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[New Cisco Exam Dumps] Best And Most Cisco 700-501 Dumps PDF Materials And VCE Youtube Demo Free Update

The best Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-501 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo free shared. Update latest Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-501 dumps exam training resources and study guides from lead4pass. “SMB Specialization for Engineers” is the name of Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge https://www.lead4pass.com/700-501.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. High quality Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-501 dumps pdf practice questions and answers, pass Cisco 700-501 exam test easily at first try.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge
Exam Name: SMB Specialization for Engineers
Exam Code: 700-501
Total Questions: 50 Q&As
700-501 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which three competitive advantages does the Cisco Unified Computing System provide? (Choose three.)
A. Ease of planning via the CSIM capacity modeling tool.
B. Supports only rack server models to reduce cost.
C. Greater virtual desktop density without performance impact.
D. Supports only blade server models to reduce system complexity.
E. Lower cost for compute plus network infrastructure.
F. Simple operation; start in minutes, scale in seconds.
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 2
Which three customer challenges do Cisco architectures help to solve? (Choose three.)
A. Increase ROI
B. Reduce independence
C. Provide creative solutions
D. Lower costs
E. Boost productivity
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
When LAN connectivity is designed which option increases high availability and minimizes network administration?
A. integrated switch in WAN router
B. stacked switch design
C. multiple switch design
D. single external switch design
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two IT solution characteristics do small and midsize business customers prefer? 700-501 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Solutions that will increase employee morale.
B. Flexibility; devices can be added easily in the future.
C. Enterprisegrade functionality; complexity is not a concern.
D. Simple devices that work well together right out of the box.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which three options are features of the Cisco Validated Design Program? (Choose three.)
A. Onsite consulting from Cisco Advanced Services engineers.
B. Design guides organized by solution, technology, and architecture.
C. Details on guidelines and practices for different customer scenarios.
D. Specific guidance based on your customer’s current environment.
E. System and solution designs that are documented and tested.
F. 24×7 phone support on network design questions.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
Which two options are advantages of Cisco Data Center solutions over the competition? (Choose two.)
A. Embedded self service
B. Endtoend optimization
C. Scalability without complexity
D. Seamless installation
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
How many virtual machines can VSPEX preconfigured solutions can scale to?
A. 125
B. 150
C. 50
D. 100
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS ESeries Servers
B. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 5000
D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
E. Cisco UCS CSeries Servers
F. Cisco Nexus 3048
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which two benefits are delivered by Cisco Telepresence? 700-501 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Experience is integrated.
B. Large files can be delivered between locations.
C. User experiences are unified.
D. Any endpoint can be used.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which two benefits does the Cisco FlexPod Design Guide provide? (Choose two.)
A. Provides guidance on EMC VNXe storage sizing.
B. Provides a onesizefitsall solution for ease of configuration and deployment.
C. Helps customers mitigate the risk and uncertainty involved in planning designing, and implementing virtualization.
D. Documents stepbystep instructions for installing and configuring all components, including thirdparty applications.
E. Provides a more predictive and adaptable architecture capable of meeting and exceeding customers’ IT demands.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 11
Which design practice is the best to reduce wireless CCI?
A. Place adjacent access points on different channels.
B. Place adjacent access points on the same channel.
C. Eliminate all signal overlap between access points.
D. Configure access points with the lowest supported data rate.
E. Place adjacent access points on nonoverlapping channels.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Which three options are competitive advantages of Cisco wireless solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Improved WLAN reliability is provided
B. Integrated security with wireless threat detection and mitigation is provided.
C. Access points support only the centralized deployment model.
D. Simplified and intuitive WLAN management and troubleshooting are provided.
E. Access points support only the distributed deployment model
F. Management and administration via Cisco SIO make deployment easy.
Correct Answer: ABD

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[New Cisco Exam Dumps] Free Latest Cisco 300-160 Dumps PDF Questions And VCE Youtube Update

Free latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 dumps exam questions and answers update from lead4pass. High quality Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 dumps pdf practice materials and dumps vce youtube demo. “Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing” is the name of Cisco CCNP Data Center https://www.lead4pass.com/300-160.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Get the best Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 dumps pdf training resources and study guides free try, pass Cisco 300-160 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Exam Code: 300-160
Total Questions: 402 Q&As
300-160 dumps
QUESTION 1
Endpoints are configured for both H.323 and SIP using the same URI and Cisco VCS settings, but the endpoints register only as H.323 endpoints. What is causing this issue?
A. A firewall is blocking all traffic from the endpoints to the Cisco VCS.
B. The Cisco VCS has no SIP domains configured.
C. The Cisco VCS is blocking the endpoints because of duplicate ID entries.
D. The endpoints do not have the SIP option key installed.
E. SIP does not work, because SIP is used for Cisco Unified Communications Manager registration only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are troubleshooting video quality issues on a Cisco TelePresence TX9000 Series system. Which CLI command shows the total number of lost video packets and the received jitter during a call in progress?
A. show call statistics video
B. show call statistics all
C. show call statistics detail
D. show call statistics video detail
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
URI dialing is enabled between two clusters with the default options. The engineer that set up the URI dialing verified that all was working properly. 300-160 dumps However, a user from one of the clusters cannot dial using URI to a user in the same cluster. What do you do to resolve this issue?
A. Verify the password that is used by the authentication under Intercluster Lookup Service configuration.
B. Find out if the URI address of the called user has a capital letter in the URI string.
C. Verify that Intercluster Lookup Service is set up correctly.
D. Verify USN Data Synchronization Status.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which alarm string purges all learned patterns from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. DuplicateLearnedPattern
B. SAFForwarderError
C. CCDIPReachableTimeOUT
D. CCDPSTNFailOverDurationTimeOUT
E. CCDLearnedPatternLimitReached
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager tool can you use to troubleshoot issues with international calling?
A. Cisco Prime
B. Cisco Deployment Tool
C. RTMT
D. Dialed Number Analyzer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which alarm string purges all learned patterns from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. DuplicateLearnedPattern
B. SAFForwarderError
C. CCDIPReachableTimeOUT
D. CCDPSTNFailOverDurationTimeOUT
E. CCDLearnedPatternLimitReached
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Refer to topology and Exhibits below:
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
300-160 dumps
What is the reason that this MGCP gateway is not registered with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. The primary server address is incorrect.
B. The MGCP domain name is incorrect on either the Cisco Unified Communications Manager or the router.
C. Backhaul/Redundant link port is incorrect
D. This MGCP gateway is not down; it is operational.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You implement multiple registrars for SIP trunks for the Cisco Unified Border Element to ensure redundant PSTN access, you fee receive an error that indicates that the registration server is invalid. 300-160 dumps Which two commands correct the problem? (Choose two.)
A. registrar 2 ipv4:1.1.1.1 expires 360
B. CUSP registrar 9 dns:cisco.com expires 60
C. no registrar 2 dns:cisco.com expires 60
D. registrar 20 dns:cisco.com
E. registrar 1 dns:cisco.com expires 180
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
What is a common reason that an IP Phone cannot get its configuration from Cisco Unified Communications Manager after it obtains the correct IP address information?
A. The DHCP scope is exhausted.
B. The DHCP server is not reachable.
C. The DHCP scope is on the wrong subnet.
D. The DHCP scope has the incorrect Option 150 or 66 defined.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command do you use to confirm that a router interlace is enabled for SAP?
A. show eigrp service-family ipv4 client details.
B. show ip interface details
C. show ip saf-service-family interface
D. show run
E. show eigrp service -family interface
F. show eigrp service-family lpv4 Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Users on your network report fast busy signals when they atlempt to place calls. While troubleshooting,you verify that the codecs are configured correctly and determine that the network carries up to 200 concurrent calls at different times of the day. Which two actions correct the problem? (Choose two).
A. Add more Cisco Unified Communications Managers to the cluster.
B. Add more DSPs to the NM-HD
C. Increase the number of sessions to the maximum allowed by system resources.
D. Implement an SRST-CMF gateway to improve resource allocation.
E. Add a Cisco Catalyst switch to the environment to increase port density
F. Bind the network PRIs to add additional bandwidth
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 12
Cisco Unified Mobile Connect has been enabled, but users are not able to switch an in-progress call from their mobile phone to their desk phone. You find out that the Resume softkey option does not appear on the desk phone after users hang up the call on their mobile phone. What do you do to resolve this issue?
A. Issue the progress_ind progress disable command in the gateway.
B. Issue the voice call disc-pi-off command in the gateway.
C. Enable mobile connect on the user profile.
D. Assign Resume softkey on the desk phone.
Correct Answer: B

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[New Cisco Exam Dumps] 2017 Latest 300-115 Dumps Cisco Exam Questions And Answers Update Youtube Demo

2017 latest Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps exam practice questions and answers free download from lead4pass. Get the best Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps pdf training resources and vce youtube update free demo. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-115.html dumps exam practice files. Prepare for Cisco 300-115 exam with high quality Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps training materials and study guides free try, pass Cisco 300-115 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 437 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server.
What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
After the implementation of several different types of switches from different vendors, a network engineer notices that directly connected devices that use Cisco Discovery Protocol are not visible. 300-115 dumps
Which vendor-neutral protocol could be used to resolve this issue?
A. Local Area Mobility
B. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
C. NetFlow
D. Directed Response Protocol
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch.
Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch C receives VLAN information from the VTP server Switch A, but Switch B does not receive any VLAN information.
What is the most probable cause of this behavior?
A. Switch B is configured in transparent mode.
B. Switch B is configured with an access port to Switch A, while Switch C is configured with a trunk port to Switch B.
C. The VTP revision number of the Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Several new switches have been added to the existing network as VTP clients. All of the new switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. However, VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients.
What must be done to fix this?
A. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with “null” and then replace it with the new domain name.
B. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients.
C. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the existing network.
D. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. 300-115 dumps Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1 port?
A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
After implementing VTP, the extended VLANs are not being propagated to other VTP switches.
What should be configured for extended VLANs?
A. VTP does not support extended VLANs and should be manually added to all switches.
B. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.
C. VTP authentication is required when using extended VLANs because of their ability to cause network instability.
D. Ensure that all switches run the same Cisco IOS version. Extended VLANs will not propagate to different IOS versions when extended VLANs are in use.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate” and “backup.” 300-115 dumps
What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs. This command is configured globally: monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 8, 39, 52
What is the result of the implemented command?
A. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
B. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
C. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
D. The trunk’s native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
E. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships.
What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?
A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.
Correct Answer: A

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[New Cisco Exam Dumps] Latest Cisco 200-105 Dumps VCE Youtube And PDF Practice Files Free Update

High quality Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps exam questions and answers free download from lead4pass. Prepare for Cisco 200-105 exam test with latest 200-105 dumps pdf files and dumps vce youtube demo. https://www.lead4pass.com/200-105.html dumps exam training resources. Get the best Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps pdf practice materials and study guides update free try from lead4pass, pass Cisco 200-105 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 3
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. 200-105 dumps Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client? 200-105 dumps
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. 200-105 dumps The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B. Router# show ip eigrp topology
C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

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[New Cisco Exam Dumps] Latest Cisco 200-125 Dumps Exam Materials And Youtube Free Update

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. 200-125 dumps Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting 200-125 dumps
A. packet-loss detection
B. congestion detection
C. hop-by-hop response time
D. one way jitter measurement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit:
200-125 dumps
What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Correct Answer: A,C,F

QUESTION 10
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 12
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 3
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. 200-155 pdf At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Correct Answer: D
200-155 dumps
QUESTION 4
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. 200-155 dumps From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
A. application
B. internet
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 7
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? 200-155 dumps (Choose two.)
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which two statements are correct? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. This is a default route.
B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.
C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.
D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.
E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can reach network 10.0.0.0.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server? 100-105 dumps
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch? 100-105 dumps
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
An administrator is visiting a remote site that has on-net calls with headquarters and one voice gateway for PSTN calls. When using RTMT to monitor the bandwidth utilization of the remote site, the administrator notices the OutOfResources counter for the site in LBM has been increasing slowly in last two weeks, but no call failure reports have been sent from this site. Which description about this issue is true?
A. The bandwidth settings of the site are fulfilling on-net call volume.
B. AAR is routing some of the calls.C. The location-based CAC does not work properly.
D. The LBM service is malfunctioning.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two options should be used to create a secure traversal zone between the Expressway-C and Expressway-E? (Choose two.) 300-075 PDF
A. Expressway-C and Expressway-E must trust each other’s server certificate.
B. One Cisco Unified Communications traversal zone for H.323 and SIP connections.
C. A separate pair of traversal zones must be configured if an H.323 connection is required and Interworking is disabled.
D. Enable username and password authentication verification on Expressway-E.
E. Create a set of username and password on each of the Expressway-C and Expressway-E to authenticate the neighboring peer.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which statement about the host portion format in Cisco Unified Communications Manager URI dialing is false?
A. The host portion cannot start or end with a hyphen.
B. The host portion is not case sensitive.
C. The host portion accepts characters a-z, A-Z, 0-9, hyphens, and periods.
D. The host portion can have two periods in a row.
Correct Answer: D
300-075 dumps
QUESTION 4               300-075 dumps
Which three CLI commands are used when configuring H.323 call survivability for all calls? (Choose three.)
A. voice service voip
B. telephony-service
C. h323
D. call preserve
E. call-router h323-annexg
F. transfer-system
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
You have deployed a Cisco 2821 ISR to perform as an SRST voice gateway at a remote site. 300-075 PDF During a network failure between the remote site and the central office, some of the phones located at the remote site are unable to make phone calls.
Which two options are potential causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The site has exceeded the number of SRST endpoints supported by the voice gateway.
B. The ccm-manager fallback command is configured incorrectly on the voice gateway.
C. Phones at the remote site are assigned to the incorrect device pool.
D. The ccm-manager fallback-mgcp command is configured incorrectly on the voice gateway.
E. The site has exceeded the number of simultaneous calls allowed in SRST mode.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which statement about setting up FindMe in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server is true?
A. Users are allowed to delete or change the address of their principal devices.
B. Endpoints should register with an alias that is the same as an existing FindMe ID.
C. If VCS is using Cisco TMS provisioning, users manage their FindMe accounts via VCS.
D. A VCS cluster name must be configured.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two types of trunks can support Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. switch port trunks
B. PIMG trunks
C. SIP trunks
D. 225 trunks
E. CO trunks
F. POTS trunks
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
An administrator is setting up analog phones that connect to a Cisco VG310. 300-075 dumps
Which type of gateway or trunk on Cisco Unified Communication Manager for the Cisco VG310 must the administrator set up to allow the phones to have the call pickup feature?
A. 323 gateway
B. SCCP gateway
C. 225 trunk
D. MGCP gateway
E. SIP trunk
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two options are configuration steps on Cisco Unified Communications Manager that are used when integrating with VCS Expressway servers? (Choose two.)
A. allowing numeric dialing from Cisco phones to Expressway
B. configuring a device pool with video feature enabled
C. allowing dialing to Expressway domain from Cisco phones
D. creating an application user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager with assigned privileges
E. adding the Expressway servers to the Application Servers list
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which two configurations can you perform to allow Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunks to send an offer in the INVITE? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the Media Termination Point Required option on the SIP trunk.
B. Enable the Early Offer Support for Voice and Video Calls option on the SIP profile.
C. Select the Display IE Delivery check box in the gateway configuration.
D. Select the Enable Inbound FastStart check box on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers.
E. Select the SRTP Allowed check box on the SIP trunk.
F. Execute the isdn switch-type primary-ni command globally.
Correct Answer: AB

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