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Latest updated CCNP Security 300-725 dumps from Lead4Pass

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Read CCNP Security 300-725 dumps exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsRelease timeExam nameFromPrevious issue
15Sep 20, 2022Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (SWSA)Lead4Pass2021.9.14
New Question 1:

What causes authentication failures on a Cisco WSA when LDAP is used for authentication?

A. when the passphrase contains only 5 characters

B. when the passphrase contains characters that are not 7-bit ASCI

C. when the passphrase contains one of the following characters `@ # $ % ^\’

D. when the passphrase contains 50 characters

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_appendix_011001.html


New Question 2:
CCNP Security 300-725 dumps exam q2

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the transaction log is true?

A. The log does not have a date and time

B. The proxy had the content and did not contact other servers

C. The transaction used TCP destination port 8187

D. The AnalizeSuspectTraffic policy group was applied to the transaction

Correct Answer: D


New Question 3:

Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)

A. X-Forwarded-For

B. high availability

C. web cache

D. via

E. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_0100.html


New Question 4:

Which two configuration options are available on a Cisco WSA within a decryption policy? (Choose two.)

A. Pass Through

B. Warn

C. Decrypt

D. Allow

E. Block

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01011.html


New Question 5:

Which information in the HTTP request is used to determine if it is subject to the referrer exceptions feature in the Cisco WSA?

A. protocol

B. version

C. header

D. payload

Correct Answer: C

Requests for embedded content usually include the address of the site from which the request originated (this is known as the “referer” field in the request\’s HTTP header). This header information is used to determine the categorization of the referred content.

Reference https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01100.html


New Question 6:

What is used to configure WSA as an explicit proxy?

A. IP Spoofing from the router

B. Network settings from user browser

C. WCCP redirection from the firewall

D. Auto redirection using PBR from the switch

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/117940-qa-wsa-00.html


New Question 7:

What is the benefit of integrating Cisco Cognitive Threat Analytics with a Cisco WSA?

A. It adds additional information to the Cisco WSA reports

B. It adds additional malware protection to the Cisco WSA

C. It provides the ability to use artificial intelligence to block viruses

D. It reduces time to identify threats in the network

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.ironportstore.com/datasheets/data_sheet_c78-729630.pdf


New Question 8:

What are all of the available options for configuring an exception to blocking for referred content?

A. all embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

B. selected embedded/referred except, all embedded/referred, and selected embedded/referred

C. selected embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

D. all embedded/referred, selected embedded/referred, and all embedded/referred except

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01001.html (procedure)


New Question 9:

Which two parameters are mandatory to control access to websites with proxy authentication on a Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. External Authentication

B. Identity Enabled Authentication

C. Transparent User Identification

D. Credential Encryption

E. Authentication Realm

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_appendix_010111.html


New Question 10:

What is a valid predefined time range when configuring a Web Tracking query?

A. year

B. minute

C. hour

D. month

Correct Answer: B

Web tracking query uses minute as a predefined time range to track web-related queries.


New Question 11:

When a Cisco WSA is installed with default settings, which port is assigned to the web proxy if the M1 port is used exclusively for management?

A. T1

B. P2

C. T2

D. P1

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-5/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_5_1/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_5_1_chapter_01.html


New Question 12:

Which statement about Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting integration is true?

A. AWSR uses IP addresses to differentiate Cisco WSA deployments

B. AWSR does not require a license to index data

C. AWSR can remove log files after they are indexed

D. AWSR installation is CLI-based on Windows and Red Hat Linux systems

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_7/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_7_0.pdf


New Question 13:

A user browses a company website that is categorized as “Business and Industry” and contains a Facebook post. The user cannot see the Facebook post because the category “Social Networking” is blocked. Which configuration allows the user to see the Facebook post?

CCNP Security 300-725 dumps exam q13

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01001.html


New Question 14:

Which two types of reports are scheduled on the Cisco WSA to analyze traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Layer 3 traffic monitor

B. URL categories

C. host statistics

D. application visibility

E. system capacity

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010101.pdf (8)


New Question 15:

What must be configured first when creating an access policy that matches the Active Directory group?

A. authentication, authorization, and accounting of groups

B. FQDN specification

C. authentication realm

D. authorized groups specification

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/118005-configure-ntlm-00.html

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New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the steps to restore an automatic device registration failure on the standby Cisco FMC from the left into the correct order on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

300-710 dumps questions 1

Correct Answer:

300-710 dumps questions 1-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v62/firepower_management_center_high_availability.html#id_32288


New Question 2:

What is the result of enabling Cisco FTD clustering?

A. For the dynamic routing feature, if the master unit fails, the newly elected master unit maintains all existing connections.

B. Integrated Routing and Bridging are supported on the master unit.

C. Site-to-site VPN functionality is limited to the master unit, and all VPN connections are dropped if the master unit fails.

D. All Firepower appliances can support Cisco FTD clustering.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v64/clustering_for_the_firepower_threat_defense.html


New Question 3:

Which two conditions are necessary for high availability to function between two Cisco FTD devices? (Choose two.)

A. The units must be the same version

B. Both devices can be part of a different group that must be in the same domain when configured within the FMC.

C. The units must be different models if they are part of the same series.

D. The units must be configured only for firewall routed mode.

E. The units must be the same model.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-management-center/212699-configure-ftd-high-availability-on-firep.html


New Question 4:

On the advanced tab under inline set properties, which allows interfaces to emulate a passive interface?

A. transparent inline mode

B. TAP mode

C. strict TCP enforcement

D. propagate link state

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v64/inline_sets_and_passive_interfaces_for_firepower_threat_defense.html


New Question 5:

What are the minimum requirements to deploy a managed device inline?

A. inline interfaces, security zones, MTU, and mode

B. passive interface, MTU, and mode

C. inline interfaces, MTU, and mode

D. passive interface, security zone, MTU, and mode

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/650/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v65/ips_device_deployments_and_configuration.html


New Question 6:

What is the difference between an inline and inline tap on Cisco Firepower?

A. Inline tap mode can send a copy of the traffic to another device.

B. Inline tap mode does full packet capture.

C. Inline mode cannot do SSL decryption.

D. Inline mode can drop malicious traffic.

Correct Answer: A


New Question 7:

With Cisco Firepower Threat Defense software, which interface mode must be configured to passively receive traffic that passes through the appliance?

A. inline set

B. passive

C. routed

D. inline tap

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v64/interface_overview_for_firepower_threat_defense.html


New Question 8:

Which two deployment types support high availability? (Choose two.)

A. transparent

B. routed

C. clustered

D. intra-chassis multi-instance

E. virtual appliance in public cloud

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/610/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v61/firepower_threat_defense_high_availability.html


New Question 9:

Which protocol establishes network redundancy in a switched Firepower device deployment?

A. STP

B. HSRP

C. GLBP

D. VRRP

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v62/firepower_threat_defense_high_availability.html


New Question 10:

Which interface type allows packets to be dropped?

A. passive

B. inline

C. ERSPAN

D. TAP

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-ngfw/200908-configuring-firepower-threat-defense-int.html


New Question 11:

Which Cisco Firepower Threat Defense, which two interface settings are required when configuring a routed interface? (Choose two.)

A. Redundant Interface

B. EtherChannel

C. Speed

D. Media Type

E. Duplex

Correct Answer: CE

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/610/fdm/fptd-fdm-config-guide-610/fptd-fdm-interfaces.html


New Question 12:

Which two dynamic routing protocols are supported in Firepower Threat Defense without using FlexConfig? (Choose two.)

A. EIGRP

B. OSPF

C. static routing

D. IS-IS

E. BGP

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/660/fdm/fptd-fdm-config-guide-660/fptd-fdm-routing.html


New Question 13:

Which policy rule is included in the deployment of a local DMZ during the initial deployment of a Cisco NGFW through the Cisco FMC GUI?

A. a default DMZ policy for which only a user can change the IP addresses.

B. deny IP any

C. no policy rule is included

D. permit IP any

Correct Answer: C


New Question 14:

What are two application layer preprocessors? (Choose two.)

A. CIFS

B. IMAP

C. SSL

D. DNP3

E. ICMP

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v60/Application_Layer_Preprocessors.html


New Question 15:

Which two OSPF routing features are configured in Cisco FMC and propagated to Cisco FTD? (Choose two.)

A. OSPFv2 with IPv6 capabilities

B. virtual links

C. SHA authentication to OSPF packets

D. area boundary router type 1 LSA filtering

E. MD5 authentication to OSPF packets

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v62/ospf_for_firepower_threat_defense.html

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VMware 5v0-11.21 dumps: serves all 5v0-11.21 VMware Cloud on AWS Master Specialist exam candidates

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NEW QUESTION 1:

Which two network types can be extended with VMware HCX Network Extension? (Choose two.)

A. vSphere Distributed Switch VLAN Networks
B. NSX Overlay Networks
C. Trunk Networks
D. vSphere Standard Switch VLAN Networks
E. Private VLAN Networks

Correct Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 2:

Where would a VMware Cloud on AWS administrator generate an API token?

A. Organizational Settings
B. Identity and Access Management
C. Developer Center
D. My Account Section

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3:

A customer wants to ensure that VMware Cloud on AWS maintenance operations are performed during their maintenance window. Which option would allow the customer to achieve this outcome?

A. Schedule a maintenance preference in the software-defined data center (SDDC) console.
B. Schedule a call with VMware Cloud on AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.
C. Schedule a call with AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.
D. Schedule a maintenance window through an online support request.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4:

Which method can be used to deploy a VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center?

A. VMware Data Center Command-Line Interface
B. AWS Management Console
C. REST APIs
D. VMware vCenter Server

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5:

A virtual machine in VMware Cloud on AWS sends a packet to an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) Linux instance in the associated AWS account. Which device is the next hop for the packet?

A. Edge Virtual Machine
B. AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) on the VMware ESXI host
C. Tier-0 (T0) Router
D. Tier-1 (T1) Router

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6:

Which two statements are true for the pre-defined resource pools in VMware Cloud on AWS? (Choose two.)

A. Users are allowed to monitor and modify the resource allocation settings in the Mgmt-RsourcePool.
B. The Mgmt-ResourcePool is able to utilize resources in subsequently created clusters if needed.
C. Users can modify the pre-configured vSphere DRS settings in their own Compute-ResourcePool.
D. Users can rename child resource pools to better match company policy.
E. All workload virtual machines are created in the top-level (root) Compute-ResourcePool by default.

Correct Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 7:

What is the maximum Gbps of bandwidth that each AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) provides on an i3.metal host?

A. 25 Gbps
B. 50 Gbps
C. 10 Gbps
D. 100 Gbps

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8:

The Tier-O (TO) router will send northbound packets through which device?

A. The AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) of the VMware ESXi host that the active TO Edge virtual machine is currently running on.

B. The AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) of the VMware ESXi host where the packet is originating from.

C. The AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) of the VMware ESXI host that the passive TO Edge virtual machine is currently running on.

D. The AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) of the VMware ESXi host that is currently the least utilized.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9:

An administrator runs an analysis on all workloads using Live Optics and confirms there are a variety of applications, including Microsoft SQL server and Oracle databases. The Microsoft SQL workloads are averaging 4,000 IOPS per virtual machine, approximately 50% writes. The Oracle workloads are averaging 3,000 IOPS per virtual machine, and approximately 80% writes. Which method should be used to input the data into the VMware Cloud on AWS Sizer for the most accurate results?

A. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’database\’ mode. Create workload profiles for the analyzed virtual machines, including profiles for Microsoft SQL and Oracle. Set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O profile manually.

B. Use the Quick Sizer. Set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O profile manually.

C. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’import\’ mode. Import the Live Optics data and let the Advanced Sizer set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O automatically.

D. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’manual\’ mode. Create workload profiles for the analyzed virtual machines, including profiles for Microsoft SQL and Oracle. Use the default values for the SQL and Oracle workload profiles.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10:

Which three statements are true about the Elastic DRS Optimize for Rapid Scale-Out policy? (Choose three.)

A. Hosts are added incrementally when needed for storage.

B. Hosts will NOT be removed automatically when they are no longer needed.

C. Multiple hosts are added at a time when needed for memory or CPU.

D. After a storage scale-out event is triggered, single hosts are added every 30 minutes.

E. High threshold for storage, like the other policies, is set at 75%.

F. To resolve constraints related to CPU and memory, hosts are added two at a time.

Correct Answer: ACF

NEW QUESTION 11:

A new VMware Cloud on AWS customer has previously deployed a VMware Horizon-based VDI solution into their data center to support their remote developer workforce. Due to unforeseen growth, the company needs to quickly expand their remote workforce. The growth will consume any forecast capacity in the VDI solution and, therefore, additional capacity is now required. The VDI solution service owner would like the solution to support the ability to quickly scale in/out to provide additional capacity based on demand. Which three steps should the administrator take to scale out the VDI solution? (Choose three.)

A. Deploy a new VMware Horizon pod on VMware Cloud on AWS.

B. Deploy a new VMware Horizon pod on-premises.

C. Configure network connectivity and firewall rules to allow communications between the two on-premises connection servers.

D. Configure network connectivity and firewall rules to allow communications between on-premises and VMware Cloud on AWS connection servers.

E. Connect the two VMware Horizon pods together using the security servers.

F. Connect the two VMware Horizon pods together using a Horizon Cloud Pod Architecture (CPA).

Correct Answer: BDF

NEW QUESTION 12:

A user with an Organization Member role would like to add another user to an organization. How would this be accomplished?

A. Only users with an Organization Owner role can invite and add users to the organization.

B. The user with an Organization Member role needs to have CloudAdmin permissions in order to add a new user.

C. The user with an Organization Member role will be able to add a new user through the Identity and Access Management page.

D. Users with an Organization Member role are automatically granted access to all roles within VMware Cloud on AWS.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13:

An administrator is looking to establish a hybrid connection between on-premises and VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC) environments in order to migrate virtual machines. The on-premises environment is NOT using NSX today; however, the administrator wants to avoid having to change IP addresses after each migration, and there are some applications that require the same broadcast domain. Which connection is needed to meet these requirements?

A. Policy-based VPN
B. Layer 2 VPN (L2VPN)
C. AWS Direct Connect
D. Route-based VPN

Correct Answer: D

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