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Number of exam questionsRelease timeExam nameFromPrevious issue
15Sep 20, 2022Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (SWSA)Lead4Pass2021.9.14
New Question 1:

What causes authentication failures on a Cisco WSA when LDAP is used for authentication?

A. when the passphrase contains only 5 characters

B. when the passphrase contains characters that are not 7-bit ASCI

C. when the passphrase contains one of the following characters `@ # $ % ^\’

D. when the passphrase contains 50 characters

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_appendix_011001.html


New Question 2:
CCNP Security 300-725 dumps exam q2

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the transaction log is true?

A. The log does not have a date and time

B. The proxy had the content and did not contact other servers

C. The transaction used TCP destination port 8187

D. The AnalizeSuspectTraffic policy group was applied to the transaction

Correct Answer: D


New Question 3:

Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)

A. X-Forwarded-For

B. high availability

C. web cache

D. via

E. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_0100.html


New Question 4:

Which two configuration options are available on a Cisco WSA within a decryption policy? (Choose two.)

A. Pass Through

B. Warn

C. Decrypt

D. Allow

E. Block

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01011.html


New Question 5:

Which information in the HTTP request is used to determine if it is subject to the referrer exceptions feature in the Cisco WSA?

A. protocol

B. version

C. header

D. payload

Correct Answer: C

Requests for embedded content usually include the address of the site from which the request originated (this is known as the “referer” field in the request\’s HTTP header). This header information is used to determine the categorization of the referred content.

Reference https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_01100.html


New Question 6:

What is used to configure WSA as an explicit proxy?

A. IP Spoofing from the router

B. Network settings from user browser

C. WCCP redirection from the firewall

D. Auto redirection using PBR from the switch

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/117940-qa-wsa-00.html


New Question 7:

What is the benefit of integrating Cisco Cognitive Threat Analytics with a Cisco WSA?

A. It adds additional information to the Cisco WSA reports

B. It adds additional malware protection to the Cisco WSA

C. It provides the ability to use artificial intelligence to block viruses

D. It reduces time to identify threats in the network

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.ironportstore.com/datasheets/data_sheet_c78-729630.pdf


New Question 8:

What are all of the available options for configuring an exception to blocking for referred content?

A. all embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

B. selected embedded/referred except, all embedded/referred, and selected embedded/referred

C. selected embedded/referred and all embedded/referred except

D. all embedded/referred, selected embedded/referred, and all embedded/referred except

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01001.html (procedure)


New Question 9:

Which two parameters are mandatory to control access to websites with proxy authentication on a Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A. External Authentication

B. Identity Enabled Authentication

C. Transparent User Identification

D. Credential Encryption

E. Authentication Realm

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_appendix_010111.html


New Question 10:

What is a valid predefined time range when configuring a Web Tracking query?

A. year

B. minute

C. hour

D. month

Correct Answer: B

Web tracking query uses minute as a predefined time range to track web-related queries.


New Question 11:

When a Cisco WSA is installed with default settings, which port is assigned to the web proxy if the M1 port is used exclusively for management?

A. T1

B. P2

C. T2

D. P1

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-5/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_5_1/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_5_1_chapter_01.html


New Question 12:

Which statement about Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting integration is true?

A. AWSR uses IP addresses to differentiate Cisco WSA deployments

B. AWSR does not require a license to index data

C. AWSR can remove log files after they are indexed

D. AWSR installation is CLI-based on Windows and Red Hat Linux systems

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_7/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_7_0.pdf


New Question 13:

A user browses a company website that is categorized as “Business and Industry” and contains a Facebook post. The user cannot see the Facebook post because the category “Social Networking” is blocked. Which configuration allows the user to see the Facebook post?

CCNP Security 300-725 dumps exam q13

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01001.html


New Question 14:

Which two types of reports are scheduled on the Cisco WSA to analyze traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Layer 3 traffic monitor

B. URL categories

C. host statistics

D. application visibility

E. system capacity

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_UserGuide_chapter_010101.pdf (8)


New Question 15:

What must be configured first when creating an access policy that matches the Active Directory group?

A. authentication, authorization, and accounting of groups

B. FQDN specification

C. authentication realm

D. authorized groups specification

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/118005-configure-ntlm-00.html

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New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the steps to restore an automatic device registration failure on the standby Cisco FMC from the left into the correct order on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

300-710 dumps questions 1

Correct Answer:

300-710 dumps questions 1-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v62/firepower_management_center_high_availability.html#id_32288


New Question 2:

What is the result of enabling Cisco FTD clustering?

A. For the dynamic routing feature, if the master unit fails, the newly elected master unit maintains all existing connections.

B. Integrated Routing and Bridging are supported on the master unit.

C. Site-to-site VPN functionality is limited to the master unit, and all VPN connections are dropped if the master unit fails.

D. All Firepower appliances can support Cisco FTD clustering.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v64/clustering_for_the_firepower_threat_defense.html


New Question 3:

Which two conditions are necessary for high availability to function between two Cisco FTD devices? (Choose two.)

A. The units must be the same version

B. Both devices can be part of a different group that must be in the same domain when configured within the FMC.

C. The units must be different models if they are part of the same series.

D. The units must be configured only for firewall routed mode.

E. The units must be the same model.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-management-center/212699-configure-ftd-high-availability-on-firep.html


New Question 4:

On the advanced tab under inline set properties, which allows interfaces to emulate a passive interface?

A. transparent inline mode

B. TAP mode

C. strict TCP enforcement

D. propagate link state

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v64/inline_sets_and_passive_interfaces_for_firepower_threat_defense.html


New Question 5:

What are the minimum requirements to deploy a managed device inline?

A. inline interfaces, security zones, MTU, and mode

B. passive interface, MTU, and mode

C. inline interfaces, MTU, and mode

D. passive interface, security zone, MTU, and mode

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/650/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v65/ips_device_deployments_and_configuration.html


New Question 6:

What is the difference between an inline and inline tap on Cisco Firepower?

A. Inline tap mode can send a copy of the traffic to another device.

B. Inline tap mode does full packet capture.

C. Inline mode cannot do SSL decryption.

D. Inline mode can drop malicious traffic.

Correct Answer: A


New Question 7:

With Cisco Firepower Threat Defense software, which interface mode must be configured to passively receive traffic that passes through the appliance?

A. inline set

B. passive

C. routed

D. inline tap

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v64/interface_overview_for_firepower_threat_defense.html


New Question 8:

Which two deployment types support high availability? (Choose two.)

A. transparent

B. routed

C. clustered

D. intra-chassis multi-instance

E. virtual appliance in public cloud

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/610/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v61/firepower_threat_defense_high_availability.html


New Question 9:

Which protocol establishes network redundancy in a switched Firepower device deployment?

A. STP

B. HSRP

C. GLBP

D. VRRP

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v62/firepower_threat_defense_high_availability.html


New Question 10:

Which interface type allows packets to be dropped?

A. passive

B. inline

C. ERSPAN

D. TAP

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-ngfw/200908-configuring-firepower-threat-defense-int.html


New Question 11:

Which Cisco Firepower Threat Defense, which two interface settings are required when configuring a routed interface? (Choose two.)

A. Redundant Interface

B. EtherChannel

C. Speed

D. Media Type

E. Duplex

Correct Answer: CE

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/610/fdm/fptd-fdm-config-guide-610/fptd-fdm-interfaces.html


New Question 12:

Which two dynamic routing protocols are supported in Firepower Threat Defense without using FlexConfig? (Choose two.)

A. EIGRP

B. OSPF

C. static routing

D. IS-IS

E. BGP

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/660/fdm/fptd-fdm-config-guide-660/fptd-fdm-routing.html


New Question 13:

Which policy rule is included in the deployment of a local DMZ during the initial deployment of a Cisco NGFW through the Cisco FMC GUI?

A. a default DMZ policy for which only a user can change the IP addresses.

B. deny IP any

C. no policy rule is included

D. permit IP any

Correct Answer: C


New Question 14:

What are two application layer preprocessors? (Choose two.)

A. CIFS

B. IMAP

C. SSL

D. DNP3

E. ICMP

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v60/Application_Layer_Preprocessors.html


New Question 15:

Which two OSPF routing features are configured in Cisco FMC and propagated to Cisco FTD? (Choose two.)

A. OSPFv2 with IPv6 capabilities

B. virtual links

C. SHA authentication to OSPF packets

D. area boundary router type 1 LSA filtering

E. MD5 authentication to OSPF packets

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v62/ospf_for_firepower_threat_defense.html

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NEW QUESTION 1:

Which two network types can be extended with VMware HCX Network Extension? (Choose two.)

A. vSphere Distributed Switch VLAN Networks
B. NSX Overlay Networks
C. Trunk Networks
D. vSphere Standard Switch VLAN Networks
E. Private VLAN Networks

Correct Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 2:

Where would a VMware Cloud on AWS administrator generate an API token?

A. Organizational Settings
B. Identity and Access Management
C. Developer Center
D. My Account Section

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3:

A customer wants to ensure that VMware Cloud on AWS maintenance operations are performed during their maintenance window. Which option would allow the customer to achieve this outcome?

A. Schedule a maintenance preference in the software-defined data center (SDDC) console.
B. Schedule a call with VMware Cloud on AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.
C. Schedule a call with AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.
D. Schedule a maintenance window through an online support request.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4:

Which method can be used to deploy a VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center?

A. VMware Data Center Command-Line Interface
B. AWS Management Console
C. REST APIs
D. VMware vCenter Server

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5:

A virtual machine in VMware Cloud on AWS sends a packet to an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) Linux instance in the associated AWS account. Which device is the next hop for the packet?

A. Edge Virtual Machine
B. AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) on the VMware ESXI host
C. Tier-0 (T0) Router
D. Tier-1 (T1) Router

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6:

Which two statements are true for the pre-defined resource pools in VMware Cloud on AWS? (Choose two.)

A. Users are allowed to monitor and modify the resource allocation settings in the Mgmt-RsourcePool.
B. The Mgmt-ResourcePool is able to utilize resources in subsequently created clusters if needed.
C. Users can modify the pre-configured vSphere DRS settings in their own Compute-ResourcePool.
D. Users can rename child resource pools to better match company policy.
E. All workload virtual machines are created in the top-level (root) Compute-ResourcePool by default.

Correct Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 7:

What is the maximum Gbps of bandwidth that each AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) provides on an i3.metal host?

A. 25 Gbps
B. 50 Gbps
C. 10 Gbps
D. 100 Gbps

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8:

The Tier-O (TO) router will send northbound packets through which device?

A. The AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) of the VMware ESXi host that the active TO Edge virtual machine is currently running on.

B. The AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) of the VMware ESXi host where the packet is originating from.

C. The AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) of the VMware ESXI host that the passive TO Edge virtual machine is currently running on.

D. The AWS Elastic Network Adapter (ENA) of the VMware ESXi host that is currently the least utilized.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9:

An administrator runs an analysis on all workloads using Live Optics and confirms there are a variety of applications, including Microsoft SQL server and Oracle databases. The Microsoft SQL workloads are averaging 4,000 IOPS per virtual machine, approximately 50% writes. The Oracle workloads are averaging 3,000 IOPS per virtual machine, and approximately 80% writes. Which method should be used to input the data into the VMware Cloud on AWS Sizer for the most accurate results?

A. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’database\’ mode. Create workload profiles for the analyzed virtual machines, including profiles for Microsoft SQL and Oracle. Set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O profile manually.

B. Use the Quick Sizer. Set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O profile manually.

C. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’import\’ mode. Import the Live Optics data and let the Advanced Sizer set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O automatically.

D. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’manual\’ mode. Create workload profiles for the analyzed virtual machines, including profiles for Microsoft SQL and Oracle. Use the default values for the SQL and Oracle workload profiles.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10:

Which three statements are true about the Elastic DRS Optimize for Rapid Scale-Out policy? (Choose three.)

A. Hosts are added incrementally when needed for storage.

B. Hosts will NOT be removed automatically when they are no longer needed.

C. Multiple hosts are added at a time when needed for memory or CPU.

D. After a storage scale-out event is triggered, single hosts are added every 30 minutes.

E. High threshold for storage, like the other policies, is set at 75%.

F. To resolve constraints related to CPU and memory, hosts are added two at a time.

Correct Answer: ACF

NEW QUESTION 11:

A new VMware Cloud on AWS customer has previously deployed a VMware Horizon-based VDI solution into their data center to support their remote developer workforce. Due to unforeseen growth, the company needs to quickly expand their remote workforce. The growth will consume any forecast capacity in the VDI solution and, therefore, additional capacity is now required. The VDI solution service owner would like the solution to support the ability to quickly scale in/out to provide additional capacity based on demand. Which three steps should the administrator take to scale out the VDI solution? (Choose three.)

A. Deploy a new VMware Horizon pod on VMware Cloud on AWS.

B. Deploy a new VMware Horizon pod on-premises.

C. Configure network connectivity and firewall rules to allow communications between the two on-premises connection servers.

D. Configure network connectivity and firewall rules to allow communications between on-premises and VMware Cloud on AWS connection servers.

E. Connect the two VMware Horizon pods together using the security servers.

F. Connect the two VMware Horizon pods together using a Horizon Cloud Pod Architecture (CPA).

Correct Answer: BDF

NEW QUESTION 12:

A user with an Organization Member role would like to add another user to an organization. How would this be accomplished?

A. Only users with an Organization Owner role can invite and add users to the organization.

B. The user with an Organization Member role needs to have CloudAdmin permissions in order to add a new user.

C. The user with an Organization Member role will be able to add a new user through the Identity and Access Management page.

D. Users with an Organization Member role are automatically granted access to all roles within VMware Cloud on AWS.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13:

An administrator is looking to establish a hybrid connection between on-premises and VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC) environments in order to migrate virtual machines. The on-premises environment is NOT using NSX today; however, the administrator wants to avoid having to change IP addresses after each migration, and there are some applications that require the same broadcast domain. Which connection is needed to meet these requirements?

A. Policy-based VPN
B. Layer 2 VPN (L2VPN)
C. AWS Direct Connect
D. Route-based VPN

Correct Answer: D

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New Question 1:

Company A has noticed abnormal behavior targeting their SQL server on the network from a rogue IP address. The company uses the following internal IP address ranges: 192.10.1.0/24 for the corporate site and 192.10.2.0/24 for the remote

site. The Telco router interface uses the 192.10.5.0/30 IP range.

Instructions: Click on the simulation button to refer to the Network Diagram for Company A.

Click on Router 1, Router 2, and the Firewall to evaluate and configure each device.

Task 1: Display and examine the logs and status of Router 1, Router 2, and Firewall interfaces.

Task 2: Reconfigure the appropriate devices to prevent the attacks from continuing to target the SQL server and other servers on the corporate network.

cas-004 exam questions q1
cas-004 exam questions q1-1

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

We have traffic coming from two rogue IP addresses: 192.10.3.204 and 192.10.3.254 (both in the 192.10.30.0/24 subnet) going to IPs in the corporate site subnet (192.10.1.0/24) and the remote site subnet (192.10.2.0/24). We need to Deny (block) this traffic at the firewall by ticking the following two checkboxes:

New Question 2:

IT staff within a company often conduct remote desktop sharing sessions with vendors to troubleshoot vendor product-related issues. Drag and drop the following security controls to match the associated security concern. Options may be used once or not at all.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Vendor may accidentally or maliciously make changes to the IT system – Allow view-only access.

With view-only access, the third party can view the desktop but cannot interact with it. In other words, they cannot control the keyboard or mouse to make any changes.

Desktop sharing traffic may be intercepted by network attackers – Use SSL for remote sessions.

SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) encrypts data in transit between computers. If an attacker intercepted the traffic, the data would be encrypted and therefore unreadable to the attacker.

No guarantees that shoulder surfing attacks are not occurring at the vendor – Identified control gap.

Shoulder surfing is where someone else gains information by looking at your computer screen. This should be identified as a risk. A control gap occurs when there are either insufficient or no actions taken to avoid or mitigate a significant risk.

Vendor may inadvertently see confidential material from the company such as email and IMs – Limit desktop session to certain windows.

The easiest way to prevent a third party from viewing your emails and IMs is to close the email and IM application windows for the duration of the desktop sharing session.

New Question 3:

A security consultant is considering authentication options for a financial institution. The following authentication options are available security mechanism to the appropriate use case. Options may be used once.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 4:

Drag and drop the cloud deployment model to the associated use-case scenario. Options may be used only once or not at all.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 5:

A security administrator must configure the database server shown below the comply with the four requirements listed. Drag and drop the appropriate ACL that should be configured on the database server to its corresponding requirement. Answer options may be used once or not at all.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 6:

DRAG DROP

A vulnerability scan with the latest definitions was performed across Sites A and B.

INSTRUCTIONS

Match each relevant finding to the affected host.

After associating the finding with the appropriate host(s), click the host to select the appropriate corrective action for that finding.

Each finding may be used more than once.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 7:

DRAG DROP

An organization is planning for disaster recovery and continuity of operations.

INSTRUCTIONS

Review the following scenarios and instructions. Match each relevant finding to the affected host.

After associating scenario 3 with the appropriate host(s), click the host to select the appropriate corrective action for that finding.

Each finding may be used more than once.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 8:

SIMULATION

Compliance with company policy requires a quarterly review of firewall rules. A new administrator is asked to conduct this review on the internal firewall sitting between several internal networks. The intent of this firewall is to make traffic more

restrictive. Given the following information answer the questions below:

User Subnet: 192.168.1.0/24 Server Subnet: 192.168.2.0/24 Finance Subnet:192.168.3.0/24

Instructions: To perform the necessary tasks, please modify the DST port, Protocol, Action, and/or Rule Order columns. Firewall ACLs are read from the top down

Task 1) An administrator added a rule to allow their machine terminal server access to the server subnet. This rule is not working. Identify the rule and correct this issue.

Task 2) All web servers have been changed to communicate solely over SSL. Modify the appropriate rule to allow communications.

Task 3) An administrator added a rule to block access to the SQL server from anywhere on the network. This rule is not working. Identify and correct this issue.

Task 4) Other than allowing all hosts to do network time and SSL, modify a rule to ensure that no other traffic is allowed.

Check the solution below.

Check the answer below

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation.

Task 1) An administrator added a rule to allow their machine terminal server access to the server subnet. This rule is not working. Identify the rule and correct this issue.

The rule shown in the image below is the rule in question. It is not working because the action is set to Deny.

This needs to be set to Permit.

Task 2) All web servers have been changed to communicate solely over SSL. Modify the appropriate rule to allow communications.

The web servers rule is shown in the image below. Port 80 (HTTP) needs to be changed to port 443 for HTTPS (HTTP over SSL).

Task 3) An administrator added a rule to block access to the SQL server from anywhere on the network. This rule is not working. Identify and correct this issue.

The SQL Server rule is shown in the image below. It is not working because the protocol is wrong. It should be TCP, not UDP.

Task 4) Other than allowing all hosts to do network time and SSL, modify a rule to ensure that no other traffic is allowed.

The network time rule is shown in the image below.

However, this rule is not being used because the `any\’ rule shown below allows all traffic and the rule is placed above the network time rule. To block all other traffic, the `any\’ rule needs to be set to Deny, not Permit and the rule needs to be

placed below all the other rules (it needs to be placed at the bottom of the list to the rule is enumerated last).

New Question 9:

SIMULATION

As a security administrator, you are asked to harden a server running Red Hat Enterprise Server 5.5 64-bit.

This server is being used as a DNS and time server. It is not used as a database, web server, or print server. There are no wireless connections to the server, and it does not need to print.

The command window will be provided along with root access. You are connected via a secure shell with root access.

You may query help for a list of commands.

Instructions:

You need to disable and turn off unrelated services and processes.

It is possible to simulate a crash of your server session. The simulation can be reset, but the server cannot be rebooted. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation.

See the below In Order to deactivate web services, database services and print service, we can do following things 1) deactivate its services /etc/init.d/apache2 stop /etc/init.d/mysqld stop 2) close ports for these services Web Server

iptables -I INPUT -p tcp -m tcp –dport 443 -j REJECTservice iptables save Print Server iptables -I INPUT -p tcp -m tcp –dport 631 -j REJECTservice iptables save

Database Server iptables -I INPUT -p tcp -m tcp –dport <> -j REJECTservice iptables save 3) Kill the process any running for the same ps -aef|grep mysql kill -9 <>

New Question 10:

SIMULATION

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation.

Please see the below

Step 1: Verify that the certificate is valid or not. In case of any warning message, cancel the download.

Step 2: If certificate issue is not there then, download the file in your system.

Step 3: Calculate the hash value of the downloaded file.

Step 4: Match the hash value of the downloaded file with the one which you selected on the website.

Step 5: Install the file if the hash value matches.

New Question 11:

SIMULATION

Compliance with company policy requires a quarterly review of firewall rules. You are asked to conduct a review on the internal firewall sitting between several internal networks. The intent of this firewall is to make traffic more secure. Given

the following information perform the tasks listed below:

Untrusted zone: 0.0.0.0/0

User zone: USR 10.1.1.0/24

User zone: USR2 10.1.2.0/24

DB zone: 10.1.0/24

Web application zone: 10.1.5.0/24

Management zone: 10.1.10.0/24 Web server: 10.1.5.50 MS-SQL server: 10.1.4.70

MGMT platform: 10.1.10.250

Task 1) A rule was added to prevent the management platform from accessing the internet. This rule is not working. Identify the rule and correct this issue.

Task 2) The firewall must be configured so that the SQL server can only receive requests from the web server.

Task 3) The web server must be able to receive unencrypted requests from hosts inside and outside the corporate network.

Task 4) Ensure the final rule is an explicit deny.

Task 5) Currently the user zone can access internet websites over an unencrypted protocol. Modify a rule so that user access to websites is over secure protocols only.

Instructions: To perform the necessary tasks, please modify the DST port, SRC zone, Protocol, Action, and/or Rule Order columns. Type ANY to include all ports. Firewall ACLs are read from the top down. Once you have met the simulation

requirements, click Save. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation.

Explanation:

Task 1: A rule was added to prevent the management platform from accessing the internet. This rule is not working. Identify the rule and correct this issue.

In Rule no. 1 edit the Action to Deny to block internet access from the management platform.

Task 2: The firewall must be configured so that the SQL server can only receive requests from the web server. In Rule no. 6 from top, edit the Action to be Permit.

Task 3: The web server must be able to receive unencrypted requests from hosts inside and outside the corporate network. In rule no. 5 from top, change the DST port to Any from 80 to allow all unencrypted traffic.

Task 4: Ensure the final rule is an explicit deny

Enter this at the bottom of the access list i.e. the line at the bottom of the rule:

Task 5: Currently the user zone can access internet websites over an unencrypted protocol. Modify a rule so that user access to websites is over secure protocols only. In Rule number 4 from top, edit the DST port to 443 from 80

New Question 12:

SIMULATION

An administrator wants to install a patch to an application.

INSTRUCTIONS

Given the scenario, download, verify, and install the patch in the most secure manner.

The last install that is completed will be the final submission.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Correct Answer: See the below.

In this case the second link should be used (This may vary in actual exam). The first link showed the following error so it should not be used.

Also, Two of the link choices used HTTP and not HTTPS as shown when hovering over the links as shown:

Since we need to do this in the most secure manner possible, they should not be used.

Finally, the second link was used and the MD5 utility of MD5sum should be used on the install.exe file as shown. Make sure that the hash matches.

Finally, type in install.exe to install it and make sure there are no signature verification errors.

New Question 13:

SIMULATION

As a security administrator, you are asked to harden a server running Red Hat Enterprise Server 5.5 64-bit.

This server is being used as a DNS and time server. It is not used as a database, web server, or print server. There are no wireless connections to the server, and it does not need to print.

The command window will be provided along with root access. You are connected via a secure shell with root access.

You may query help for a list of commands.

Instructions:

You need to disable and turn off unrelated services and processes.

It is possible to simulate a crash of your server session. The simulation can be reset, but the server cannot be rebooted.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Correct Answer: See the below.

New Question 14:

SIMULATION

You are a security analyst tasked with interpreting an Nmap scan output from Company A\’s privileged network.

The company\’s hardening guidelines indicate the following:

1.

There should be one primary server or service per device.

2.

Only default ports should be used.

3.

Non-secure protocols should be disabled.

INSTRUCTIONS

Using the Nmap output, identify the devices on the network and their roles, and any open ports that should be closed. For each device found, add a device entry to the Devices Discovered list, with the following information:

1.

The IP address of the device

2.

The primary server or service of the device

3.

The protocol(s) that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines

To select multiple protocols, use CTRL+CLICK.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation.

10.1.45.65 – FTP Server – Disable 8080

10.1.45.66 – Email Serve – Disable 25 and 415

10.1.45.67 – Web Server – Disable 21, 80

10.1.45.68 – UTM Appliance – Disable 21

New Question 15:

SIMULATION

A product development team has submitted code snippets for review pnor to release INSTRUCTIONS.

Analyze the code snippets and then select one vulnerability and one fix for each code snippet If at any time you would like to bang back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

A. Check the answer in below.

Correct Answer: A

Download the CompTIA CAS-004 PDF for free sharing online:

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Tips: The answer will be announced at the end of the article

Question 1:

What are two characteristics of RPC API calls? (Choose two.)

A. They can be used only on network devices.

B. They use only UDP for communications.

C. Parameters can be passed to the calls.

D. They must use SSL/TLS.

E. They call a single function or service.

Question 2:

Which two actions do Python virtual environments allow users to perform? (Choose two.)

A. Simplify the CI/CD pipeline when checking a project into a version control system, such as Git.

B. Efficiently port code between different languages, such as JavaScript and Python.

C. Run and simulate other operating systems within a development environment.

D. Quickly create any Python environment for testing and debugging purposes.

E. Quickly create an isolated Python environment with module dependencies.

Question 3:

What are two benefits of leveraging Ansible for automation of Cisco IOS XE Software? (Choose two.)

A. Ansible playbooks are packaged and installed on IOS XE devices for automatic execution when an IOS device reboots.

B. All IOS XE operating systems include Ansible playbooks for basic system administration tasks.

C. It is a device-independent method for automation and can be used with any type of device or operating system.

D. Ansible playbooks can be written from the IOS XE EXEC command line to configure the device itself.

E. It does not require any modules of the software except SSH to be loaded on the network device.

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. The task is to create a Python script to display an alert message when a Meraki MX Security Appliance goes down. The exhibit shows sample data that is received. Which Python snippet displays the device name and the time at which the switch went down?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. The goal is to write a Python script to automatically send a message to an external messaging application when a rogue AP is detected on the network.

The message should include the broadcast SSID that is in the alert.

A function called “send_to_application” is created, and this is the declaration:

send_to_application(message)

The exhibit also shows the data that is received by the application and stored in the variable return_val.

Which Python code completes the task?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 6:

Which two features are foundations of a software-defined network instead of a traditional network? (Choose two.)

A. control plane and data plane are tightly coupled

B. build upon a robust software stack

C. requires device-by-device-level configurations

D. automated through expressed intent to a software controller

E. requires significant physical hardware resources

Question 7:

A new project called “device_status” must be stored in a central Git repository called “device_status” with the first file named “device_status.py”.

The Git repository is created using the account python_programmer. Which set of commands inserts the project into Git?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 8:

What are two characteristics of synchronous calls to APIs? (Choose two.)

A. They can be used only with certain programming languages.

B. They make your application less portable, so asynchronous calls are preferred.

C. They can add perceived latency to your application if data is not received.

D. They block until a response is returned from the servers.

E. They do not block while waiting for the API to be processed.

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result when running the Python scripts?

A. s1

B. s2

C. s1, s2, s3

D. s3

Question 10:

An engineer stores source code in a Git repository and is ready to develop a new feature. The production release is stored in the “master” branch.

Which commands create the new feature in a separate branch called “feature” and check out the new version?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of YANG container is described by the JSON instance provided?

A. interface-configurations

B. active

C. interface-name

D. description

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. Which NETCONF protocol operation is used to interact with the YANG model?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. How many YANG models does the NETCONF operation interact with?

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four

Question 14:

Which statement describe the difference between OpenConfig and native YANG data models?

A. Native models are designed to be independent of the underlying platform and are developed by vendors and standards bodies, such as the IETF.

B. Native models are developed by individual developers and designed to apply configurations on platforms.

C. OpenConfig models are developed by vendors and designed to integrate to features or configurations that are relevant only to that platform.

D. Native models are developed by vendors and designed to integrate to features or configurations that are relevant only to that platform.

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer creates a Python script using RESTCONF to display hostname information. The code must be completed so that it can be tested. Which string completes the highlighted areas in the exhibit?

A. yang-data+json

B. yang +json

C. yang.data+json

D. JSON

Verify the answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:ACDEACBABDACEBCAAAAA

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Tips: The answer will be announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

Which command is used to upgrade a Tanzu Kubernetes Grid Cluster (TKG) to a different kubernetes version?

A. tkg cluster upgrade –k8s-version
B. tkg upgrade cluster –kubernetes-version
C. tkg cluster upgrade –kubernetes-version
D. tkg upgrade cluster –version

QUESTION 2:

What is the command to find out the available node base operating system images?

A. kubectl get nodes
B. kubectl cluster-info
C. kubectl get virtualmachineclasses
D. kubectl get virtualmachineimages

QUESTION 3:

An architect is designing the infrastructure for multiple applications and needs to ensure isolation and control over resources and permissions assigned to each application team.

Which is the easiest and least expensive way to satisfy these requirements?

A. Use a dedicated Supervisor Cluster per application
B. Use dedicated vSphere Namespace per application
C. Use dedicated vSphere Pod per application
D. Use dedicated Kubernetes Deployments per each application

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

A developer deployed Nginx with 2 replicas on a new Tanzu Kubernetes Grid cluster, but the deployment did not move to a ready state.

What is the next step to troubleshoot?

A. kubectl describe pods
B. kubectl describe replicasets
C. kubectl get pods
D. kubectl get errors

QUESTION 5:

What are the pre-requisites for installing the Harbor registry in Tanzu Kubernetes Grid (TKG)?

A. Install Harbor helm from vCenter.
B. Deploy a management cluster, download and install the TKG extensions and Carvel tools.
C. Deploy a management cluster, launch the Harbor installation wizard.
D. Deploy a management cluster and install Tanzu Kubernetes Grid extensions.

QUESTION 6:

What is the MINIMUM required version of vSphere to install Tanzu Kubernetes Grid?

A. 6.0 Update 1
B. 6.5 Update 2
C. 6.7 Update 1
D. 6.7 Update 3

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two options can be modified in order to expose Nginx app using Ingress Controller? (Choose two.)

A. Change type to IngressController
B. Change type to LoadBalancer
C. Change type to NodePort
D. Change type to HostPort
E. Change type to AntreaCni

QUESTION 8:

On VMware vSphere with Tanzu, which attribute identifies the etcd Leader node using the vSphere Client?

A. amount of memory resources
B. number of Networks
C. number of IP addresses
D. amount of compute resources

QUESTION 9:

What is the period of time to consider DISCONNECTED state for a cluster in Tanzu Mission Control?

A. 3 minutes
B. 1 minute
C. 2 minutes
D. 5 minutes

QUESTION 10:

Which upgrade method can be used for an ‘in-place’ Kubernetes update?

A. Run “kubectl patch” command against a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster
B. Change the VirtualMachineClass on a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster
C. Change the number of control plane nodes
D. Change the StorageClass on a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster

QUESTION 11:

How are Tanzu Kubernetes clusters upgraded?

A. Deploy a new cluster with upgraded Kubernetes release
B. Rolling upgrades
C. Clusters are only upgraded offline
D. In-place upgrade for each node

QUESTION 12:

Which two roles are required to attach clusters in Tanzu Mission Control? (Choose two.)

A. cluster.attach.admin
B. clustergroup.attach.admin
C. clustergroup.edit
D. clusters.admin
E. cluster.admin

QUESTION 13:

Which is the correct statement describing the characteristic of a pod?

A. Pod is the smallest entity managed by Docker.
B. Pod can contain only one container.
C. Containers in a pod start and stop together.
D. Pod is deployed directly on the virtual machine.

……

Verify the answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
Answers:BABABDADCAABCEC

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Exam 2V0-51.21: Professional VMware Horizon 8.x

Vendor: VMware
Exam Code: 2V0-51.21
Exam Name: Professional VMware Horizon 8. X
Certification: VCP-DTM 2022
Language: English
Number of Questions: 60
Duration: 125 Minutes
Passing Score: 300
Format: Multiple Choice, Multiple Choice Multiple Selection, Drag and Drop, Matching, Hot Area
Pricing: $250 USD

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Tips: The answer will be announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

End-users are complaining that they are frequently being asked for credentials when opening additional apps.

Which step should the administrator take to resolve the issue?

A. Configure SSO Timeout by modifying the Global Settings in Horizon Administrator.
B. Configure Session Timeout by modifying the Client Settings in Horizon Client.
C. Configure a time limit by modifying the Horizon GPO.
D. Configure Desktop Timeout by modifying the Pool Settings in Horizon Administrator.

QUESTION 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the high-level configuration steps for smart card authentication on the left into the correct sequential order on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 3:

An administrator is tasked with allowing managers to request desktops and changes to desktops for their employees.

What VMware solution can be used to meet this requirement?

A. vRealize Operations
B. Horizon Automated Pools
C. vRealize Automation
D. Horizon Help Desk

QUESTION 4:

Which two steps must be completed in order to expand a writable volume? (Choose two.)

A. Select Volumes > Writables > Select Volume > Expand.
B. Modify the snapvol.cfg to reflect the new size.
C. Select Volumes > Writables > Select Volume > Update Writable.
D. Specify a size that is at least 1MB larger than the current size of the volume.
E. Specify a size that is at least 1GB larger than the current size of the volume.

QUESTION 5:

An administrator wants to ensure users can access an application that uses .NET 3.0 for desktops available on Horizon On-premises and on Horizon Cloud Service on Microsoft Azure.

Which two options would achieve this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Create a ThinApp package and provision it with App Volumes.
B. Install the application on the primary image.
C. Copy the vmdk and .json file to the Azure storage.
D. Capture the application in App Volumes.
E. Copy the vhd and .json file to the Azure storage.

QUESTION 6:

After creating a new desktop pool that contains customization specifications, a Horizon administrator sees the following message in the VMware Horizon event database:

Provisioning error occurred for Machine Machine_Name: Customization failed for Machine

Which two could be the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. The customization specification has been renamed or deleted.
B. Desktops can only be customized after the end user logs into the virtual machine.
C. The compute account of the template has been removed from the Active Directory.
D. The administrator does not have sufficient permissions to access the customization specification.
E. Desktop pool provisioning is disabled.

QUESTION 7:

Which can be used to make sure only certain Connection Servers are used for a Global Entitlement?

A. Category Folders
B. Home sites
C. Tags
D. Access Groups

QUESTION 8:

An administrator sees a lot of instant-clone template VM\’s that are not in use anymore in vCenter.

What tool needs to be used to clean up old templates?

A. iccleanup.cmd
B. icunprotect.cmd
C. vdmadmin.exe
D. icmaint.cmd

QUESTION 9:

Which of the following statements are true about Application Profiler?

A. VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Agent and the Application Profiler cannot be installed on the same machine.

B. Application Profiler is installed using VMware Dynamic Environment Manager Enterprise Setup Wizard and explicitly selecting local drive installation.

C. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing VMware Dynamic Environment Manager FlexEngine.

D. Application Profiler is installed automatically when installing the Dynamic Environment Manager Management Console.

QUESTION 10:

An administrator configured a virtual machine to use an NVIDIA card but the virtual machine is not starting up.

What could be the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. No suitable host could be found.
B. Not all memory has been reserved on the VM.
C. Not all CPUs have been reserved on the VM.
D. The Desktop Pool doesn\’t support 3D cards.
E. 3D graphics cannot be used with local storage.

QUESTION 11:

A new Horizon environment has gone into production. External sessions are disconnected after a
random period of time.

The following information has been documented by the administrator:

Internal and external users are able to connect to their desktops.

External sessions connect via a Unified Access Gateway.

Users are immediately able to reconnect but will be disconnected again in a few minutes.

Internal sessions, connected directly to the desktops, are not impacted.

While the session remains connected, all expected functionality works properly.

What could be the cause of this issue?

A. A misconfigured network load balancer is in front of the Unified Access Gateway appliances.
B. A misconfigured network load balancer is in front of the Connection Servers.
C. Required firewall ports are not open in front of the Connection Servers.
D. Required firewall ports are not open in front of the Unified Access Gateway appliances.

QUESTION 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is creating an automated desktop pool of full clones. When prompted to select a template, the administrator sees the detail shown in the exhibit.

Which two combined actions should the administrator perform to be able to continue with the creation of a desktop pool? (Choose two.)

A. Open vSphere Client, select the golden image virtual machine and convert to template.

B. Open vSphere Client, select the golden image virtual machine and take a snapshot.

C. Enter the golden image virtual machine name in the Template Filter and select the template virtual machine.

D. Open vSphere Client, select the golden image virtual machine and remove all snapshots.

E. Refresh the Select template view and select the template virtual machine.

QUESTION 13:

Which two required distributions should be installed on a Linux machine that will be used as a multi-session host? (Choose two.)

A. Peppermint OS
B. RHEL Workstation
C. Solaris Linux
D. SUSE Enterprise Server
E. Ubuntu

Verify the answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
Answers:CIMAGEBAEDEADDDBABCDEBE

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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-910
Exam Name: Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms (DEVOPS)
Certification: Cisco Certified DevNet Professional
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD
Number of Questions: 55-65
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Cisco 300-910 exam questions online practice test:

Tips: Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

Which two practices help make the security of an application a more integral part of the software development lifecycle? (Choose two.)

A. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline that runs a dynamic code analysis tool during the pipeline execution.

B. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline that runs a static code analysis tool during the pipeline execution.

C. Use only software modules that are written by the internal team.

D. Add a step to the CI/CD pipeline to modify the release plan so that updated versions of the software are made available more often.

E. Ensure that the code repository server has enabled drive encryption and stores the keys on a Trusted Platform Module or Hardware Security Module.

Question 2:

A CI/CD pipeline that builds infrastructure components using Terraform must be designed. A step in the pipeline is needed that checks for errors in any of the .tf files in the working directory. It also checks the existing state of the defined infrastructure.

Which command does the pipeline run to accomplish this goal?

A. terraform plan

B. terraform check

C. terraform fmt

D. terraform validate

Question 3:

Configuration changes to the production network devices are performed by a CI/CD pipeline. The code repository and the CI tool are running on separate servers. Some configuration changes are pushed to the code repository, but the pipeline did not start.

Why did the pipeline fail to start?

A. The CI server was not configured as a Git remote for the repository.

B. The webhook call from the code repository did not reach the CI server.

C. Configuration changes must be sent to the pipeline, which then updates the repository.

D. The pipeline must be started manually after the code repository is updated.

Question 4:

A new version of an application is being released by creating a separate instance of the application that is running the new code. Only a small portion of the user base will be directed to the new instance until that version has been proven stable.

Which deployment strategy is this example of?

A. recreate

B. blue/green

C. rolling

D. canary

Question 5:

Which description of a canary deployment is true?

A. deployment by accident

B. deployment that is rolled back automatically after a configurable amount of minutes

C. deployment relating to data mining development

D. deployment to a limited set of servers or users

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. What is causing the request code to fail?

A. Rython3 is not compatible with requests.

B. The requests library is not imported.

C. The requests library is not installed.

D. The requests coming into stdin fail because device_ip cannot be parsed.

Question 7:

A DevOps engineer wants to build an application implementation based on the CI/CD pipeline model. Which service should be used to provide hosted continuous service for open and private projects?

A. Ansible

B. pyATS

C. Genie CLI

D. Travis CI

Question 8:

Which two actions help limit the attack surface of your Docker container? (Choose two.)

A. Run only a single service in each container.

B. Run all services in a single image.

C. Use version tags for base images and dependencies.

D. Use Kali Linux as a base image.

E. Download images over HTTPS supporting sites.

Question 9:

A DevOps engineer has built a container to host a web server and it must run as an executable. Which command must be configured in a Dockerfile to accomplish this goal?

A. ENTRYPOINT

B. ENTRYPOINT [“/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”, “-D”, “FOREGROUND”]

C. ENTRYPOINT [“BACKGROUND”, “-D”, “/usr/sbin/apache2ctl”]

D. ENTRYPOINT {usr/sbin/apache2ctl}

Question 10:

A Microservices architecture pattern has been applied and the system has been architected as a set of services. Each service is deployed as a set of instances for throughput and availability.

In which two ways are these services packaged and deployed? (Choose two.)

A. Service instances must be isolated from one another.

B. Service must be independently deployable and scalable.

C. Service is written using the same languages, frameworks, and framework versions.

D. Service must be dependent, deployable, and scalable.

E. Service instances do not need to be isolated from one another.

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason for this error message?

A. The required dependencies for the urllib3 module are not installed.

B. The requests module is not installed.

C. The required dependencies for the requests module are not installed.

D. The site-packages directory has been corrupted.

Question 12:

ConfigMap keys have been mapped to different file names using the volumes.configMap.items field. What is the result if a wrong ConfigMap key is specified?

A. The default path is not used.

B. The volume is not created.

C. The volume is created.

D. The volume is created with errors.

Question 13:

What are the two benefits of Infrastructure as Code? (Choose two.)

A. It enables continuous integration.

B. It allows for management control.

C. It ensures consistency.

D. It improves application monitoring.

E. It reduces risk.

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the user doing with Drone in this automated test?

A. testing Alpine Linux versus Ubuntu Linux

B. testing a PostgreSQL DB against multiple architectures

C. testing only the amd64 architecture

D. testing PostgreSQL deployment in an Alpine Linux VM

Question 15:

An interface on a router as a Layer 3 link has been configured to another device by updating an Ansible playbook that is executed via a CI/CD pipeline. The Ansible playbook was written to push the configuration change using the ios_config module.

Which automated test validates that the interface is functioning as it should?

A. Add a pipeline step that runs the playbook a second type. If it does not modify the device on the second run, then the interface is correctly configured.

B. Automated testing is already built in because the playbook execution is successful only after Ansible validates that it applied the change.

C. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the packet flow for the interface.

D. Add a pipeline step that captures and parses the show IP interface output so that the operational state can be referenced.

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:AEDCDDBDCEAABBACEDB

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Vendor: VMware
Exam Code: 1V0-81.20
Exam Name: Associate VMware Security
Certification: VCTA-SEC 2021 / VCTA-SEC 2022
Language: English
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 55
Passing score: 300 (VMware exams are scaled on a range from 100-500, with the determined raw cut score scaled to a value of 300.)
Format: Multiple Choice, Multiple Choice Multiple Selection, Drag and Drop, Matching, Proctored
Pricing: $125 USD

You can also try the 1V0-81.20 online test first:

Verify answers at the end of the test

QUESTION 1:

In VMware Carbon Black Cloud, which reputations have the highest priority during analysis?

A. Known Priority
B. Trusted Allow List
C. Company Allow List
D. Ignore

QUESTION 2:

Which VMware application enrolls an endpoint into Workspace ONE?

A. Workspace ONE Web
B. CB Defense Sensor
C. VMware Horizon Client
D. Workspace ONE Intelligent Hub

QUESTION 3:

When filtering firewall rules after selecting an object to filter by, which four columns do the filter search? (Choose four.)

A. Services
B. Action
C. Protocol
D. Log
E. Applied To
F. Source
G. Destinations

QUESTION 4:

When using VMware Carbon Black Live Response, what command will show all active processes?

A. dir
B. list
C. ls
D. ps

QUESTION 5:

Which parameter ensures an endpoint will stay connected with the designated VMware Carbon Black Cloud tenant?

A. Company Code
B. Organization Group ID
C. Device Serial Number
D. User ID

QUESTION 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true about the firewall rule?

A. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that drops traffic on port 22

B. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Services, DB-Servers, and Web-Servers that rejects traffic on port 22

C. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Services, DB-Servers, and Web-Servers that drops traffic on port 22

D. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that rejects traffic on port 22

QUESTION 7:

A technician has been asked to confirm a specific browser extension does not exist on any endpoint in their environment.
Which is the VMware Carbon Black tool to use for this task?

A. Enterprise EDR
B. EDR
C. Audit and Remediation
D. Endpoint Standard

QUESTION 8:

Which attack technique probes the environment for openings on devices or the firewall?

A. Port Scan
B. Denial of Service
C. Living off the Land
D. Phishing

QUESTION 9:

What is the safe course of action for a USB disk of unknown ownership and origin?

A. Do not connect the USB to any computer as it may be a USB Killer device
B. Connect the USB device to your computer and allow the DLP software to protect it
C. Connect the USB to a non-Windows device and examine it
D. Connect the USB to an air-gapped system and examine it

QUESTION 10:

In VMware Carbon Black Cloud Endpoint Standard, which items are available in the Event view?

A. Hashes, Reputations
B. Emails, Policies, OS, Locations
C. Connection, IP/Port
D. IDs, Indicators/TTPs

QUESTION 11:

Micro-segmentation is under which pillar of trust in VMware\’s 5 pillars of Zero Trust?

A. User
B. Session/Transport
C. Application
D. Device

QUESTION 12:

Which VMware product allows you to query an endpoint like a database?

A. VMware NSX-T Data Center
B. VMware Carbon Black Audit and Remediation
C. VMware Workspace ONE UEM
D. VMware Carbon Black Endpoint Standard

QUESTION 13:

What types of hosts are supported for hosting both NSX-T Data Center managers and host transport nodes?

A. vSphere ESXi 6.7U1 or higher, KVM on CentOS Linux
B. vSphere ESXi 6.7U1 or higher, KVM on RHEL 7.6, Ubuntu 18.04.2 LTS
C. vSphere ESXi 6.5, KVM on RHEL 7.6, Ubuntu 18.04.2 LTS
D. vSphere ESXi 6.7U1 or higher, CentOS KVM 7.6, RHEL KVM

……

Verify answer:

Number:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
Answers:BDA E F GBDAAADCBCA

Download the above 1V0-81.20 online test questions:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1uHz9-UXJMVB1FWcALS0q5dWLvdN0QCfQ/

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[Updated 2022] Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 exam question and answers

QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to config-router CB-R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with CB-R2.

Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

A. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

B. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

C. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

D. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.252 area 0
network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Correct Answer: B

 
QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

How many JSON objects are represented?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two)

A. R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out

B. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255

C. R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in

D. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127

E. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any

Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2.126?

A. 10.165 20.126
B. 10.165.20.146
C. 10.165.20.166
D. 10.165 20.226

Correct Answer: D

……

[Updated 2022]: Get more free CCNA 200-301 dumps questions and labs

Latest updates Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)
A. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.
C. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)
A. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the
link.
B. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.
C. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.
D. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.
E. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
A. 10.10.1.10
B. 10.10.10.20
C. 172.16.15.10
D. 192.168.0.1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose
two.)
A. input errors
B. frame
C. giants
D. CRC
E. runts
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROPlead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5-2

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites.
Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach
one another? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.
B. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.
C. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.
D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.
E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down.
B. After spanning tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.
C. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.
D. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
A. Configure VTY access.
B. Configure the version of SSH.
C. Assign a DNS domain name.
D. Create a user with a password.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
A. allocation nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
B. disabling TCP so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices
C. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps
D. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)
A. one-to-many communication model
B. one-to-nearest communication model
C. any-to-many communication model
D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
E. the same address for multiple devices in the group
F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
Correct Answer: BEF
A new address type made specifically for IPv6 is called the Anycast Address. These IPv6 addresses are global
addresses, these addresses can be assigned to more than one interface unlike an IPv6 unicast address. Anycast is
designed to send a packet to the nearest interface that is a part of that anycast group. The sender creates a packet and
forwards the packet to the anycast address as the destination address which goes to the nearest router. The nearest
router or interface is found by using the metric of a routing protocol currently running on the network. However in a LAN
setting the nearest interface is found depending on the order the neighbors were learned. The anycast packet in a LAN
setting forwards the packet to the neighbor it learned about first.

QUESTION 11
Which IPv6 address type communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
A. link-local
B. unique local
C. multicast D. global unicast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?
A. TTL
B. MAC address forwarding
C. Collision avoidance
D. Port blocking
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
A. enable secret
B. enable password
C. service password-encryption
D. username cisco password encrypt
Correct Answer: C

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