor adjacencies with other VTEPs or with internal BGP route reflector,
which three pieces of information are exchanged through BGP? (Choose 3)
A. Layer 3 VNI
B. VPNv4 prefixes
C. Router MAC address
D. VTEP peer list
E. VTEP address.
F. MD5 Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES) key
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 23
Which feature in ACI permits the user to specify that HTTP and HTTPS traffic between an L3out EPG and an internal
EPG is sent to a firewall , and SSH and Telnet traffic between the L3Out and the internal EPG bypasses the firewall?
A. policy-based redirect
B. Layer 4 -Layer 7 function profile
C. vzAny contract
D. contracts and filters
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about VPC member ports on this switch is true?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q24A. VPC ports are error disabled.
B. VPC ports are suspended.
C. Only Orphan ports stay operational.
D. VPC port status remains unchanged.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. Based on this portion of an MDS ISCSI configuration, which two statements are true? (Choose 2)lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q25A. The fc-lun 0x0000 mapping to iscsi-lun 0x0000 is not permitted.
B. The ISCSI initiator that connects to target name iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 will see two LUNs numbered as 2 and 4.
C. The ISCSI initiator and the ISCSI target iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 must be in the same zone before LUNs are
available to the host.
D. The ISCSI initiator at nme iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t2 has access to only one LUN.
E. The ISCSI initiator that connects to targets name iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 will see two LUNs as number 0 and 1.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit Server 1 and Server 2 are on the same VLAN but cannot reach each other. Which option describes
the reason?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q26A. Interface VLAN (SVI) must be configured for this VLAN
B. VLAN is not allowed on the peer link.
C. VLAN is not on Fabric Path mode.
D. Type2 inconsistency prevents the communication.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Which two options can be used for server pool qualifications? (Choose two)
A. chassis model
B. RAID controller
C. firmware version
D. CPU stepping
E. memory speed
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 28
Which option is the advantage of Cisco ACE SSL Offload?
A. Export cipher suite
B. Decentralized certificate management
C. SSL encryption only
D. Front-end SSL
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 29
STP provides a loop-free network at the Layer 2 level. Layer 2 LAN ports send and receive STP frames at regular
intervals. Network devices do not forward these frames but use the frames to construct a loop-free path. Which option is
the name of these frames?
A. bridge protocol data units
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol frames
C. Link Layer Discovery Protocol frames
D. runt frames
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. Corporate ABC want to implement control by allowing authorized virtual machine MAC addresses to
send traffic to the Internet. The administrator wants to add this MAC ACL on Nexus7k-1 to achieve the task: (Choose 2)
[Configuration Output] Nexus7k-1: Mac access-list mac-ad Permit 0050.561f.73d3 0000. 00ff.ffff any ! Interface e1/1
Mac access-group mac-ad

lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q30

A. The MAC address and mask do not match.
B. The MAC ACL cannot be applied to egress traffic.
C. This command is wrong to apply this ACL under interface.
D. The sequence number is missing from the ACL.
E. The MAC ACL is not supported on Cisco nexus 7000 Series.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 31
Which two server models support single-wire management for Cisco UCS C-Series integration with Cisco UCS
Manager? (Choose 2)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2 server
B. Cisco UCS C250 M2 server
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2 server
D. Cisco UCS C240 M3 server
E. Cisco UCS C240 M2 server
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 32
Which option is required by atomic counters to be leveraged in troubleshooting endpoint connecticity?
A. Endpoints must be in different endpoint groups
B. Endpoints must connect to different leaf switches
C. Endpoints must connect to the same leaf switch
D. Endpoints must be in different VRFs
E. Endpoints muts be in different bridge domains
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 33
Which two options are advantages of deploying Ethernet-based FCoE switches such as the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
Switches beyond the access layer? (Choose 2)
A. lower overall throughout compared to native Fibre Channel switches
B. flexibility to support file (NAS) and block (ISCSI and FCoE) storage traffic
C. High-performance Ethernet-based FCoE switches cannot be used in a dedicated SAN core
D. requirement for traffic isolation with dedicated links and storage VDCs is no longer required
E. plans that include 40 and 100 Gigabit Ethernet speeds
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 34
Which two statements about the Fibre Channel over Ethernet Virtual Link Establishment are true? (Choose 2)
A. FLOGI/FDISC ACCEPT is part of the FCoE protocol.
B. Fibre Channel commands are part of the FIP protocol.
C. VLAN discovery is part of FIP protocol.
D. FCF discovery is part FCoE protocol.
E. FLOGI/FDISC is part of the FIP protocol.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 35
Which two connectivity modes does Cisco RISE support? (Choose two)
A. Directly connected. No virtual port channel is supported.
B. Indirectly connected. Only Layer 3 adjacent.
C. Indirectly connected. Only Layer 2 adjacent
D. Indirectly connected. Layer 2 and Layer 3 adjacent.
E. Directly connected. Virtual port channel is supported.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 36
Which three options are valid local disk configuration policies? (Choose 3)
A. RAID 40
B. RAID 60
C. RAID 7
D. RAID 30
E. RAID 50
F. RAID 6
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 37
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2 connectivity between separate Layer 2
domains, while keeping these domains independent and preserving the fault isolation, resiliency, and load-balancing
benefits of an IP-based interconnection. Which statements are true about OTV Adjacency Server? (Choose 2)
A. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with unicast-only transport.
B. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with multicast-enabled transport.
C. Each OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to first register with the Adjacency Server.
D. Each OTV device trying to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to be configured as an Adjacency Server.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibits. After you upgrade Cisco UCS firmware, some of your blades have these error messages. Which
description of the problem is true?lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q38A. Storage provisioning is not configured
B. VNIC template must be converted to updating.
C. Some components are deprecated.
D. Service profile requires as connectivity policy
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 39
Which option is a data modeling language used to model configuration and state data of network elements.
A. SNMPv4
B. YANG
C. RESTCONF
D. NETCONF
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. Your application has a reduced health score.Upon inspection,you find a fault that impacts the health
score. The fault currently is in the soaking lifecycle stare. Which two options are possible next steps while in this state?
(Choose two)lead4pass 400-151 exam question - q40A. Acknowledge the fault. which immediately clears it from the system
B. Once the soaking timer expires the fault ceases and no change is expected in sevenity level.
C. The condition ceases by itself and goes into the soaking-clearing state
D. The condition ceases by itself and automatically clears the fault
E. The soaking timer expires and moves to the Raised sevenity
Correct Answer: CE

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge
Exam Name: SMB Specialization for Engineers
Exam Code: 700-501
Total Questions: 50 Q&As
700-501 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which three competitive advantages does the Cisco Unified Computing System provide? (Choose three.)
A. Ease of planning via the CSIM capacity modeling tool.
B. Supports only rack server models to reduce cost.
C. Greater virtual desktop density without performance impact.
D. Supports only blade server models to reduce system complexity.
E. Lower cost for compute plus network infrastructure.
F. Simple operation; start in minutes, scale in seconds.
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 2
Which three customer challenges do Cisco architectures help to solve? (Choose three.)
A. Increase ROI
B. Reduce independence
C. Provide creative solutions
D. Lower costs
E. Boost productivity
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
When LAN connectivity is designed which option increases high availability and minimizes network administration?
A. integrated switch in WAN router
B. stacked switch design
C. multiple switch design
D. single external switch design
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two IT solution characteristics do small and midsize business customers prefer? 700-501 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Solutions that will increase employee morale.
B. Flexibility; devices can be added easily in the future.
C. Enterprisegrade functionality; complexity is not a concern.
D. Simple devices that work well together right out of the box.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which three options are features of the Cisco Validated Design Program? (Choose three.)
A. Onsite consulting from Cisco Advanced Services engineers.
B. Design guides organized by solution, technology, and architecture.
C. Details on guidelines and practices for different customer scenarios.
D. Specific guidance based on your customer’s current environment.
E. System and solution designs that are documented and tested.
F. 24×7 phone support on network design questions.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
Which two options are advantages of Cisco Data Center solutions over the competition? (Choose two.)
A. Embedded self service
B. Endtoend optimization
C. Scalability without complexity
D. Seamless installation
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
How many virtual machines can VSPEX preconfigured solutions can scale to?
A. 125
B. 150
C. 50
D. 100
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS ESeries Servers
B. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 5000
D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
E. Cisco UCS CSeries Servers
F. Cisco Nexus 3048
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which two benefits are delivered by Cisco Telepresence? 700-501 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Experience is integrated.
B. Large files can be delivered between locations.
C. User experiences are unified.
D. Any endpoint can be used.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which two benefits does the Cisco FlexPod Design Guide provide? (Choose two.)
A. Provides guidance on EMC VNXe storage sizing.
B. Provides a onesizefitsall solution for ease of configuration and deployment.
C. Helps customers mitigate the risk and uncertainty involved in planning designing, and implementing virtualization.
D. Documents stepbystep instructions for installing and configuring all components, including thirdparty applications.
E. Provides a more predictive and adaptable architecture capable of meeting and exceeding customers’ IT demands.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 11
Which design practice is the best to reduce wireless CCI?
A. Place adjacent access points on different channels.
B. Place adjacent access points on the same channel.
C. Eliminate all signal overlap between access points.
D. Configure access points with the lowest supported data rate.
E. Place adjacent access points on nonoverlapping channels.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Which three options are competitive advantages of Cisco wireless solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Improved WLAN reliability is provided
B. Integrated security with wireless threat detection and mitigation is provided.
C. Access points support only the centralized deployment model.
D. Simplified and intuitive WLAN management and troubleshooting are provided.
E. Access points support only the distributed deployment model
F. Management and administration via Cisco SIO make deployment easy.
Correct Answer: ABD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Exam Code: 300-160
Total Questions: 402 Q&As
300-160 dumps
QUESTION 1
Endpoints are configured for both H.323 and SIP using the same URI and Cisco VCS settings, but the endpoints register only as H.323 endpoints. What is causing this issue?
A. A firewall is blocking all traffic from the endpoints to the Cisco VCS.
B. The Cisco VCS has no SIP domains configured.
C. The Cisco VCS is blocking the endpoints because of duplicate ID entries.
D. The endpoints do not have the SIP option key installed.
E. SIP does not work, because SIP is used for Cisco Unified Communications Manager registration only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are troubleshooting video quality issues on a Cisco TelePresence TX9000 Series system. Which CLI command shows the total number of lost video packets and the received jitter during a call in progress?
A. show call statistics video
B. show call statistics all
C. show call statistics detail
D. show call statistics video detail
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
URI dialing is enabled between two clusters with the default options. The engineer that set up the URI dialing verified that all was working properly. 300-160 dumps However, a user from one of the clusters cannot dial using URI to a user in the same cluster. What do you do to resolve this issue?
A. Verify the password that is used by the authentication under Intercluster Lookup Service configuration.
B. Find out if the URI address of the called user has a capital letter in the URI string.
C. Verify that Intercluster Lookup Service is set up correctly.
D. Verify USN Data Synchronization Status.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which alarm string purges all learned patterns from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. DuplicateLearnedPattern
B. SAFForwarderError
C. CCDIPReachableTimeOUT
D. CCDPSTNFailOverDurationTimeOUT
E. CCDLearnedPatternLimitReached
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager tool can you use to troubleshoot issues with international calling?
A. Cisco Prime
B. Cisco Deployment Tool
C. RTMT
D. Dialed Number Analyzer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which alarm string purges all learned patterns from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. DuplicateLearnedPattern
B. SAFForwarderError
C. CCDIPReachableTimeOUT
D. CCDPSTNFailOverDurationTimeOUT
E. CCDLearnedPatternLimitReached
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Refer to topology and Exhibits below:
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
What is the reason that this MGCP gateway is not registered with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. The primary server address is incorrect.
B. The MGCP domain name is incorrect on either the Cisco Unified Communications Manager or the router.
C. Backhaul/Redundant link port is incorrect
D. This MGCP gateway is not down; it is operational.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You implement multiple registrars for SIP trunks for the Cisco Unified Border Element to ensure redundant PSTN access, you fee receive an error that indicates that the registration server is invalid. 300-160 dumps Which two commands correct the problem? (Choose two.)
A. registrar 2 ipv4:1.1.1.1 expires 360
B. CUSP registrar 9 dns:cisco.com expires 60
C. no registrar 2 dns:cisco.com expires 60
D. registrar 20 dns:cisco.com
E. registrar 1 dns:cisco.com expires 180
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
What is a common reason that an IP Phone cannot get its configuration from Cisco Unified Communications Manager after it obtains the correct IP address information?
A. The DHCP scope is exhausted.
B. The DHCP server is not reachable.
C. The DHCP scope is on the wrong subnet.
D. The DHCP scope has the incorrect Option 150 or 66 defined.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command do you use to confirm that a router interlace is enabled for SAP?
A. show eigrp service-family ipv4 client details.
B. show ip interface details
C. show ip saf-service-family interface
D. show run
E. show eigrp service -family interface
F. show eigrp service-family lpv4 Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Users on your network report fast busy signals when they atlempt to place calls. While troubleshooting,you verify that the codecs are configured correctly and determine that the network carries up to 200 concurrent calls at different times of the day. Which two actions correct the problem? (Choose two).
A. Add more Cisco Unified Communications Managers to the cluster.
B. Add more DSPs to the NM-HD
C. Increase the number of sessions to the maximum allowed by system resources.
D. Implement an SRST-CMF gateway to improve resource allocation.
E. Add a Cisco Catalyst switch to the environment to increase port density
F. Bind the network PRIs to add additional bandwidth
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 12
Cisco Unified Mobile Connect has been enabled, but users are not able to switch an in-progress call from their mobile phone to their desk phone. You find out that the Resume softkey option does not appear on the desk phone after users hang up the call on their mobile phone. What do you do to resolve this issue?
A. Issue the progress_ind progress disable command in the gateway.
B. Issue the voice call disc-pi-off command in the gateway.
C. Enable mobile connect on the user profile.
D. Assign Resume softkey on the desk phone.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 437 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server.
What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
After the implementation of several different types of switches from different vendors, a network engineer notices that directly connected devices that use Cisco Discovery Protocol are not visible. 300-115 dumps
Which vendor-neutral protocol could be used to resolve this issue?
A. Local Area Mobility
B. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
C. NetFlow
D. Directed Response Protocol
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch.
Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch C receives VLAN information from the VTP server Switch A, but Switch B does not receive any VLAN information.
What is the most probable cause of this behavior?
A. Switch B is configured in transparent mode.
B. Switch B is configured with an access port to Switch A, while Switch C is configured with a trunk port to Switch B.
C. The VTP revision number of the Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Several new switches have been added to the existing network as VTP clients. All of the new switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. However, VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients.
What must be done to fix this?
A. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with “null” and then replace it with the new domain name.
B. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients.
C. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the existing network.
D. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. 300-115 dumps Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1 port?
A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
After implementing VTP, the extended VLANs are not being propagated to other VTP switches.
What should be configured for extended VLANs?
A. VTP does not support extended VLANs and should be manually added to all switches.
B. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.
C. VTP authentication is required when using extended VLANs because of their ability to cause network instability.
D. Ensure that all switches run the same Cisco IOS version. Extended VLANs will not propagate to different IOS versions when extended VLANs are in use.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate” and “backup.” 300-115 dumps
What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs. This command is configured globally: monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 8, 39, 52
What is the result of the implemented command?
A. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
B. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
C. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
D. The trunk’s native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
E. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships.
What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?
A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 3
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. 200-105 dumps Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client? 200-105 dumps
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. 200-105 dumps The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B. Router# show ip eigrp topology
C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. 200-125 dumps Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting 200-125 dumps
A. packet-loss detection
B. congestion detection
C. hop-by-hop response time
D. one way jitter measurement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit:
200-125 dumps
What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Correct Answer: A,C,F

QUESTION 10
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 12
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 3
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. 200-155 pdf At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Correct Answer: D
200-155 dumps
QUESTION 4
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. 200-155 dumps From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
A. application
B. internet
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 7
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? 200-155 dumps (Choose two.)
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which two statements are correct? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. This is a default route.
B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.
C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.
D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.
E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can reach network 10.0.0.0.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server? 100-105 dumps
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch? 100-105 dumps
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
An administrator is visiting a remote site that has on-net calls with headquarters and one voice gateway for PSTN calls. When using RTMT to monitor the bandwidth utilization of the remote site, the administrator notices the OutOfResources counter for the site in LBM has been increasing slowly in last two weeks, but no call failure reports have been sent from this site. Which description about this issue is true?
A. The bandwidth settings of the site are fulfilling on-net call volume.
B. AAR is routing some of the calls.C. The location-based CAC does not work properly.
D. The LBM service is malfunctioning.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two options should be used to create a secure traversal zone between the Expressway-C and Expressway-E? (Choose two.) 300-075 PDF
A. Expressway-C and Expressway-E must trust each other’s server certificate.
B. One Cisco Unified Communications traversal zone for H.323 and SIP connections.
C. A separate pair of traversal zones must be configured if an H.323 connection is required and Interworking is disabled.
D. Enable username and password authentication verification on Expressway-E.
E. Create a set of username and password on each of the Expressway-C and Expressway-E to authenticate the neighboring peer.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which statement about the host portion format in Cisco Unified Communications Manager URI dialing is false?
A. The host portion cannot start or end with a hyphen.
B. The host portion is not case sensitive.
C. The host portion accepts characters a-z, A-Z, 0-9, hyphens, and periods.
D. The host portion can have two periods in a row.
Correct Answer: D
300-075 dumps
QUESTION 4               300-075 dumps
Which three CLI commands are used when configuring H.323 call survivability for all calls? (Choose three.)
A. voice service voip
B. telephony-service
C. h323
D. call preserve
E. call-router h323-annexg
F. transfer-system
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
You have deployed a Cisco 2821 ISR to perform as an SRST voice gateway at a remote site. 300-075 PDF During a network failure between the remote site and the central office, some of the phones located at the remote site are unable to make phone calls.
Which two options are potential causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The site has exceeded the number of SRST endpoints supported by the voice gateway.
B. The ccm-manager fallback command is configured incorrectly on the voice gateway.
C. Phones at the remote site are assigned to the incorrect device pool.
D. The ccm-manager fallback-mgcp command is configured incorrectly on the voice gateway.
E. The site has exceeded the number of simultaneous calls allowed in SRST mode.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which statement about setting up FindMe in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server is true?
A. Users are allowed to delete or change the address of their principal devices.
B. Endpoints should register with an alias that is the same as an existing FindMe ID.
C. If VCS is using Cisco TMS provisioning, users manage their FindMe accounts via VCS.
D. A VCS cluster name must be configured.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two types of trunks can support Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. switch port trunks
B. PIMG trunks
C. SIP trunks
D. 225 trunks
E. CO trunks
F. POTS trunks
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
An administrator is setting up analog phones that connect to a Cisco VG310. 300-075 dumps
Which type of gateway or trunk on Cisco Unified Communication Manager for the Cisco VG310 must the administrator set up to allow the phones to have the call pickup feature?
A. 323 gateway
B. SCCP gateway
C. 225 trunk
D. MGCP gateway
E. SIP trunk
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two options are configuration steps on Cisco Unified Communications Manager that are used when integrating with VCS Expressway servers? (Choose two.)
A. allowing numeric dialing from Cisco phones to Expressway
B. configuring a device pool with video feature enabled
C. allowing dialing to Expressway domain from Cisco phones
D. creating an application user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager with assigned privileges
E. adding the Expressway servers to the Application Servers list
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which two configurations can you perform to allow Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunks to send an offer in the INVITE? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the Media Termination Point Required option on the SIP trunk.
B. Enable the Early Offer Support for Voice and Video Calls option on the SIP profile.
C. Select the Display IE Delivery check box in the gateway configuration.
D. Select the Enable Inbound FastStart check box on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers.
E. Select the SRTP Allowed check box on the SIP trunk.
F. Execute the isdn switch-type primary-ni command globally.
Correct Answer: AB

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