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Latest updates Cisco 350-901 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. Which two functions are performed by the load balancer when it handles traffic originating from the
Internet destined to an application hosted on the file server farm? (Choose two.)
A. Terminate the TLS over the UDP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected
server.
B. Terminate the TLS over the UDP connection from the router and originate an HTTP connection to the selected
server.
C. Terminate the TLS over the TCP connection from the router and originate an HTTP connection to the selected
server.
D. Terminate the TLS over the TCP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected
server.
E. Terminate the TLS over the SCTP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected
server.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q2 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q2-1 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q2-2

Refer to the exhibit. Which line of code must be added to this code snippet to allow an application to pull the next set of
paginated items?
A. requests.get(url, links=[`next\\’][`url\\’])
B. requests.get(url, headers=links[`next\\’][`url\\’])
C. requests.get(res.links[`next\\’][`url\\’], headers=headers)
D. requests.get(res.headers.get(`Link”)[`next\\’][`url\\’], headers=headers)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. The cURL POST request creates an OAuth access token for authentication with FDM API requests.
What is the purpose of the file “@token_data” that cURL is handling?
A. This file is a container to log possible error responses in the request.
B. This file is given as input to store the access token received from FDM.
C. This file is used to send authentication-related headers.
D. This file contains raw data that is needed for token authentication.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two statements describe the advantages of static code analysis over unit tests? (Choose two.)
A. It checks for potentially tainted data where input is not checked.
B. It enforces proper coding standards and style.
C. It performs a quick analysis of whether tests will pass or fail when run.
D. It checks for race conditions in threaded applications.
E. It estimates the performance of the code when run.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which two data encoding techniques are supported by gRPC? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. JSON
C. ASCII
D. ProtoBuf
E. YAML
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Which statement about microservices architecture is true?
A. Applications are written in a single unit.
B. It is a complex application composed of multiple independent parts.
C. It is often a challenge to scale individual parts.
D. A single faulty service can bring the whole application down.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which HTTP status code indicates that a client application is experiencing intentional rate limiting by the server?
A. 202
B. 401
C. 429
D. 503
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
An application is being built to collect and display telemetry streaming data. Drag and drop the elements of this stack
from the left onto the correct element functions on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q8

QUESTION 9
Which type of file is created from issued intermediate, root, and primary certificates for SSL installation on a server?
A. DER
B. CSR
C. PEM
D. CRT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Click on the GET Resource button above to view resources that will help with this question.

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q10 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q10-1 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q10-2 lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q10-3

An engineer is managing a DC with 6000 Cisco UCS servers installed and running. The engineer has been asked to
identify all resources where the model is in the UCSB family and the available memory is less than or equal to 5 GB.
Which REST API call accomplishes this task?
A. GET/api/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=not(Model eq `UCSC\\’) and
AvailableMemory le 5000
B. GET/api/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=Model eq `UCSB\\’ and AvailableMemory lt
5000
C. GET/api/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=contains(Model, UCSB\\’) and
AvailableMemory lt 5000
D. GET/API/v1/compute/RackUnits?$select=Vendor,Model,Serialand$filter=contains(Model, UCSB\\’) and
AvailableMemory le 5000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q11

Refer to the exhibit. a developer created the code, but it fails to execute. Which code snippet helps to identify the
issue?

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q11-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Into which two areas are AppDynamics APIs categorized? (Choose two.)

A. application-centric
B. analytics-events
C. database-visibility
D. platform-side
E. agent-side
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13

lead4pass 350-901 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration of method and parameter retrieves the health of a laptop connected to the
network from Cisco DNA Center?
A. PUT; network-health;
B. GET; client-health;
C. GET; network-device;
D. POST; network-device;
Correct Answer: C

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Latest updates Cisco 350-801 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which configuration tells a switch part to send Cisco Discovery Protocol packets that configure an attached Cisco IP
phone to trust tagged traffic that is received from a device that is connected to the access port on the Cisco IP phone?
A. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend
B. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend
cos 3
C. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend
cos 5
D. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS extend trust
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An engineer with troubleshoots poor voice quality on multiple calls. After looking at packet captures, the engineer
notices high levels of jitter. Which two areas does the engineer check to prevent jitter? (Choose two.)
A. The network meets bandwidth requirements.
B. MTP is enabled on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Border Element.
C. Cisco UBE manages voice traffic, not data traffic.
D. All devices use wired connections instead of wireless connections.
E. Voice packets are classified and marked.
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/voice-quality/20371-troubleshoot-qos-voice.html

QUESTION 3

lead4pass 350-801 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. Given this “debug ISDN q921” output, what is the problem with the PRI?
A. Layer 1 is down on the controller.
B. PRI does not have an IP address configured on the interface.
C. Nothing, the PRI is sending keepalives.
D. Layer 2 is down on the controller.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which transport protocol does the application layer protocol SNMP use?
A. XML
B. UDP
C. SIP
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/simple-network-management-protocol-snmp/

QUESTION 5
What is a valid class included in the 8-Class QoS Strategy in a VoIP network?
A. Assured Forwarding
B. Broadcast Video
C. Multimedia Conferencing
D. Real-Time Interactive
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2756478andseqNum=8

QUESTION 6
A network administrator deleted a user from the LDAP directory of a company. The end-user shows as Inactive LOAP
Synchronized User in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which step is next to remove this user from Cisco
Unified Communications Manager?
A. Delete the user directly from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Restart the Dirsync service after the user is deleted from the LDAP directory.
C. Execute manual sync to refresh the local database and delete the end user.
D. Wait 24 hours for the garbage collector to remove the user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which settings are needed to configure the SIP route pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. pattern usage, IPv6 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list
B. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, IPv6 pattern, and description
C. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list
D. SIP trunk/Route list, description, and IPv4 pattern
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100_chapter_0100111.pdf

QUESTION 8
What is a characteristic of video traffic that governs QoS requirements for video?
A. Video is typically a variable bit rate.
B. Voice and video traffic are different, but they have the same QoS requirements.
C. Video is typically a constant bit rate.
D. Voice and video traffic are the same, so they have the same QoS requirements.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/cac.html

QUESTION 9
An engineer must extend the corporate phone system to mobile users connecting through the internet with their own
devices. One requirement is to keep that as simple as possible for end-users. Which infrastructure element achieves
these goals?
A. Cisco Express Mobility
B. Cisco Expressway-C and Expressway-E
C. Cisco Unified Border Element
D. Cisco Unified Instant Messaging and Presence
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Why would we not include an end user\\’s PC device in a QoS trust boundary?
A. The end-user could incorrectly tag their traffic to bypass firewalls.
B. The end-user may incorrectly tag their traffic to be prioritized over other network traffic.
C. There is no reason not to include an end user\\’s PC device in a QoS trust boundary.
D. The end-user could incorrectly tag their traffic to advertise their PC as a default gateway.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is
necessary in the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?
A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which command in the MGCP gateway configuration defines the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
server?
A. mgcapp
B. ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
C. mgcp call-agent
D. ccm-manager redundant-host
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A customer is deploying a SIP IOS gateway for a customer who requires that in-band DTMF relay is the first priority and out-of-band DTMF relay is second priority.
Which IOS entry sets the required priority?
A. dtmf-relay rtp-nte sip-notify
B. dtmf-relay cisco-rtp
C. sip-notify dtmf-relay rtp-nte
D. dtmf-relay sip-kpml cisco-rtp
Correct Answer: A

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Latest updates Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)
A. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.
C. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)
A. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the
link.
B. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.
C. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.
D. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.
E. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 3lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
A. 10.10.1.10
B. 10.10.10.20
C. 172.16.15.10
D. 192.168.0.1
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose
two.)
A. input errors
B. frame
C. giants
D. CRC
E. runts
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROPlead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5-2

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites.
Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach
one another? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.
B. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.
C. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.
D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.
E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 7
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down.
B. After spanning tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.
C. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.
D. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
A. Configure VTY access.
B. Configure the version of SSH.
C. Assign a DNS domain name.
D. Create a user with a password.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
A. allocation nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
B. disabling TCP so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices
C. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps
D. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)
A. one-to-many communication model
B. one-to-nearest communication model
C. any-to-many communication model
D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
E. the same address for multiple devices in the group
F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
Correct Answer: BEF
A new address type made specifically for IPv6 is called the Anycast Address. These IPv6 addresses are global
addresses, these addresses can be assigned to more than one interface unlike an IPv6 unicast address. Anycast is
designed to send a packet to the nearest interface that is a part of that anycast group. The sender creates a packet and
forwards the packet to the anycast address as the destination address which goes to the nearest router. The nearest
router or interface is found by using the metric of a routing protocol currently running on the network. However in a LAN
setting the nearest interface is found depending on the order the neighbors were learned. The anycast packet in a LAN
setting forwards the packet to the neighbor it learned about first.

 

QUESTION 11
Which IPv6 address type communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
A. link-local
B. unique local
C. multicast D. global unicast
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?
A. TTL
B. MAC address forwarding
C. Collision avoidance
D. Port blocking
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
A. enable secret
B. enable password
C. service password-encryption
D. username cisco password encrypt
Correct Answer: C

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This exam tests whether a network security engineer knows the components and architecture of secure access, by utilizing 802.1X and Cisco TrustSec.

This exam assesses knowledge of Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) architecture, solution, and components as an overall network threat mitigation and endpoint control solution. It also includes the fundamental concepts of bringing your own device (BYOD)
using posture and profiling services of ISE.

Latest updates Cisco 300-208 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

Which method does Cisco prefer to securely deploy guest wireless access in a BYOD implementation? 

A. deploying a dedicated Wireless LAN Controller in a DMZ 

B. configuring a guest SSID with WPA2 Enterprise authentication 

C. configuring guest wireless users to obtain DHCP centrally from the corporate DHCP server 

D. disabling guest SSID broadcasting 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 2

Which condition triggers wireless authentication? 

A. NAS-Port-Type is set to IEEE 802.11. 

B. Framed-Compression is set to None. 

C. Service-Type is set to Framed. 

D. Tunnel-Type is set to VLAN. 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 3

The NAC Agent uses which port and protocol to send discovery packets to an ISE Policy Service Node? 

A. tcp/8905 

B. udp/8905 

C. http/80 

D. https/443 

Correct Answer: A 

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/20/installation_guide/b_ise_InstallationGuide20/Cisco_SNS_3400_Series_Appliance_Ports_Reference.html 

QUESTION 4

A network engineer is configuring HTTP based CWA on a switch. Which three configuration elements are required?

(Choose three.) 

A. HTTP server enabled 

B. Radius authentication on the port with MAB 

C. Redirect access-list 

D. Redirect-URL 

E. HTTP secure server enabled 

F. Radius authentication on the port with 802.1x 

G. Pre-auth port based access-list 

Correct Answer: ABC 

QUESTION 5

Which action is a Cisco recommended practice while attempting to increase efficiency on the monitoring nodes? 

A. Back up data and transfer to a remote repository on regular basis 

B. Remove endpoints when not active. 

C. Re-index the data on a regular basis. 

D. Compress the data regularly 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 6

Under which circumstance would an inline posture node be deployed? 

A. When the NAD does not support CoA 

B. When the NAD cannot support the number of connected endpoints 

C. When a PSN is overloaded 

D. To provide redundancy for a PSN 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 7

Drag and drop each guest user login screen from the left onto the correct description on the right. 

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8
A security engineer must create an Antivirus remediation policy within Cisco ISE. Which two options can the engineer
select in the new Antivirus remediation policy? (Choose two.)
A. program installation path
B. Antivirus vendor name
C. uniform resource locator
D. file to upload
E. operating system
Correct Answer: BE
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_pos_pol.html#wp1655749

QUESTION 9
Which three algorithms should be avoided due to security concerns? (Choose three.)
A. DES for encryption
B. SHA-1 for hashing
C. 1024-bit RSA
D. AES GCM mode for encryption
E. HMAC-SHA-1
F. 256-bit Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman
G. 2048-bit Diffie-Hellman
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
Which two options must be used on Cisco ISE to enable the TACACS+ feature? (Choose two.)
A. TACACS External Servers
B. TACACS+ Authentication Settings
C. TACACS Server Sequence
D. Enable Device Admin Service
E. TACACS Command Sets
F. TACACS Profiles
G. Device Administration License
Correct Answer: DG

QUESTION 11
What is the function of the SGACL policy matrix on a Cisco TrustSec domain with SGT Assignment?
A. It determines which access policy to apply to the endpoint.
B. It determines which switches are trusted within the TrustSec domain.
C. It determines the path the SGT of the packet takes when entering the Cisco TrustSec domain.
D. It lists all servers that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain.
E. It lists all hosts that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which identity store option allows you to modify the directory services that run on TCP/IP?
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
B. RSA SecurID server
C. RADIUS
D. Active Directory
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two answers are potential results of an attacker that is performing a DHCP server spoofing attack? (Choose
two.)
A. ability to selectively change DHCP options fields of the current DHCP server, such as the giaddr field.
B. DoS
C. excessive number of DHCP discovery requests
D. ARP cache poisoning on the router
E. client unable to access network resources
Correct Answer: BE

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This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

Last date to test: February 23, 2020
The 200-105 ICND2 exam will be retired on February 23, 2020.

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Latest updates Cisco 200-105 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
In an HSRP failover environment, which two tasks must you perform on the preferred active router so that it always
assumes the active role when it comes up? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the router with a higher priority than the other routers in the group
B. Configure the router with a higher MAC address than the other routers in the group
C. Configure preemption on the router
D. Configure the router with a higher IP address than the other routers in the group
E. Configure tracking on the router
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Two EIGRP routers have failed to establish a neighbor relationship. Drag and drop the configuration parameters from
the left onto the categories on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-105 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-105 exam question q2-1

QUESTION 3
Which three effects of using local SPAN are true? (Choose three.)
A. It doubles the load on the forwarding engine.
B. It prevents SPAN destinations from using port security.
C. It doubles internal switch traffic.
D. It reduces the supervisor engine workload by half.
E. it reduces the load on the switch fabric.
Correct Answer: ABC
To avoid disrupting traffic, do not oversubscribe any of these points in your SPAN topology. Some oversubscription and
performance considerations are: ?SPAN doubles traffic internally ?SPAN adds to the traffic being processed by the
switch fabric ?SPAN doubles forwarding engine load
Because SPAN destination ports drop ingress traffic, these features are incompatible with SPAN destination ports:
?Private VLANs ?IEEE 802.1X port-based authentication ?Port security
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/7600/ios/12-2SXF/configuration/guide/swcg/span.pdf

QUESTION 4
What are the two default metrics used by EIGRP for route selection? (Choose two.)
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Reliability
D. Load
E. MTU
Correct Answer: AB
EIGRP adds together weighted values of different network link characteristics in order to calculate a metric for
evaluating path selection.
These characteristics include:
Delay (measured in 10s of microseconds)
Bandwidth (measured in kilobytes per second)
Reliability (in numbers ranging from 1 to 255; 255 being the most reliable) Load (in numbers ranging from 1 to 255; 255
being saturated) Various constants (K 1 through K 5) are able to be set by a user to produce varying routing behaviors.
However, by default, only delay and bandwidth are used in the weighted formula to produce a single 32bit metric:lead4pass 200-105 exam question q4

Note: Default K values are: K1 = K3 = 1 and K2 = K4 = K5 = 0. When K5 is equal to 0 then [K5/( K4 + reliability)] is
defined to be 1 Use of the default constants effectively reduces the formula above to:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocol-eigrp/whitepaper_C11-720525.html

QUESTION 5
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as \\’active\\’ in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Correct Answer: AD
Introduction to EIGRP Feasible Successors A destination entry is moved from the topology table to the routing table
when there is a feasible successor. All minimum cost paths to the destination form a set. From this set, the neighbors
that have an advertised metric less than the current routing table metric are considered feasible successors. Feasible
successors are viewed by a router as neighbors that are downstream with respect to the destination. These neighbors
and the associated metrics are placed in the forwarding table. When a neighbor changes the metric it has been
advertising or a topology change occurs in the network, the set of feasible successors may have to be reevaluated.
However, this is not categorized as a route recomputation.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f07.shtml

QUESTION 6
When are packets processed by an inbound access list?
A. before they are routed to an outbound interface
B. after they are routed to an outbound interface
C. before and after they are routed to an outbound interface
D. after they are routed to an outbound interface but before being placed in the outbound queue
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a forwarding state?
A. BPDU guard
B. PortFast
C. loop guard
D. UDLD
E. UplinkFast
Correct Answer: B
PortFast causes a switch or trunk port to enter the spanning tree forwarding state immediately, bypassing the listening
and learning states. You can use PortFast on switch or trunk ports that are connected to a single workstation, switch, or
server to allow those devices to connect to the network immediately, instead of waiting for the port to transition from the
listening and learning states to the forwarding state.

QUESTION 8
What\\’s DTP\\’s default in a switch?
A. ON
B. OFF
C. Dynamic Desirable
D. Dynamic Auto
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two characteristics of extended access lists are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can compare source traffic only against a permit or deny statement
B. They must be identified with a number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
C. They can be identified only with a number between 100 and 199
D. They can be configured to filter only UDP or TCP traffic
E. They can compare source and destination traffic against a permit or deny statement
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 10
Which two features are supported only in named access lists? (Choose two.)
A. identifying QoS traffic for marking
B. filtering traffic on VTY lines
C. limiting debug output
D. noncontiguous port filtering
E. deleting entries
Correct Answer: DE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_data_acl/configuration/xe-3s/sec-data-acl-xe-3s-book/sec-acl-named.pdf

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3.
What is the TTL value for that ping?lead4pass 200-105 exam question q11

A. 252
B. 253
C. 254
D. 255
Correct Answer: B
From the CCNA ICND2 Exam book: “Routers decrement the TTL by 1 every time they forward a packet; if a router
decrements the TTL to 0, it throws away the packet. This prevents packets from rotating forever.” I want to make it clear
that before the router forwards a packet, the TTL is still remain the same. For example, in the topology above, pings to
S0/1 and S0/0 of Router 2 have the same TTL. The picture below shows TTL values for each interface of each router
and for HostB. Notice that Host A initializes ICMP packet with a TTL of 255:

lead4pass 200-105 exam question q11-1

QUESTION 12
Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
A. It reduces the need for a backup data center.
B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
D. It eliminates the need for a GSS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and
issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted.
Which set of commands will accomplish this task?
A. service password-encryption access-list permit 192.168.1.0.0.0.0.255 line vty0 4 login password cisco access-class
1
B. enable password secret line vty0 login password cisco
C. service password-encryption line vty0 login password cisco
D. service password-encryption line vty0 4 login password cisco
Correct Answer: C

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Free Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-365 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

What is the default NMSP echo interval between a Mobility Services Engine and Wireless LAN Controller? 

A. 30 Seconds 

B. 15 Seconds 

C. 10 Seconds 

D. 60 Seconds 

Correct Answer: B 

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/wireless/mse/3350/6.0/CAS/configuration/guide/msecg_ch4_CAS.html 

 

QUESTION 2

A customer has limited staff to manage a wireless network. The customer wants a solution that requires minimum

hardware. Which type of architecture do you propose? 

A. centralized 

B. distributed 

C. cloud-based 

D. unified 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 3

A customer called into the support center with a problem ticket that involves wireless clients having to reauthenticate

when they are walking around their office. After further investigation, it was discovered that the customer has two

controllers in an N+1 deployment. Which action must the engineer take to troubleshoot the issue? 

A. Verify that the wireless controllers are in the same mobility group and that the access points are all on the primary

controller. 

B. Under the SSID, make sure that 802.11r is configured and running for the clients. 

C. Make sure that the SSID has the authentication set to 802.1x with Cisco Centralized Key Management so the data

clients can roam seamlessly. 

D. Verify the access points are spread out between the primary and secondary controller and that the controllers are in

the same mobility group. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 4

A customer wants to restrict the number of SSIDs being offered in a specific location, but with a single WLC enterprise

wide. The customer is enabled to delete the SSIDs globally without impacting users at other sites. Which action fulfills

this requirement? 

A. Configure a FlexConnect group for the specified location and add the location APs to the group. 

B. Add an AP group for the specified location and add the location APs to the group. 

C. Change the WLAN ID of the desired SSIDs to greater than 16 and then disable them. 

D. Apply an access control list to restrict access at the specified location. 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 5

A customer is implementing a massively scaled guest wireless network to support approximately 32,000 clients. For

ease of administration, they have required implementing multiple interfaces defined on the WLC and mapped to a single

interface group. Which configuration meets this need? 

A. 264 interfaces of /25 sized networks 

B. 132 interfaces of /24 sized networks 

C. 66 interfaces of /23 sized networks 

D. 33 interfaces of /22 sized networks 

Correct Answer: D 

References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/8500-series-wireless-controllers/113695-8500-dg-00.html 

 

QUESTION 6

Branch wireless users report that they can no longer access services from head office but can access services locally at

the site. New wireless users can associate to the wireless while the WAN is down. Which three options (Cisco

FlexConnect state, operation mode, and authentication method) are seen in this scenario? (Choose three.) 

A. authentication-central/switch-local 

B. standalone mode 

C. authentication-central/switch-central 

D. WPA2 personal 

E. authentication-local/switch-local 

F. WPA2 enterprise 

Correct Answer: BDE 

 

QUESTION 7

What devices can be tracked with the Cisco Context Aware Services? 

A. Only wired devices. 

B. Both wired and wireless devices. 

C. Only Cisco certified wireless devices. 

D. Only wireless devices. 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 8

On which AP radio or radios is Cisco WGB association and public safety supported? 

A. 5 GHz only 

B. 2.4 GHz only 

C. 2.4, 5, or 4.9 GHz 

D. 2.4 or 5 GHz only 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 9

CMX Facebook WiFi can allow access to the network before authentication. Which two of the following options are

available? (Choose two) 

A. Allow all the traffic before authentication and intercept HTTPs only. 

B. Allow HTTP traffic only before authentication and block all the traffic. 

C. Allow SNMP traffic only before authentication and block all the traffic. 

D. Allow all the traffic before authentication and intercept HTTP only. 

E. Allow HTTPs traffic only before authentication and block all other traffic. 

Correct Answer: BD 

 

QUESTION 10

An engineer needs to address roaming issues with sticky clients in high-density areas on a campus. Which feature must

the engineer configure? 

A. Layer 3 roaming 

B. load balancing and band select 

C. optimized roaming 

D. Layer 2 roaming 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 11

A network engineer is debugging issues with the mDNS gateway. Which type of reply should be seen in the Wireshark

capture when querying for a mDNS service in the Bonjour Cache? 

A. unicast from Prime Infrastructure 

B. unicast from controller 

C. multicast from devices 

D. multicast from controller 

E. unicast from devices 

F. multicast from Prime Infrastructure 

Correct Answer: B 

References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/bonjour/Bonjour74/Bonjour_Deployment.html 

 

QUESTION 12

An engineer must implement WLC features that enhance roaming. Which two technologies fulfill this requirement?

(Choose two.) 

A. 802.11v 

B. WPA2 

C. Cisco Centralized Key Management 

D. 802.1X 

E. 802.11r 

Correct Answer: AE 

 

QUESTION 13

Which two parameters must be considered when conducting an outdoor mesh site survey? (Choose two.) 

A. weather 

B. traffic lights 

C. throughput 

D. Fresnel zone 

E. near-far effect 

Correct Answer: AD 

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Test your Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 exam level

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements concerning IGMP are correct? (Choose all that apply.)
A. With IGMPvl, queries are sent to a specific group.
B. Hosts issuing IGMPvl requests will be correctly interpreted by IGMPv2 hosts due to backward compatibility.
C. An IGMPv2 router will ignore IGMPv2 leave messages when IGMFVl hosts are present.
D. With IGMFV2, a leave message is supported.
E. An IGMPv2 host will send an IGMFVl report on an IGMFVl router.
F. An IGMPv2 router can only allow IGMPv2 hosts to execute a join request.
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 2
In what situation would the command ip helper-address be required? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Only when there is a duplicate IP address caused by a combination of static and dynamic IP address allocations
B. On each router that exists between the client and the server
C. Only when a router separates the client from the server
D. Only if the DHCP sever issues a DHCPNAK to the initial request
E. Only when the client is on the same subnet as the server
F. Only when the DHCP pool is out of IP addresses
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which are valid AAA authentications methods?
A. Line
B. Local
C. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
D. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 4
Which of the following are valid methods of providing a router with information concerning the location of the RP?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Statically defined RP
B. Bootstrap Router
C. Auto-RP
D. RP Discovery Protocol (RDP)
E. RP Helios
F. RPARP(RARP)
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 5
Examine the output from R1. Interface FastEthernet0/0 is used for all management of the device. A client is able to
connect to R1 on port 22, however, they are unable to connect on port 23. What is the cause of the problem?lead4pass 300-135 exam question q5

A. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled, which only allows SSH.
B. Telnet and SSH are not allowed at the same time.
C. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled on the wrong interface.
D. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled, however telnet is not allowed.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
I—fa0/0—router branch 1—–S0/2—–Core—S0/1—Router HQ———fa2/1 Branch 1 : Tu 1 =192.168.10.2/28 L1 =
10.20.1.1/32 S0/2 = 172.18.10.2/30 Fa0/0 = 192.168.200.1/24
HQ : TU 1 = 192.168.10.1/28 L1 = 10.30.1.1/32 S0/1 = 172.18.10.1/30 Fa2/1 = 192.168.100.1/24
Refer to exhibit. which Ip Address shold be configured as the tunnel source on the HQ router for maximum resiliency ?
A. 10.20.1.1
B. 10.30.1.1
C. 172.18.10.2
D. 192.168.10.1
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Using the divide and conquer approach, drag the troubleshooting steps on the left onto the corresponding description on
the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-135 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-135 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-135 exam question q8

The administrator has successfully logged into R1 but is unable to access privileged mode commands Which
configuration is causing the problem?
A. The password on the VTY lines does not match the username password.
B. The username command uses password, not secret
C. Enable secret or enable password must be configured
D. The aaa authorization reverse-access command is missing.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#logging console warnings
Which alerts will be seen on the console?
A. Warnings only
B. debugging, informational, notifications, warnings
C. warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D. notifications, warnings, errors
E. warnings, errors, critical, alerts
Correct Answer: C
Cisco routers prioritize log messages into 8 levels (0-7), as shown below:
LevelLevel NameDescription 0 Emergencies System is unusable 1 Alerts Immediate action needed 2 Critical Critical
conditions 3 Errors Error conditions 4 Warnings Warning conditions 5 Notifications Informational messages 6
Informational Normal but significant conditions 7 Debugging Debugging messages
When you enable logging for a specific level, all logs of that severity and greater (numerically less) will be logged. In this
case, when you enable console logging of warning messages (level 4), it will log levels 0-4, making the correct answer
warnings, errors, critical, alerts, and emergencies.

 

QUESTION 10
A new router is added to an existing HSRP standby group. One of the existing routers is in an active state, the other is
in a standby state. Under what circumstance will the new router become the active router?
A. The new router will become active immediately because it\\’s the newest router introduced into the group.
B. The new router can become active only when the existing active router and the existing standby router become
unavailable.
C. The new router has a lower priority value.
D. The new router will never become active unless the existing active router becomes unavailable.
E. The new router has preempt configured and a higher priority
F. The new router has a higher priority value.
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 11
A question about restrict access for device on management plane? (Choose two.)
A. Enable Cisco Express Forward (CEF) globally.
B. Add authentication for routing protocols.
C. Restrict physical access.
D. Add ACLs for Telnet.
E. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 12
An exhibit with three routers A, B and C. Router A is connected to Router B. Router B is connected to Router C.lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12

The output of “show interface Tunnel 1” on Router C shows that the tunnel is in “up/ down” state. The question asks
what is the reason for this.
A. Router C does not have a route to the loopback interface of Router A
B. The tunnel mode should be changed to “gre mode multipoint”
C. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
D. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
You must add encryption to a GRE tunnel. Which IPsec configuration is recommended for a VPN with NAT
transversal?
A. Enable SHA on the tunnel
B. Implement IPsec transport mode
C. Enable MD5 on the tunnel
D. Implement IPsec tunnel mode
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access
and aggregation layers in the data canter?
A. vPC
B. PAgP
C. LACP
D. host vPC
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Access layer switches are located as which type of design to provide network connectivity to servers that are installed in
rack?
A. ToR design
B. MoR design
C. EoR design
D. ILR
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-160 exam question q3

You are evaluating a proposed topology design. Which technology can you recommend to provide high availability for
the topology?
A. OTV
B. STP
C. LLDP
D. vPC
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which two resources can be VDC-dedicated resources? (Choose two.)
A. QoS hardware queues
B. physical interfaces
C. A table spaces
D. fabric modules
E. management interfaces
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 5
The client\\’s data center manager has requested the physical weights of the equipment in your Cisco UCS design along
with the power and cooling requirements. Where in cisco.com can you find this information?
A. the product datasheets
B. the Cisco UCS power calculator
C. the Cisco UCS GUI Configuration Guide
D. the Cisco UCS Hardware Installation Guide
E. the Hardware and Software Interoperability Matrix Utility Tool
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which two features are supported by VXLAN on the Cisco NX-OS platform? (Choose two)
A. MP-BGP EVPN
B. DHCP snooping
C. PIM-SM
D. OTV
E. L2TP
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 7
Which two licenses must you have to enable OTV on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. Transport Services Package
B. Advanced Services Package
C. MPLS Services Package
D. Enterprise Services Package
E. Enhanced Layer 2 Package
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 8
Which two characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose two)
A. voice, data, and wireless convergence
B. no packet manipulation
C. QoS–policing
D. routing manipulation and filtering
E. QoS – classification and queuing
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 9
What introduces unique implications into the overall Data Center aggregation layer design? (Choose Three.)
A. High-speed switching fabric with a high forwarding rate
B. Over-subscription values
C. Service Modules
D. IP routing
E. WAN
F. Internet Edge
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 10
Which option is a characteristic of the data center aggregation layer?
A. segments groups of applications and isolates problems
B. provides access for IP multicast applications
C. offers QoS services, such as the classification and marking of traffic
D. is a high-speed backbone of the data center
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
You plan to use Cisco FEX and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches. Which deployment model is valid?
A. straight-through connections that use static pinning
B. active/active fabric extenders that use vPC
C. straight-through connections that use dynamic pinning
D. active/active fabric extenders that use straight-through connections
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12 lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12-1 lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12-2

Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 4. Which of the items is true regarding the activation of a Management Extension
update?
A. Adds support for new management access protocols
B. Adds support for new SAN protocols
C. Adds support for new LAN protocols
D. Adds support for new hardware
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Exhibit 4 shown below:

lead4pass 300-160 exam question q12-3

Management Extensions enable you to add support for previously unsupported servers and other hardware to Cisco
UCS Manager. For example, you may need to activate a Management Extension if you want to add a new, previously
unsupported server to an existing Cisco UCS domain.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/firmware-
mgmt/gui/2-2/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_22/
b_GUI_Firmware_Management_22_chapter_01001.html#task_AAF21C05F1754D30B2CBFFA4642840E3

 

QUESTION 13
After a recent acquisition, you have been asked to merge two SANs into one. Which SAN topology is Cisco
recommended?
A. Core-Edge
B. Edge-Core-Edge
C. Core Access
D. Collapsed Core
E. Collapsed Core-Edge
Correct Answer: B

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Latest updates Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 dumps and pdf, 300-135 Practice Questions and Answers

Easily get the latest Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 dumps, “Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT)” 300-135 Exam. You can upgrade your skills by downloading the 300-135 pdf or the online 300-135 exam exercise test! 99.5% pass rate:lead4pass.com

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Latest Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit. lead4pass 300-135 exam question q1

Which two statements are correct? (Choose Two)
A. The source device has name resolution configured.
B. The source device is using two routes for the destination, learned from different protocols.
C. A device on the path is introducing considerable delay.
D. The source device is loading balancing traffic.
Correct Answer: AD
Router traces domain name (cisco.com) and it gets ICMP answers, so name resolution has happened. Per hop output
shows 2 lines, hence 2 active paths exist.

 

QUESTION 2
How to check MTU of interface using ping? / How can you check the links mtu size with ping command?
A. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1501
B. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1500 df-bit
C. ping 10.1.1.1
D. ping 10.1.1.1 no-size
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which two statements about IPv6 traffic filtering are true? (choose two)
A. it performs virtual fragmentation reassembly after checking engress ACLs
B. it performs virtual fragmentation after checking ingress ACLs
C. it requires IPv6 neighbor discovery to be enabled on the interface
D. it requires configuration to be done at the engress interface
E. it is configured at the interface level
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 4
===============================================================================lead4pass 300-135 exam question q4 lead4pass 300-135 exam question q4-1

Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
Solution
Steps need to follow as below:
When we check on client 1 and Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 Ipconfig —– Client will be
receiving IP address 10.2.1.3
IP 10.2.1.3 will be able to ping from R4 , R3, R2 but not from R1
Check for neighborship of ospf sh ip ospf nei —– Only one neighborship is forming with R2 and i.e. with R3 Since R2 is
connected to R1 and R3 with routing protocol ospf than there should be 2 neighbors seen but only one is seen
Need to check running config of R2 and R3 for interface Sh run ————————– Interface Serial0/0/0/0.12 on R2
Sh run ————————– Interface Serial0/0/0/0 on R1lead4pass 300-135 exam question q4-2

Change required: On R1, for IPV4 authentication of OSPF command is missing and required to configure—— ip ospf
authentication message-digest The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that
requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a
trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the
209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NTP
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Correct Answer: D
On R1, for IPV4 authentication of OSPF the command is missing and required to configure—— ip ospf authentication
message-digest The problem in this situation is with OSPF on router 1. It is missing the “ip ospf authentication
messagedigest” command on the Serial0/0/0/0.12 interface. The problem statement tells us that the two routers are not
able to become OSPF neighbors.

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. PC-2 failed to establish a Telnet connection to the Terminal Server. Which solution allows PC-2 to
establish the Telnet connection?lead4pass 300-135 exam question q5

A. Gateway-Router(config)#ipv6 access-list Default_Access Gateway-Router(config-ipv6-acl)#no sequence 20 Gateway-
Router(config-ipv6-acl)#sequence 5 permit tcp host 2018:DB1:A:B::2 host 2018:DB1:A:C::1 eq telnet
B. Gateway-Router(config)#ipv6 access-list Default_Access Gateway-Router(config-ipv6-acl)#permit tcp host
2018:DB1:A:B::2 host 2018:DB1:A:C::1 eq telnet
C. Gateway-Router(config)#ipv6 access-list Default_Access Gateway-Router(config-ipv6-acl)#sequence 15 permit tcp
host 2018:DB1:A:B::2 host 2018:DB1:A:C::1 eq telnet
D. Gateway-Router(config)#ipv6 access-list Default_Access Gateway-Router(config-ipv6-acl)#sequence 25 permit tcp
host 2018:DB1:A:B::2 host 2018:DB1:A:C::1 eq telnet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Which of the following is not an essential prerequisite for AutoQoS to be correctly applied to an interface? (Choose all
that apply.)
A. The interface must be configured as a Multilink PPP interface.
B. The correct bandwidth should be configured on the interface.
C. A QoS policy must not be currently attached to the interface.
D. CEF must be enabled.
E. AutoQoS must be enabled globally before it can be enabled on the interface.
F. An IP address must be configured on the interface if its speed is equal to or less than 768 kbps.
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 7
Which of the following characteristics describe the Root Guard feature? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The port must be put into forwarding state manually after root-inconsistent state has been corrected.
B. A Root Guard port receiving superior BPDU goes into a root-inconsistent state.
C. A Root Guard port receiving inferior BPDU goes into a root-inconsistent state.
D. While the port is in a root-inconsistent state no user data is sent across that port.
E. The port returns to a forwarding state if inferior BPDUs stop.
F. It should be applied to all switch ports.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: Spanning Tree Protocol Root Guard
Enhancement http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00800ae96b.shtml

 


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow the administrator to log in using the device database authentication?lead4pass 300-135 exam question q8

A. aaa authentication login default local
B. aaa authorization network default local
C. aaa authentication login default enable
D. aaa authorization exec default local
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which protocol does mGRE use to determine where packets are sent?
A. CEF
B. EIGRP
C. NHRP
D. DMVPN
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/ipsec-negotiation-ike-protocols/41940-dmvpn.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is an unlikely reason for the ARP process to fail?
A. CEF switching is disabled on the switch
B. The source device and destination device are in different VLANs
C. The VLAN is excluded from the trunk
D. The host is connected to the switch through an IP phone
E. A faulty cable from host to switch or between switches
F. The trunking encapsulation type is inconsistent on the two ends of the link
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 11
Given the multicast IP address of 224.193.5.10, what would the corresponding multicast MAC address be?
A. 00-00-0c-c0-05-0a
B. 00-00-0c-cl-05-0a
C. 01-00-5e-00-00-0c
D. 01-00-5e-41-05-0a
E. 00-00-0c-01-00-5e
F. 01-00-5e-cl-05-0a
Correct Answer: F
First three octets are 01-00-05e for every single multicast address.Las three octets are the hexadecimal version of the
las three octets of the IP address, in this case 193.5.10 is translated to c1-05-0a.

 

QUESTION 12
=============================================================================== Solutionlead4pass 300-135 exam question q12 lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12-1

Steps need to follow as below:
Since the problem is raised that DSW1 will not become active router for HSRP group 10
we will check for the HSRP configuration…
DSW1lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12-2

DSW2lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12-3

From snapshot we see that the track command given needs to be changed under active VLAN10 router
Change Required: On DSW1, related to HSRP, under vlan 10 change the given track 1 command to instead use the
track 10 command.
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client
2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241.
After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity,
FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened DSW1 will not become the active router for
HSRP
group 10.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. HSRP
C. IP DHCP Helper
D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing
E. IPv6 RIP Routing
F. IPv4 layer 3 security
G. Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
H. Loop Prevention
I. Access Vlans
J. Port Security
K. VLAN ACL/Port ACL
L. Switch Virtual Interface
Correct Answer: B
On DSW1, related to HSRP, under VLAN 10 change the given track 1 command to instead use the track 10 command.
The problem in this case is that DSW1 will not become the active standby router, which is an HSRP problem.

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following pieces of information will the command show interface provide? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Layer 1 status
B. Output queue drops
C. Interface CPU utilization
D. Cable type connected to interface
E. Layer 2 status
F. Input queue drops
Correct Answer: ABEF

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Free test Cisco Business Architecture Analyst 810-440 Exam Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which type of expenditure is the purchase of heavy equipment considered?
A. consumption
B. chargeback
C. show back 
D. operational
E. capital
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
During a business lead engagement, which role of the aspiring Cisco Business Architect is true?
A. to be more business focused
B. dedicated to running proof of value
C. to be more technology focused
D. to promote the business lead approach with other lines of business
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which options are the two features of business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Business requirements are managed by stakeholders.
B. Business requirements support specific business objectives.
C. Business requirements are prioritized in compliance with influence dynamics.
D. Business requirements are dynamic in nature and change over time.
E. Business requirements are always defined inside a line of business.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 4
KPIs are a quantitative measurement of progress against the tactical goals of an organization. Which are three
characteristics of KPIs? (Choose three.)
A. KPIs must be strategic and tactical in nature
B. KPIs can be financial, managerial, or operational
C. KPIs measure progress against goals
D. KPIs are set according to priorities: magnitude and urgency
E. KPIs define what needs to happen to achieve desired results in the time, budget, and level of the expected quality
Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the manufacturing industry?
A. Remote Expert
B. Advanced Routing
C. Service Provider Network Infrastructure
D. Plant Floor Control Network
E. Multilayer Switching
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which type of engagement occurs at the business solutions maturity level?
A. multidomain technology engagement
B. single-domain technology engagement
C. partial business engagement
D. business-first engagement
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
During a business solutions engagement, which item is nonessential for the Systems Engineers and Sales leadership to
be aware of?
A. maturity levels discussed during the business solution engagement
B. ability to support the business solution engagement
C. tools used during the business solution engagement
D. engagement type reviewed during the business solution engagement
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which building a block of business model canvas addresses the customer\\’s willingness to pay?
A. revenue streams
B. cost structure
C. customer segments
D. customer channels
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Which two examples are indirect financial benefits? (Choose two.)
A. increased customer satisfaction
B. increased operational expenditures
C. increased process efficiency
D. decreased capital expenditures
E. decreased total cost of ownership
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 10
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business
outcomes.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
IP addressing can be assigned in either a static or dynamic method.
Which two devices would likely be assigned dynamic IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. email server
B. IP phone network
C. printer
D. personal laptop
E. switch
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 12
Which two functions of the technology specialists in a Cisco Business Architecture engagement are true? (Choose
two.)
A. Own the customer relationship.
B. Focus on specific technical solutions.
C. Define business capabilities.
D. Support the engagement that is led by the business architect.
E. Identify customer business priorities.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 13
Which four options are components of the Seven Elements framework? (Choose four.)
A. Commitment
B. Relationship and Distribution
C. Relationship and Communications
D. Best Alternative
E. Interests, Agenda and Normative
F. Interests, Options, and Legitimacy
G. Alternatives, Opportunities, and Legitimacy
Correct Answer: ACDF

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