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VMware 1V0-81.20 Dumps Update [2022] Associate VMware Security Best Exam Materials

VMware 1V0-81.20 Dumps have been updated as 2022 Associate VMware Security Best Exam Materials to help you pass the target exam with ease.

1V0-81.20 is the Associate VMware Security exam code, 1V0-81.20 Dumps are reviewed by the Lead4Pass VMware expert team, for candidates’ knowledge of VMware security solutions, And the candidate’s ability to provide entry-level support for the security features of NSX-T Data Center, Workspace ONE, and Carbon Black Cloud ensures that you can successfully pass the Associate VMware Security certification exam on your first try.

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Vendor: VMware
Exam Code: 1V0-81.20
Exam Name: Associate VMware Security
Certification: VCTA-SEC 2021 / VCTA-SEC 2022
Language: English
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 55
Passing score: 300 (VMware exams are scaled on a range from 100-500, with the determined raw cut score scaled to a value of 300.)
Format: Multiple Choice, Multiple Choice Multiple Selection, Drag and Drop, Matching, Proctored
Pricing: $125 USD

You can also try the 1V0-81.20 online test first:

Verify answers at the end of the test

QUESTION 1:

In VMware Carbon Black Cloud, which reputations have the highest priority during analysis?

A. Known Priority
B. Trusted Allow List
C. Company Allow List
D. Ignore

QUESTION 2:

Which VMware application enrolls an endpoint into Workspace ONE?

A. Workspace ONE Web
B. CB Defense Sensor
C. VMware Horizon Client
D. Workspace ONE Intelligent Hub

QUESTION 3:

When filtering firewall rules after selecting an object to filter by, which four columns do the filter search? (Choose four.)

A. Services
B. Action
C. Protocol
D. Log
E. Applied To
F. Source
G. Destinations

QUESTION 4:

When using VMware Carbon Black Live Response, what command will show all active processes?

A. dir
B. list
C. ls
D. ps

QUESTION 5:

Which parameter ensures an endpoint will stay connected with the designated VMware Carbon Black Cloud tenant?

A. Company Code
B. Organization Group ID
C. Device Serial Number
D. User ID

QUESTION 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true about the firewall rule?

A. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that drops traffic on port 22

B. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Services, DB-Servers, and Web-Servers that rejects traffic on port 22

C. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Services, DB-Servers, and Web-Servers that drops traffic on port 22

D. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that rejects traffic on port 22

QUESTION 7:

A technician has been asked to confirm a specific browser extension does not exist on any endpoint in their environment.
Which is the VMware Carbon Black tool to use for this task?

A. Enterprise EDR
B. EDR
C. Audit and Remediation
D. Endpoint Standard

QUESTION 8:

Which attack technique probes the environment for openings on devices or the firewall?

A. Port Scan
B. Denial of Service
C. Living off the Land
D. Phishing

QUESTION 9:

What is the safe course of action for a USB disk of unknown ownership and origin?

A. Do not connect the USB to any computer as it may be a USB Killer device
B. Connect the USB device to your computer and allow the DLP software to protect it
C. Connect the USB to a non-Windows device and examine it
D. Connect the USB to an air-gapped system and examine it

QUESTION 10:

In VMware Carbon Black Cloud Endpoint Standard, which items are available in the Event view?

A. Hashes, Reputations
B. Emails, Policies, OS, Locations
C. Connection, IP/Port
D. IDs, Indicators/TTPs

QUESTION 11:

Micro-segmentation is under which pillar of trust in VMware\’s 5 pillars of Zero Trust?

A. User
B. Session/Transport
C. Application
D. Device

QUESTION 12:

Which VMware product allows you to query an endpoint like a database?

A. VMware NSX-T Data Center
B. VMware Carbon Black Audit and Remediation
C. VMware Workspace ONE UEM
D. VMware Carbon Black Endpoint Standard

QUESTION 13:

What types of hosts are supported for hosting both NSX-T Data Center managers and host transport nodes?

A. vSphere ESXi 6.7U1 or higher, KVM on CentOS Linux
B. vSphere ESXi 6.7U1 or higher, KVM on RHEL 7.6, Ubuntu 18.04.2 LTS
C. vSphere ESXi 6.5, KVM on RHEL 7.6, Ubuntu 18.04.2 LTS
D. vSphere ESXi 6.7U1 or higher, CentOS KVM 7.6, RHEL KVM

……

Verify answer:

Number:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
Answers:BDA E F GBDAAADCBCA

Download the above 1V0-81.20 online test questions:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1uHz9-UXJMVB1FWcALS0q5dWLvdN0QCfQ/

Share some 1V0-81.20 online test questions for free to verify your current learning situation, click here to download 1V0-81.20 Dumps and complete the complete practice to help you easily pass the Associate VMware Security certification exam.

Latest Updated CCNP Security 300-710 Dumps Helps Candidates Pass 300-710 SNCF Exam

The latest updated CCNP Security 300-710 dumps with PDF files and VCE exam engine, containing 238 exam questions and answers, serve all 300-710 SNCF exam candidates to help them successfully pass the exam.

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Free sharing of 15 CCNP Security 300-710 Dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the steps to restore an automatic device registration failure on the standby Cisco FMC from the left into the correct order on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

300-710 dumps questions 1

Correct Answer:

300-710 dumps questions 1-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v62/firepower_management_center_high_availability.html#id_32288


New Question 2:

What is the result of enabling Cisco FTD clustering?

A. For the dynamic routing feature, if the master unit fails, the newly elected master unit maintains all existing connections.

B. Integrated Routing and Bridging are supported on the master unit.

C. Site-to-site VPN functionality is limited to the master unit, and all VPN connections are dropped if the master unit fails.

D. All Firepower appliances can support Cisco FTD clustering.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v64/clustering_for_the_firepower_threat_defense.html


New Question 3:

Which two conditions are necessary for high availability to function between two Cisco FTD devices? (Choose two.)

A. The units must be the same version

B. Both devices can be part of a different group that must be in the same domain when configured within the FMC.

C. The units must be different models if they are part of the same series.

D. The units must be configured only for firewall routed mode.

E. The units must be the same model.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-management-center/212699-configure-ftd-high-availability-on-firep.html


New Question 4:

On the advanced tab under inline set properties, which allows interfaces to emulate a passive interface?

A. transparent inline mode

B. TAP mode

C. strict TCP enforcement

D. propagate link state

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v64/inline_sets_and_passive_interfaces_for_firepower_threat_defense.html


New Question 5:

What are the minimum requirements to deploy a managed device inline?

A. inline interfaces, security zones, MTU, and mode

B. passive interface, MTU, and mode

C. inline interfaces, MTU, and mode

D. passive interface, security zone, MTU, and mode

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/650/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v65/ips_device_deployments_and_configuration.html


New Question 6:

What is the difference between an inline and inline tap on Cisco Firepower?

A. Inline tap mode can send a copy of the traffic to another device.

B. Inline tap mode does full packet capture.

C. Inline mode cannot do SSL decryption.

D. Inline mode can drop malicious traffic.

Correct Answer: A


New Question 7:

With Cisco Firepower Threat Defense software, which interface mode must be configured to passively receive traffic that passes through the appliance?

A. inline set

B. passive

C. routed

D. inline tap

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v64/interface_overview_for_firepower_threat_defense.html


New Question 8:

Which two deployment types support high availability? (Choose two.)

A. transparent

B. routed

C. clustered

D. intra-chassis multi-instance

E. virtual appliance in public cloud

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/610/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v61/firepower_threat_defense_high_availability.html


New Question 9:

Which protocol establishes network redundancy in a switched Firepower device deployment?

A. STP

B. HSRP

C. GLBP

D. VRRP

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v62/firepower_threat_defense_high_availability.html


New Question 10:

Which interface type allows packets to be dropped?

A. passive

B. inline

C. ERSPAN

D. TAP

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-ngfw/200908-configuring-firepower-threat-defense-int.html


New Question 11:

Which Cisco Firepower Threat Defense, which two interface settings are required when configuring a routed interface? (Choose two.)

A. Redundant Interface

B. EtherChannel

C. Speed

D. Media Type

E. Duplex

Correct Answer: CE

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/610/fdm/fptd-fdm-config-guide-610/fptd-fdm-interfaces.html


New Question 12:

Which two dynamic routing protocols are supported in Firepower Threat Defense without using FlexConfig? (Choose two.)

A. EIGRP

B. OSPF

C. static routing

D. IS-IS

E. BGP

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/660/fdm/fptd-fdm-config-guide-660/fptd-fdm-routing.html


New Question 13:

Which policy rule is included in the deployment of a local DMZ during the initial deployment of a Cisco NGFW through the Cisco FMC GUI?

A. a default DMZ policy for which only a user can change the IP addresses.

B. deny IP any

C. no policy rule is included

D. permit IP any

Correct Answer: C


New Question 14:

What are two application layer preprocessors? (Choose two.)

A. CIFS

B. IMAP

C. SSL

D. DNP3

E. ICMP

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v60/Application_Layer_Preprocessors.html


New Question 15:

Which two OSPF routing features are configured in Cisco FMC and propagated to Cisco FTD? (Choose two.)

A. OSPFv2 with IPv6 capabilities

B. virtual links

C. SHA authentication to OSPF packets

D. area boundary router type 1 LSA filtering

E. MD5 authentication to OSPF packets

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v62/ospf_for_firepower_threat_defense.html

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VMware 5v0-11.21 dumps: serves all 5v0-11.21 VMware Cloud on AWS Master Specialist exam candidates

The newly updated VMware 5v0-11.21 dumps contains 65 exam questions and answers that candidates can study using the 5v0-11.21 dumps PDF and 5v0-11.21 dumps VCE to help you successfully pass the 5v0-11.21 VMware Cloud on AWS Master Specialist exam.

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Share the latest VMware 5v0-11.21 dumps exam questions and answers for free

NEW QUESTION 1:

Which two network types can be extended with VMware HCX Network Extension? (Choose two.)

A. vSphere Distributed Switch VLAN Networks
B. NSX Overlay Networks
C. Trunk Networks
D. vSphere Standard Switch VLAN Networks
E. Private VLAN Networks

Correct Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 2:

Where would a VMware Cloud on AWS administrator generate an API token?

A. Organizational Settings
B. Identity and Access Management
C. Developer Center
D. My Account Section

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3:

A customer wants to ensure that VMware Cloud on AWS maintenance operations are performed during their maintenance window. Which option would allow the customer to achieve this outcome?

A. Schedule a maintenance preference in the software-defined data center (SDDC) console.
B. Schedule a call with VMware Cloud on AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.
C. Schedule a call with AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.
D. Schedule a maintenance window through an online support request.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4:

Which method can be used to deploy a VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center?

A. VMware Data Center Command-Line Interface
B. AWS Management Console
C. REST APIs
D. VMware vCenter Server

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5:

A virtual machine in VMware Cloud on AWS sends a packet to an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) Linux instance in the associated AWS account. Which device is the next hop for the packet?

A. Edge Virtual Machine
B. AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) on the VMware ESXI host
C. Tier-0 (T0) Router
D. Tier-1 (T1) Router

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6:

Which two statements are true for the pre-defined resource pools in VMware Cloud on AWS? (Choose two.)

A. Users are allowed to monitor and modify the resource allocation settings in the Mgmt-RsourcePool.
B. The Mgmt-ResourcePool is able to utilize resources in subsequently created clusters if needed.
C. Users can modify the pre-configured vSphere DRS settings in their own Compute-ResourcePool.
D. Users can rename child resource pools to better match company policy.
E. All workload virtual machines are created in the top-level (root) Compute-ResourcePool by default.

Correct Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 7:

What is the maximum Gbps of bandwidth that each AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) provides on an i3.metal host?

A. 25 Gbps
B. 50 Gbps
C. 10 Gbps
D. 100 Gbps

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8:

The Tier-O (TO) router will send northbound packets through which device?

A. The AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) of the VMware ESXi host that the active TO Edge virtual machine is currently running on.

B. The AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) of the VMware ESXi host where the packet is originating from.

C. The AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) of the VMware ESXI host that the passive TO Edge virtual machine is currently running on.

D. The AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) of the VMware ESXi host that is currently the least utilized.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9:

An administrator runs an analysis on all workloads using Live Optics and confirms there are a variety of applications, including Microsoft SQL server and Oracle databases. The Microsoft SQL workloads are averaging 4,000 IOPS per virtual machine, approximately 50% writes. The Oracle workloads are averaging 3,000 IOPS per virtual machine, and approximately 80% writes. Which method should be used to input the data into the VMware Cloud on AWS Sizer for the most accurate results?

A. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’database\’ mode. Create workload profiles for the analyzed virtual machines, including profiles for Microsoft SQL and Oracle. Set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O profile manually.

B. Use the Quick Sizer. Set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O profile manually.

C. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’import\’ mode. Import the Live Optics data and let the Advanced Sizer set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O automatically.

D. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’manual\’ mode. Create workload profiles for the analyzed virtual machines, including profiles for Microsoft SQL and Oracle. Use the default values for the SQL and Oracle workload profiles.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10:

Which three statements are true about the Elastic DRS Optimize for Rapid Scale-Out policy? (Choose three.)

A. Hosts are added incrementally when needed for storage.

B. Hosts will NOT be removed automatically when they are no longer needed.

C. Multiple hosts are added at a time when needed for memory or CPU.

D. After a storage scale-out event is triggered, single hosts are added every 30 minutes.

E. High threshold for storage, like the other policies, is set at 75%.

F. To resolve constraints related to CPU and memory, hosts are added two at a time.

Correct Answer: ACF

NEW QUESTION 11:

A new VMware Cloud on AWS customer has previously deployed a VMware Horizon-based VDI solution into their data center to support their remote developer workforce. Due to unforeseen growth, the company needs to quickly expand their remote workforce. The growth will consume any forecast capacity in the VDI solution and, therefore, additional capacity is now required. The VDI solution service owner would like the solution to support the ability to quickly scale in/out to provide additional capacity based on demand. Which three steps should the administrator take to scale out the VDI solution? (Choose three.)

A. Deploy a new VMware Horizon pod on VMware Cloud on AWS.

B. Deploy a new VMware Horizon pod on-premises.

C. Configure network connectivity and firewall rules to allow communications between the two on-premises connection servers.

D. Configure network connectivity and firewall rules to allow communications between on-premises and VMware Cloud on AWS connection servers.

E. Connect the two VMware Horizon pods together using the security servers.

F. Connect the two VMware Horizon pods together using a Horizon Cloud Pod Architecture (CPA).

Correct Answer: BDF

NEW QUESTION 12:

A user with an Organization Member role would like to add another user to an organization. How would this be accomplished?

A. Only users with an Organization Owner role can invite and add users to the organization.

B. The user with an Organization Member role needs to have CloudAdmin permissions in order to add a new user.

C. The user with an Organization Member role will be able to add a new user through the Identity and Access Management page.

D. Users with an Organization Member role are automatically granted access to all roles within VMware Cloud on AWS.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13:

An administrator is looking to establish a hybrid connection between on-premises and VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC) environments in order to migrate virtual machines. The on-premises environment is NOT using NSX today; however, the administrator wants to avoid having to change IP addresses after each migration, and there are some applications that require the same broadcast domain. Which connection is needed to meet these requirements?

A. Policy-based VPN
B. Layer 2 VPN (L2VPN)
C. AWS Direct Connect
D. Route-based VPN

Correct Answer: D

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2V0-31.21 Dumps V12.02 Is the Latest Version For Professional VMware vRealize Automation 8.3 Exam

Are you preparing to take the 2V0-31.21 Professional VMware vRealize Automation 8.3 exam? You just need to have the latest version 2V0-31.21 Dumps prepared for the actual VMware 2V0-31.21 exam. Now, the 2V0-31.21 dumps V12.02 has been released via VMware subject matter experts.

As the latest version of the Professional VMware vRealize Automation 8.3 exam, Lead4Pass 2V0-31.21 dumps V12.02 real exam questions and accurate Answers ensure you can successfully pass the Professional VMware vRealize Automation 8.3 2V0-31.21 real-world exam.

Before getting the full 2V0-31.21 dumps V12.02 recommended by subject matter experts, read the 2V0-31.21 free dumps below:

QUESTION 1:

Which vRealize Automation service allows an administrator to import released cloud templates and Amazon Web Services CloudFormation templates that users can deploy? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Service Broker
B. Cloud Assembly
C. Orchestrator
D. Code Stream

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

An administrator creates a custom form for an RHEL cloud template. A user reports only being able to see the standard form when requesting the cloud template.
Which step should the administrator take to resolve this issue?

A. Enable the custom form feature in Cloud Assembly.
B. Enable the custom form feature in Service Broker.
C. Enable the custom form in the project for the RHEL cloud template.
D. Enable the custom form for the RHEL cloud template.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures a lease policy, (“1 Day Lease”), for the App-Dev project so that machines have a starting lease of one day and a maximum lease of five days.

The following week, the administrator is assigned a ticket to address an issue with machines being deleted without any notifications being received. The administrator requests a new machine deployment through the App-Dev project\’s service catalog.

Given the one-day lease period, the administrator expects to receive an automated “Lease Expiring” system immediately following a successful deployment; however, the email is not received.

The administrator checks the deployment that has just been created (as displayed in the exhibit) and confirms that the “1 Day Lease” policy has been correctly applied.

Which action should the administrator take to resolve this issue? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Add an email endpoint.
B. Configure the notification email Server.
C. Ensure the users have notifications enabled.
D. Run the Configure mail workflow.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4:

What is the function of Action-Based Extensibility (ABX)? (Choose the best answer.)

A. It provides the capability to migrate content between instances of vRealize Automation.
B. It provides efficient capacity and cost management for managed virtual machines.
C. It provides intelligent remediation and integrated compliance for security patches.
D. It provides a way to execute stateless function, which contains reusable parameterized actions.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

Which command should an administrator run to ensure data integrity before a snapshot or backup of a vRealize Automation appliance? (Choose the best answer.)

A. /opt/scripts/deploy.sh ––onlyClean
B. /opt/scripts/svc-stop.sh
C. vracli status deploy
D. kubectl logs –n prelude

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6:

Which deployment action is performed using the vRealize Easy Installer?

A. Register vRealize Automation with vCenter Single Sign-On
B. Install vRealize Operations
C. Install vCenter Server
D. Register vRealize Automation with VMware Identity Manager

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/8.1/installing-vrealize-automation-
easyinstaller/GUID-77B713C5-0CD5-40C6-ADA0-9FAE84766661.html

QUESTION 7:

The administrator has installed SaltStack Config using the “edu” tenant from vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager.
How would the administrator access the SaltStack Config service?

A. Log in to https://
B. Log in to https://edu.
C. Log in to https://salt.
D. Log in to https://edu.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8:

Which two actions can be performed against a Cloud Assembly machine-based deployment? (Choose two.)

A. Run machine-level actions including adding a USB controller.
B. Change lease for the deployment.
C. Resize the deployment.
D. Change machine IP address assignment to DHCP.
E. Power off the deployment.

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 9:

As part of a greenfield deployment, an administrator needs to set up an NSX-T Data Center cloud account.
Which user role is required to create an NSX-T Data Center cloud account in vRealize Automation? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Cloud Assembly Administrator
B. Cloud Assembly User
C. Orchestrator Administrator
D. NSX-T Data Center Enterprise Administrator

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10:

An administrator must restrict the number of memory resources available for a specific group of users.
On which component would the administrator configure this?

A. Flavor Mappings
B. Cloud Accounts
C. Projects
D. Cloud Zones

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/management/2020/03/vra-resource-limits.html

QUESTION 11:

Which kubectl command should be run to find the Kubernetes authentication method? (Choose the best answer.)

A. kubectl describe pod
B. kubectl –n prelude describe pod
C. kubectl describe secrets
D. kubectl explain

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12:

Which type of cloud account is configured during the Quickstart process?

A. Google Cloud Platform
B. Microsoft Azure
C. VMware Cloud an AWS
D. VMware vCenter Server

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/8.4/Getting-Started-Cloud-
Assembly/GUID91597976-E472-493B-8017-2D37DC8DC0E5.html

QUESTION 13:

Which command should an administrator run to check the status of vRealize Automation services? (Choose the best answer.)

A. vracli org-oauth-apps
B. kubectl –n prelude get pods
C. kubectl cluster-info –n prelude
D. vracli status

Correct Answer: B

……

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View 93 Q&A – 2V0-31.21 dumps: Latest Version For Professional VMware vRealize Automation 8.3 Exam

2V0-72.22 Dumps [2022] Take the Professional Develop VMware Spring exam

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Number of Questions: 60
Language: English
Time: 130 Minutes
Passing score: 300 (scaled)
Format: Single and Multiple Choice, Proctored
Pricing: $250.00 USD
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So let me show you some of the 2V0-72.22 Dumps questions:

QUESTION 1:

Which three statements are advantages of using Spring\’s Dependency Injection? (Choose three.)

A. Dependency injection can make code easier to trace because it couples behavior with construction.
B. Dependency injection reduces the start-up time of an application.
C. Dependencies between application components can be managed externally by the components.
D. Configuration can be externalized and centralized in a small set of files.
E. Dependency injection creates tight coupling between components.
F. Dependency injection facilitates loose coupling between components.

Correct Answer: BDE
Reference: https://raviroza.com/tight-coupling-and-loose-coupling-in-spring-framework/

QUESTION 2:

Which two options are valid optional attributes for Spring\’s @Transactional annotation? (Choose two.)

A. isolation
B. writeOnly
C. nestedTransaction
D. readWrite
E. propagation

Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://learningviacode.blogspot.com/2012/10/attributes-in-springs-declarative.html

QUESTION 3:

Which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)

A. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that is used to instruct the Spring TestContext Framework to record all application events that are published in the ApplicationContext during the execution of a single test.

B. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that you can use to configure how the Spring TestContext Framework is bootstrapped.

C. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that you can use to configure the locations of properties files and inlined properties to be added to the set of PropertySources in the Environment for an ApplicationContext loaded for an integration test.

D. @ActiveProfiles is a class-level annotation that is used to declare which bean definition profiles should be active when loading an ApplicationContext for an integration test.

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/4.2.x/spring-framework-reference/html/integrationtesting.html

QUESTION 4:

What is a Spring Boot starter dependency? (Choose the best answer.)

A. A setting for specifying which code you want Spring Boot to generate for you.
B. A specific POM which you must build to control Spring Boot\’s opinionated runtime.
C. A pre-existing model project you can download and use as the basis of your project.
D. An easy way to include multiple, coordinated dependencies related to a specific technology, like web or JDBC.

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://developer.ibm.com/tutorials/j-spring-boot-basics-perry/

QUESTION 5:

Which three types of objects can be returned from a JdbcTemplate query? (Choose three.)

A. Generic MapS
B. Simple types (int, long, String, etc)
C. JSONObject
D. User-defined types
E. Properties
F. XMLObject

Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6:

Which two options will inject the value of the daily. limit system property? (Choose two.)

A. @Value(“#{daily.limit}”)
B. @Value(“$(systemProperties.daily.limit)”)
C. @Value(“$(daily.limit)”)
D. @Value(“#{systemProperties[`daily.limit\’]}”)
E. @Value(“#{systemProperties.daily.limit}”)

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7:

In which three ways are Security filters used in Spring Security? (Choose three.)

A. To provide risk governance.
B. To drive authentication.
C. To manage application users.
D. To provide a logout capability.
E. To enforce authorization (access control).
F. To encrypt data.

Correct Answer: BDE
Reference: https://www.javadevjournal.com/spring-security/spring-security-filters/

QUESTION 8:

Which two statements are true regarding Spring Boot Testing? (Choose two.)

A. @TestApplicationContext is used to define additional beans or customizations for a test.
B. Test methods in a @SpringBootTest class are transactional by default.
C. @SpringBootTest is typically used for integration testing.
D. Test methods annotated with @SpringBootTest will recreate the ApplicationContext.
E. @SpringBootTest without any configuration classes expects there is only one class annotated with
@SpringBootConfiguration in the application.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

It is a Java code fragment from a Spring application. Which statement is true with regard to the above example? (Choose the best answer.)

A. This syntax is invalid because the result of the getBean() method call should be cast to ClientService.
B. It will return a bean called ClientService regardless of its id or name.
C. This syntax is invalid because the bean id must be specified as a method parameter.
D. It will return a bean of the type ClientService regardless of its id or name.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)

A. CustomerRepository should be a class, not an interface.
B. JPA annotations are required on the Customer class to successfully use Spring Data JDBC.
C. An implementation of this repository can be automatically generated by Spring Data JPA.
D. A class that implements CustomerRepository must be implemented and declared as a Spring Bean.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

Which two statements are true concerning constructor injection? (Choose two.)

A. If there is only one constructor the @Autowired annotation is not required.
B. Constructor injection only allows one value to be injected.
C. Constructor injection is preferred over field injection to support unit testing.
D. Construction injection can be used with multiple constructors without @Autowired annotation.
E. Field injection is preferred over constructor injection from a unit testing standpoint.

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12:

Which two statements are correct regarding Spring Boot auto-configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Auto-configuration uses @Conditional annotations to constrain when it should apply.
B. Auto-configuration could apply when a bean is missing but not when a bean is present.
C. Auto-configuration is applied by processing candidates listed in META-INF/spring.factories.
D. Auto-configuration could apply when a bean is present but not when a bean is missing.
E. Auto-configuration is applied before user-defined beans have been registered.

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the id/name of the declared bean in this Java configuration class? (Choose the best answer.)

A. clientServiceImpl (starting with lowercase “c”)
B. clientServiceImpl (starting with uppercase “C”)
C. clientService (starting with lowercase “c”)
D. ClientService (starting with uppercase “C”)

Correct Answer: D

……

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View 60 questions:

Finally, I wish you success with your first exam in advance!

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This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of VMware’s security solutions and the candidate’s ability to administer the security features and functions of NSX-T Data Center, Workspace ONE, and VMware Carbon Black Cloud.
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VCP-SEC 2v0-81.20 online exam (answers posted at the end of the article):

QUESTION 1

When deploying a Carbon Black Cloud Sensor using GPO, which option is a required setting?

A. COMPANY_CODE
B. LICENSE_CODE
C. CONNECT_LIMIT
D. AUTO_UPDATE

 

QUESTION 2

In the NSX Manager UI, which tab is selected to manage firewall rules?

A. Plan and Troubleshoot tab
B. Security tab
C. Inventory tab
D. Networking tab

 

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit.

2v0-81.20 q3

What command was run on the NSX Edge node to pull this information?

A. get tunnel-ID
B. show vteps
C. get vteps
D. list vteps

 

QUESTION 4

A consulting security firm was hired to inspect your infrastructure for vulnerabilities. The firm inspected these items:
badge readers to enter the datacenter locks on server racks security cameras in the datacenter
What type of infrastructure are they inspecting?

A. Virtual Infrastructure

B. Physical Infrastructure
C. Personnel Infrastructure
D. Logical Infrastructure

 

QUESTION 5

Which three statements are correct for Active Directory integration with Identity Firewalls (IDFW) in an NSX-T Data
Center deployment? (Choose three.)

A. The IDFW can be used on both physical and virtual servers as long as supported operating system is installed.
B. The Thin Agent must be enabled in VMWare tools as it is not enabled by default.
C. The IDFW can be used for Virtual Desktops (VDI) or Remote desktop sessions (RDSH support).
D. Identity-based groups can be used as the source or destination in DFW rules.
E. User identity information is provided by the NSX Guest Introspection Thin Agent.

 

QUESTION 6

An administrator is trying to create a new access policy rule in Workspace ONE Access. Which two options are
available when creating this new access policy rule. (Choose two.)

A. Device OS Version
B. Network Range
C. Compliance State
D. Device Ownership
E. Authentication Method

 

QUESTION 7

A company has just implemented new security guidelines in regards to device management. All iOS
devices must now require a passcode to unlock the device.
An administrator must implement these requirements:
all iOS devices must have a passcode minimum passcode length of 6 numerals auto-lock after 2 minutes
What type of profile in Workspace ONE UEM would the administrator create to accomplish this task?

A. Compliance Profile
B. User Profile
C. Device Profile
D. Access Profile

 

QUESTION 8

When creating a policy in VMware Carbon Black Cloud, what impact does setting the Target Value to Low have?

A. Alerts Severity scores are raised by 1.
B. Alerts Severity scores are raised by 2.
C. Alerts Severity scores are lowered by 1.
D. Alerts Severity scores are lowered by 2.

 

QUESTION 9

An administrator has created a security policy from the NSX UI, but the firewall rules are not being applied
to the traffic in the datapath.
Which two actions could be carried out by the administrator to resolve the problem? (Choose two.)

A. Modify the Direction of the rules in the security policy.
B. Modify the Action of the rules in the security policy.
C. Restart the workloads running on the impacted hosts.
D. Modify the Applied To field of the security policy.
E. Restart the nsx-proxy agent on the impacted hosts.

 

QUESTION 10

When creating a Windows Update Policy for a Workspace ONE solution, which option allows an administrator to utilize
local network traffic only for peer traffic?

A. use peers on same NAT only
B. use peers on the same local network domain
C. simple download mode
D. use internet peers

 

QUESTION 11

When creating a compliance policy in Workspace ONE UEM, which three of the following options are valid Notify
actions? (Choose three.)

A. Send SMS to Device
B. Send Push Notification to Device
C. Voice Call to User
D. Send Email to User
E. SMS to Manager

 

QUESTION 12

Which three options are valid unattended installation options for Carbon Black Cloud Sensors? (Choose three.)

A. UPDATESOURCE=
B. GROUP_NAME=
C. LICENSE_CODE=
D. COMPANY_CODE=
E. AUTO_UPDATE=

Verify answer:

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5v0-42.21 exam questions online exam practice

QUESTION 1

A customer is using Office 365.
How would the VMware SD-WAN recognize this application correctly?

A. The VCE supports prioritization and QoS. Each application is assigned one of the three Service Classes and three
Business Priorities.

B. Top SaaS Apps (TLS encrypted) are identified using put. IP and port ranges Other TLS traffic can be identified based
on the certificate information.

C. Office 365 has to be added as part of customizing the Application Map by TCP/UDP port and subnet ranges.

D. VMware SD-WAN will use SSL inspection to detect Office 365.

 

QUESTION 2

Which port is used for the high availability connection between the two Edges on a pair of Edge 510s?

A. Any port may be chosen.
B. GE1
C. SFP1
D. GE4

 

QUESTION 3

Which deployment model ensures that management and control plane is cloud-delivered while data continues to flow onpremises between VMware SD-WAN nodes that remain on-premises?

A. Hosted SD-WAN Orchestrator/Controller
B. On-premises SD-WAN Orchestrator/Controller
C. Partially on-premises
D. All on-premises

 

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.

5v0-42.21 questions q4

An MSP is designing a solution for a merger of Customer A and Customer B to Customer A\\’s enterprise. Due to
overlapping IP addresses and security requirements, the segments with the same names between Customer A and
Customer A cannot be merged. Based on the graphic and the requirements, how many new segments need to be
configured in the VMware SD-WAN Orchestrator?

A. 4 segments
B. 2 segments
C. 6 segments
D. 5 segments

 

QUESTION 5

A VMware SD-WAN customer has a requirement to enable single sign-on (SSO) authentication to their
existing provider (idp) for access to their Orchestrator account.
Which authentication protocol is supported?

A. OpenID Connect (OlDC)
B. LDAP
C. SAML 2.0
D. TACACS+

 

QUESTION 6

Due to very strict security policies an enterprise customer is looking for an on-premises deployment of the VMware SDWAN Orchestrator and Controllers. Customer data is not expected to flow through this Controller, however it is desirable that management plane traffic towards the Orchestrator coming from VMware SD-WAN Edges can take the overlay tunnels through this controls. What are some of the needed steps to achieve the requirements above?

A. Under gateway configuration -> Configure the Gateway roles as Control Plane, disable Data Plane and enable
management plane forward

B. Under gateway configuration -> Configure the Gateway roles as Control Plane, disable Data Plane and add static
host routes with NAT hand off settings porting to the Orchestrator IPs under Partner Gateway advanced hand off
settings

C. Under gateway configuration -> Configure the Gateway roles as Control-Plane, enable Data Plane and Partner
Gateway role and add static host mules with NAT hand off settings pointing to the Orchestrator IPs under Partner
Gateway advanced hand off settings

D. Under gateway configuration -> Configure the Gateway roles as Control-Plane, enable Data Plant- and Partner
Gateway role and add a static default route with NAT hand off settings under Partner Gateway advanced hand oft
settings

 

QUESTION 7

An enterprise has deployed a VMware SD-WAN solution with Edges in many different located to different
Partner Gateways.
Which design makes it possible to have dynamic branch to branch VPN tunnels between any two Edges?

A. Dedicated at least one Gateway as a Controller, and few initial data plane packets will travers the Controller before
dynamic tunnel is established between the two branches.

B. Add Controller role to each Partner Gateway.

C. Configure each partner Gateway as a Controller.

D. Dedicate at least one Gateway as a Controller, and no data plan packets will traverse the Controller before dynamic
tunnel is established between the two branches.

 

QUESTION 8

A technician at a customer site is deploying VMware SD-WAN Edge 620 notices that the Edge LED is
shown amber.
What is the meaning of this LED color?

A. Edge is still booting.
B. DNS is not reachable from the Edge.
C. Edge is not activated.
D. Internet is not available from the Edge

 

QUESTION 9

A customer is using VMware vSphere in their data center. An administrator is asked to deploy SD- WAN Edges for a
Proof of Concept as soon as possible. Which deployment option is the roost cost and time effective?

A. Deploy a virtual appliance on ESXi
B. Purchase bare metal Edge
C. Deploy a virtual appliance in AWS
D. Deploy a virtual appliance on KVM

 

QUESTION 10

Which three authentication mode options ate valid for use on the VMware SD-WAN Edge? (Choose three.)

A. Certificate Enabled
B. Certificate ate Optional
C. Certificate Disabled
D. Certificate Activated
E. Certificate Accepted
F. Certificate Requited

 

QUESTION 11

A customer has a 10,000 branch site requirement arid must use a hub cluster in their design. Which Mware SO- WAN
best practice should be used when designing the cluster?

A. BGP on WAN side
B. Static routing
C. MP BGP south bound
D. BGP on LAN side

 

QUESTION 12

Which form factor can a customer use to deploy VMware SD WAN Edge?

A. Oracle Virtual Box
B. Open Virtualization Appliance
C. Docker Container
D. Hyper-V Virtual Machine

Verify answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12
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Exam answers are announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

Which command is used to upgrade a Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Cluster (TKG) to a different kubernetes version?

A. tkg cluster upgrade –k8s-version
B. tkg upgrade cluster –kubernetes-version
C. tkg cluster upgrade –kubernetes-version
D. tkg upgrade cluster –version

 

QUESTION 2

What role is used to run cluster inspection on Tanzu Mission Control console?

A. Cluster.edit role
B. Credential.admin role
C. Credential.view role
D. Create role

 

QUESTION 3

To configure a cluster with user authentication in Tanzu Kubernetes Grid (TKG), which options are needed to deploy
Dex on a management cluster running on vSphere? (Choose two.)

A. Dex with Local Authentication
B. Dex with Active Directory
C. Dex with OpenLDAP
D. Dex with OIDC
E. Dex with LDAP

 

QUESTION 4

What is the command to find out the available node base operating system images?

A. kubectl get nodes
B. kubectl cluster-info
C. kubectl get virtualmachineclasses
D. kubectl get virtualmachineimages

 

QUESTION 5

What is a standard solution for a Kubernetes administrator to implement pod security?

A. iptables
B. Add check for validating YAML
C. OPA
D. Use trusted corporate repository

 

QUESTION 6

Which is the correct statement describing the characteristic of a pod?

A. Pod is the smallest entity managed by Docker.
B. Pod can contain only one container.
C. Containers in a pod start and stop together.
D. Pod is deployed directly on the virtual machine.

 

QUESTION 7

How are Tanzu Kubernetes clusters upgraded?

A. Deploy a new cluster with upgraded Kubernetes release
B. Rolling upgrades
C. Clusters are only upgraded offline
D. In-place upgrade for each node

 

QUESTION 8

Select the tkg cli command below that provides valid syntax for scaling a Tanzu Kubernetes Grid cluster:

A. tkg scale cluster_name –cp-machine-count 5 –node-count 10
B. tkg scale cluster cluster_name –controlplane-machine-count 5 –worker-machine-count 10
C. tkg scale cluster_name –controlplane-machine-count 5 –worker-machine-count 10
D. tkg scale cluster cluster_name –cp-machine-count 5 –node-count 10

 

QUESTION 9

After successfully configuring vSphere Container Storage Interface (CSI), what is the path an administrator can follow to
view the status of the container volumes?

A. Describe the StorafeClass via kubectl.
B. vSAN Data Store in ESXi Host Client.
C. Get the status of the pods vis kubectl.
D. Container volumes in vSphere Client.

 

QUESTION 10

A Tanzu Mission Control administrator would like to enforce the following container controls:
Require Digest.
Name-Tag Allowlist.
To which type of policies do these controls belong to?

A. Security
B. Registry
C. Access
D. Network

 

QUESTION 11

What is the command to recognize a cluster in a disconnected state to Tanzu Mission Control?

A. tmc cluster configure -n -k
B. tmc configure cluster -n -k
C. tmc join cluster -n -k
D. tmc cluster reattach -n -k

 

QUESTION 12

Which is the correct option to forward logs from Tanzu Kubernetes Grid clusters to Elastic, Kafka, Splunk or an HTTP
endpoint?

A. No action is required. Tanzu Kubernetes Grid automatically forwards the logfiles to syslog.
B. Use the kubectl get logs command to forward the logs
C. Deploy the fluent bit plugin to vRealize Log Insight
D. Deploy the fluent bit plugin to vRealize Log Insight

Publish the answer

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12
BADEABCBBCBDD

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VMware 2v0-31.21 exam questions online exam

Exam answers are announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

What is the function of Action-Based Extensibility (ABX)? (Choose the best answer.)

A. It provides the capability to migrate content between instances of vRealize Automation.
B. It provides efficient capacity and cost management for managed virtual machines.
C. It provides intelligent remediation and integrated compliance for security patches.
D. It provides a way to execute stateless function, which contain reusable parameterized actions.

 

QUESTION 2

Which vRealize Automation service allows an administrator to import released cloud templates and Amazon Web
Services CloudFormation templates that users can deploy? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Service Broker
B. Cloud Assembly
C. Orchestrator
D. Code Stream

 

QUESTION 3

The Quickstart wizard executes multiple actions when submitted.
What is one of the actions that is always executed by the Quickstart wizard? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Send approval notification
B. Create an Active Directory integration
C. Request a deployment from a machine catalog item
D. Execute subscriptions for an event topic

 

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator successfully deploys vRealize Automation (vRA) and configures a new directory in vRealize Suite
Lifecycle Manager for the App-Dev team. The Add-Dev team needs to request catalog items and manage the
subsequent deployments. The company security policy requires that users be granted the least privileges necessary to
fulfill their role.
The administrator is assigned a ticket to address the issue that when the App-Dev members log into vRA, they receive
the error shown in the exhibit. Based on initial investigation, all of the users experiencing the issue are members of the
same Active Directory Group: App-Dev-Users. Upon review from within vRA Identity and Access Management, all of the users reporting the issue appear under the Active Users tab.
Which two actions should the administrator take within Identity and Access Management to resolve the reported issue
while adhering to the security policy? (Choose two.)

A. Under Enterprise Groups, assign the Service Broker User service role to the App-Dev-Users group.
B. Under Active Users, assign the Service Broker Administrator service role to each of the impacted users.
C. Under Enterprise Groups, assign the Service Broker Administrator service role to the App-Dev-Users group.
D. Under Enterprise Groups, assign the Organization Member role to the App-Dev-Users group.
E. Under Active Users, assign the Organization Owner role to each of the impacted users.

 

QUESTION 5

An administrator is tasked is tasked with using an existing set of cloud templates and images that are available online
through the Marketplace tab in vRealize Automation.
Which integration does the administrator have to configure first to enable this functionality? (Choose the best answer.)

A. vRealize Orchestrator
B. Ansible
C. My VMware
D. GitLab

 

QUESTION 6

Assuming no additional inputs have been added to the cloud template and the custom form is not enabled, which two
fields are always flagged as mandatory when requesting a catalog item? (Choose two.)

A. Description
B. Cloud zone
C. Version
D. Project
E. Deployment name

 

QUESTION 7

As part of a greenfield deployment, an administrator needs to set up an NSX-T Data Center cloud account.
Which user role is required to create an NSX-T Data Center cloud account in vRealize Automation? (Choose the best
answer.)

A. Cloud Assembly Administrator
B. Cloud Assembly User
C. Orchestrator Administrator
D. NSX-T Data Center Enterprise Administrator

 

QUESTION 8

Which vRealize Automation service is available through an external appliance in vRealize Automation Cloud? (Choose
the best answer.)

A. Cloud Assembly
B. Service Broker
C. vRealize Orchestrator
D. Code Stream

 

QUESTION 9

An administrator is configuring vRealize Automation to generate a unique machine naming convention for the deployed resources.
The machine name should meet the following criteria:
XXX-YYY-ZZZ-## ac XXX – Cloud Zone YYY – Server Function YYY – Application ## – 2-digit running number
Which component should the administrator use to configure this policy? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Cloud zones
B. Machines
C. Projects
D. Capability tag

 

QUESTION 10

An administrator configures a lease policy with the following settings:
Maximum lease (days): 10 Maximum total lease (days): 30 Grace period (days): 5
If a user does not respond to any emails, after how many days will the deployment be destroyed? (Choose the best
answer.)

A. 15
B. 10
C. 35
D. 40

 

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.

vmware 2v0-31.21 exam questions q11

An administrator is testing a newly created Windows 2016 cloud template in Cloud Assembly. While using the Test
option from within the cloud template, the attached error appears.
What is a possible cause for this error message? (Choose the best answer.)

A. During the machine allocation phase, Cloud Assembly could not find enough resources.
B. The network profile created did not have the correct capability tag.
C. The administrator did not associate a cloud zone to the project.
D. The administrator did not add a cloud account.

 

QUESTION 12

An IT Director wants to integrate existing Amazon Web Services CloudFormation templates into a new vRealize
Automation deployment.
How can the administrator achieve this? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Deploy a Cloud Proxy into the appropriate region of the pre-configured Amazon Web Services cloud account.
B. Add content sources in Service Broker from the pre-configured Amazon Web Services cloud account.
C. Create and configure a custom integration into Cloud Assembly.
D. Leverage Action Based Extensibility (ABX) to extend functionality, programmatically.

Publish the answer

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DABAECCEACCACB

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VMware 3V0-21.21 online exam test

QUESTION 1

During a requirements gathering workshop, the customer provides the following requirement:
A new vSphere platform must be designed securely and all interfaces must be protected against potential
snooping.
How should this non-functional security requirement be documented?

A. Interfaces must be audited.
B. Encrypted channels must be used for all communications.
C. Unauthorized access to interfaces must be reported within 15 minutes.
D. Communications must be through Private VLANs (PVLAN).

 

QUESTION 2

A new vSphere platform is being created. The platform will host virtual machines that will run management services and line-of-business applications.
What should the architect consider when designing the number and type of clusters required?

A. Maximum tolerable downtime
B. Predicted platform growth
C. Auditing requirements for the virtual machines
D. The level of isolation required between virtual machine classifications

 

QUESTION 3

During a requirements gathering workshop, the customer provides the following information:
Each host has 2 × 10 GbE NIC EtherChannel is not currently configured No changes can be made to the physical
network Network throughput must be prioritized for defined critical services
Which two recommendations should the architect make with regard to virtual networking? (Choose two.)

A. Use Route Based on Physical NIC Load.
B. Use Network I/O Control with Shares.
C. Use Network I/O Control with Reservation.
D. Use Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP).
E. Use Network I/O Control with Limits.

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/vsphere-esxi-vcenter-server-65-networkingguide.pdf

 

QUESTION 4

An architect is designing the expansion of an existing vSphere 7 environment. The customer is requesting
a design for a new cluster to support the anticipated future business growth. The requirements specified
for the existing environment design must be considered when designing the new cluster.
The existing design has the following requirements:
REQ01 The environment has an availability target of 99.5% for all infrastructure.
REQ02 The recovery time objective (RTO) for Tier 1 virtual machines is one hour.
REQ03 Windows and Linux virtual machines must reside on separate clusters.
REQ04 Access to the management cluster within the environment must be controlled.
Which of the listed requirements would be classified as a functional requirement?

A. The environment has an availability target of 99.5% for all infrastructure
B. The recovery time objective (RTO) for Tier 1 virtual machines is one hour
C. Access to the management cluster within the environment must be controlled
D. Windows and Linux virtual machines must reside on separate clusters

 

QUESTION 5

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) for an organization is concerned about the security posture of the
operating system images that are used for the provisioning of their Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) applications. The
organization is in a growth period. The organization is opening a new data center to launch its next phase of new SaaS-based solutions.
The DevOps team currently creates encrypted virtual machine (VM) templates that are used for various operating systems and adds these to the vSphere inventory. The DevOps team already uses a published content library and has been granted a role with the ability to add and delete library items.
The following requirements have been noted:
Impacts to the DevOps team\\’s operational processes must be kept to a minimum.
The DevOps team must be able to regularly check out a copy of the image for updates and check in a new
version of the image.
Images must be synchronized from the primary data center to the new data center.
Which three recommendations should the architect make to design a content library solution that will meet
these requirements? (Choose three.)

A. Clone virtual machines as VM templates to the published content library
B. Create a subscribed library from the published library and synchronize Open Virtualization Format (OVF) templates
on-demand
C. Create a subscription and publish VM templates to a subscribed content library
D. Create a subscribed library from the published library and synchronize Open Virtualization Format (OVF) templates
automatically
E. Clone virtual machines as Open Virtualization Format (OVF) templates to the published content library
F. Update the role for the DevOps team with new privileges

 

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.
During a requirements gathering workshop, the customer shares the following diagram regarding their availability
service-level agreements (SLAs):

vmware 3v0-21.21 exam questions q6

The customer wants database application level availability to always take precedence. What should the architect
recommend to meet the customer\\’s requirement?

A. Enable vSphere HA and add a VM Override with VM Restart Priority set to Highest.
B. Enable Fault Tolerance.
C. Enable Sphere HA and maintain the default settings.
D. Enable vSphere HA and add a VM Override with VM Restart Priority set to Lowest.

 

QUESTION 7

An organization\\’s data scientists are executing a plan to use machine learning (ML). They must have access to
graphical processing unit (GPU) capabilities to execute their computational models when needed. The solutions
architect needs to design a solution to ensure that GPUs can be shared by multiple virtual machines.
Which two solutions should the architect recommend to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. NVIDIA vGPU
B. AMD MxGPU
C. vSphere DirectPath I/O
D. vSGA
E. vSphere Bitfusion

 

QUESTION 8

An architect is tasked with reviewing the design of a VMware software-defined data center (SDDC) for a software
development company. The platform is used to developing applications and services. It is important that the customer
be able to accurately benchmark performance of developed applications.
The platform has recently commissioned new hosts to update the development cluster.
The development cluster host configuration is: 4 ESXi hosts with 2 sockets × 16 cores 512 GB RAM divided evenly
between sockets There is no resource contention
The benchmarking cluster host configuration is: 8 ESXi hosts with 2 sockets × 8 cores 256 GB RAM divided evenly
between sockets There is no resource contention
The customer is developing an application that includes a database virtual machine. The application developer states
that the database virtual machine performs as required only when allocated 8 vCPUs 256 GB RAM. The database
virtual machine performance meets the required levels when run from the development cluster. Performance
benchmarking for the database virtual machine yields highly variable results when run from the benchmarking cluster.
The application cannot be released without reliable performance benchmarking data.
What is a possible reason for the difference in performance test results between the development and benchmarking
clusters?

A. The database tier breaches a single NUMA node boundary for the benchmarking cluster
B. The database tier breaches a single NUMA node boundary for the development cluster
C. The development cluster can support a lower %Ready time per vCPU
D. The development cluster has more available RAM per host

 

QUESTION 9

An architect is tasked with designing a new VMware software-defined data center (SDDC) solution for an
online retail customer who has a primary and secondary data center as well as 10 distribution hubs.
The customer has provided the following business requirements to help inform the design:
The solution must support the running of up to 1,000 concurrent virtual machines across the primary and
secondary data center.
The solution must support the running of up to 20 concurrent virtual machines in each distribution hub.
The solution must support the separation of management and lines-of-business application virtual machines.
All management components (including directory services, backup, automation, operations and logging)
must be deployed to the primary data center.
All virtual infrastructure components must have redundancy of N+1.
All sites are connected to each other using a wide area network that has multiple diversely routed links.
The solution should support a monthly uptime target of 99.9%.
The recovery time objective (RTO) for the solution must be four hours.
The recovery point objective (RPO) for the solution must be 24 hours.
Given the information from the customer, which assumption should the architect include in the design?

A. All business application virtual machines can be deployed into a single cluster within the primary data center.
B. Each distribution hub should be configured with a backup device.
C. The wide area network has sufficient bandwidth to support centralized management.
D. Each cluster will have a minimum of four hosts.

 

QUESTION 10

In a meeting to discuss the minimum viable product (MVP) deployment of a new customer-facing application, the key
stakeholder shares details of the application components and the application administrators share details of
performance and integrity tests for the application.
The application will be made up of the following components: A web server

Steps to confirm the web server is operating correctly will take 15 minutes after the application server is online. An
application server

Steps to confirm application server integrity will take 15 minutes after the database is online. A database server
-The database server will be managed by a database administrator, with an agreed service-level agreement (SLA) to
restore and validate database services within one hour.
The existing VMware infrastructure offers a recovery point objective (RPO) of 5 minutes and recovery time objective
(RTO) of 15 minutes through a combination of backups and replication.
In the event of an outage impacting all three application components, how long will it take for the application to recover and complete all checks?

A. 15 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 105 minutes
D. 90 minutes

 

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.
During a requirements gathering workshop, the customer shares the following about their existing ESXi
host virtual networking infrastructure:

vmware 3v0-21.21 exam questions q11

The customer confirms that:
Each ESXi host has approximately 200 virtual machines.
They want to maximize the number of concurrent virtual machine migrations.
When placing a host in maintenance mode, it takes a long time to evacuate the virtual machines.
Which two recommendations should the architect make in order to help the customer overcome their
challenge? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the network to use MTU for the VMotion VMKernel to 1,600 bytes
B. Configure the network to use MTU for the VMotion VMKernel to 9,000 bytes
C. Create an additional standard switch with pNIC3 to use for vMotion
D. Use the 3 pNICs and bundle them in a link aggregation group (LAG) configuration
E. Use 10 GbE NICs instead of 1 GbE

 

QUESTION 12

An architect is creating a network design for a new vSphere environment.
Based on customer requirements, the environment must support the following types of traffic: Management vMotion
vSAN Fault Tolerance Virtual machine traffic, which cannot be impacted by other types of traffic
Which design recommendation can the architect make for a resilient infrastructure with vSphere network service
tiering?

A. Use different logical networks to ensure traffic is isolated with separate VLANs
B. Use Network I/O Control and ensure appropriate share value is defined for different types of traffic giving priority to
the virtual machines traffic
C. Use two dedicated virtual switches with a single adapter each, dedicating one virtual switch for Management,
vMotion, vSAN and Fault Tolerance traffic, and the second one for virtual machine traffic
D. Use a NIC teaming policy based on the physical NIC load

 

QUESTION 13

A customer has six hosts available in a cluster. When running at full capacity, all virtual machines can be run on two
hosts.
How many hosts can the customer place into maintenance mode at the same time while still providing N+2 resiliency to the cluster?

A. Two
B. Three
C. One
D. None

Verify the answer:

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ABADABEFDADCBAADAB

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